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PPL > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

Revising the Air Law course

1
Q

In order for the holder of a landplane rating to acquire a seaplane rating (on a single-pilot aircraft), _______ hours of training are required, including _____ hours dual and _____ solo T/O and landings.e

A

7 hours of training
5 hours of dual
5 solo T/O and landings

CAR 421.38

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2
Q

In order for the holder of a seaplane rating to acquire a landplane rating (on a single-pilot aircraft), _______ hours of training are required, including _____ hours dual and _____ solo T/O and landings.

A

3 hours of training
2 hours of dual
5 solo T/O and landings

CAR 421.38

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3
Q

Flying VFR in a controlled airspace :

  • what is the minimum visibility?
  • what is the minimum distance from clouds?
A

Minimum visibility : 3 SM

Minimum distance from clouds : 1 SM horizontal, 500ft vertical

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4
Q

What is the content of a VFR position report?

A

Identification, position, time, altitude, VFR, destination

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5
Q

In the event of a forest fire, at what minimum distance shall you operate your aircraft?

A

Minimum 3,000ft AGL within 5 NM of the forest fire area.

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6
Q

If intercepted by a military aircraft, what actions should you conduct?

A
  • Follow instructions
  • Respond to signals
  • Notify the appropriate ATS unit (if possible)
  • Attempt to establish radio contact w/ intercepting aircraft on 121.5MHz
  • Squawk 7700 on transponder mode A
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7
Q

An aircraft is classified as “large” if its MCTOW is…?

A

Equal or greater than 5,700kg (12,566 lbs)

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8
Q

An aircraft is classified as “small” if its MCTOW is…?

A

Less than 5,700kg (12,566 lbs)
In case of an helicopter, less than 2,730kg (6,018 lbs)

AIM.RAC.3.5.1

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9
Q

Within 10NM of a controlled airport and below 3,000ft AGL, what is the maximum allowable speed?

A

200 KIAS

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10
Q

Below 10,000ft, what is the maximum allowable speed?

A

250 KIAS

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11
Q

When taking off an aerodrome located in SPR (Standard Pressure Region), and when climbing within SPR to reach cruising altitude or level, how should the altimeter be set?

A

Set to the aerodrome altimeter setting (or aerodrome elevation if A setting is unavailable), then set to 29.92 InHg just prior to levelling off at cruising altitude/level.

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12
Q

If a flight plan has been filed, when should you file your arrival report?

A

As soon as possible but not later than 1 hour after the last reported ETA or after the SAR action initiation time (if specified).

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13
Q

If a flight itinerary has been filed, when should you file your arrival report?

A

As soon as possible but not later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA or after the SAR action initiation time (if specified).

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14
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation distance for a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft?

A

5 NM

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15
Q

When no hold short lines are defined, at which recommanded distance should you stop the aircraft prior to get a clearance to line up and take-off?

A

200ft

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16
Q

In order to prevent a heavy aircraft to suffer from wake turbulence, which distance should it maintain behind another heavy aircraft?

A

4 NM

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17
Q

Behind a heavy aircraft, at which distance should a light aircraft be to avoid wake turbulence?

A

6 NM

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18
Q

Behind a super heavy aircraft, at which distance should a medium aircraft be to avoid wake turbulence?

A

7 NM

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19
Q

What is the main purpose of an ATIS?

A

To relieve frequency congestion

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20
Q

What is the objective of a TSB investigation?

A

The prevention of recurrences

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21
Q

A wind direction indicator which is 5° below horizontal indicates a wind of…?

A

10 knots

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22
Q

To conduct aerobatics while carrying a passenger, what are the minimum requirements that the pilot-in-command should meet?

A

Having 10 hours of dual instruction in conducting aerobatics manoeuvres, or 20 hours total in conducting aerobatics manoeuvres
+
at least 1 hour of aerobatics flight in the last 6 months

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23
Q

What is the transponder code that needs to be squawked in case of a hijack?

A

7500

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24
Q

What is the transponder code that needs to be squawked in case of an emergency?

A

7700

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25
Q

What is the transponder code that needs to be squawked in case of a radio failure?

A

7600

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26
Q

How long should be the cross-country navigation required for the obtention of the PPL?

A

150 NM

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27
Q

How long is the student pilot permit valid?

A

60 months

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28
Q

What is the minimum mark you must have in PPAER in order to get your PPL?

A

60% overall with 60% min. in each of the 4 subjects

If you have 60% overall, you’re allowed up to 2 partials (less than 60%) before re-write the entire exam

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29
Q

What are the four subjects covered by PPAER exam?

A

Air Law
Navigation and radio aids
General Aviation Knowledge
Meteorology

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30
Q

What is the difference between an aerostat and an aerodyne?

A

An aerostat is lighter than air, an aerodyne is heavier than air.

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31
Q

What is an airport?

A

A certified aerodrome

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32
Q

What is an aerodrome operator?

A

It’s the person in charge of an aerodrome, or any employee, agent or other authorized representative of that person.

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33
Q

Unless otherwise specified, a Control Zone (CZ) is controlled airspace extending from ______ to ______?

A

The surface of the earth

3,000ft AGL

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34
Q

What is called a controlled aerodrome?

A

An aerodrome on which an air traffic control unit is in operation.

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35
Q

What is the movement area?

A

It’s the manoeuvring area + the aprons

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36
Q

What is the manoeuvring area?

A

The runways and taxiways (parts of airport used for the movement of aircraft associated with T/O and landing)

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37
Q

How is called a marking that has a yellow inscription on black background?

A

A location sign

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38
Q

How do you recognize a direction sign?

A

It has black inscription on yellow background and includes arrows.

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39
Q

What is a displaced threshold and how is it materialized?

A

It’s a line on the runway beyond which an aircraft can land.

The part of the runway that is closed to landings has arrows towards the displaced threshold. This part of the runway can be used for taxiing and taking off.

40
Q

What are the minimum requirements for the lighting of a runway?

A

It has to be white lights or reflective markers that can be seen in all directions from an aircraft at a minimum distance of 2 NM.

Lights are disposed on the sides of the runway, parallel and of equal length (minimum 8 lights, 420m), separated from each other of max. 60m (200ft).

The transverse distance between two lights on each side has to be equal to the width of the RWY, and form a right angle with the center line of the RWY.

41
Q

How do you operate aerodrome lighting with an ARCAL type J?

A

Key microphone 5 times within 5 seconds

42
Q

How long the lighting operated with an ARCAL stays lighten up?

A

Approx. 15 minutes

43
Q

When do you use the “ident” function of your transponder?

A

Only when asked to do so by an ATC unit.

44
Q

Above 12,500ft, which transponder code should you squawk if no particular code has been assigned to you?

A

1400

45
Q

In class A airspace during a VFR flight, which transponder mode should you use?

A

There is no VFR flight in class A airspace!

mode C is to be used if you fly IFR, though

46
Q

When flying VFR between 12,500 and 18,000ft, which equipment should you have onboard your aircraft?

A

A two-way radio, radio navigation equipment, transponder mode C.

47
Q

Regarding the requirements towards ATC, what is the difference between a class C and a class D airspace?

A 
Entering a class C airspace requires clearance.
Entering a class D airspace requires to establish communication.
48
Q

When an helicopter and a glider are converging at approximately the same altitude, which one has the right of way?

A

The glider.

49
Q

When an aircraft towing a glider and an airship are converging at approximately the same altitude, which one should give way to the other?

A

The aircraft towing the glider.

50
Q

When a balloon and an aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which one has the right of way?

A

The balloon.

51
Q

If converging, should a glider give way to an aircraft towing a banner?

A

No.

52
Q

When an aircraft wants to overtake another one, what should the pilot of the overtaking aircraft do?

A

Alter his/her heading to the right.

53
Q

During overtake, which aircraft has the right of way?

A

The aircraft being overtaken.

54
Q

When two aircrafts are approaching head-on (or approximately so) and there is danger of collision, what should the pilots do?

A

Alter their heading to the right.

55
Q

After consuming an alcoholic beverage, how much time should someone wait before acting as a flight crew member?

A

12 hours

56
Q

Where can you find the operating limitations of an aircraft?

A
  • In the aircraft flight manual
  • On markings and placards
  • Prescribed by authorities
57
Q

What are the requirements to start an aircraft’s engine?

A
  • Pilot’s seat occupied by someone competent to control the aircraft
  • Aircraft is prevented from moving
58
Q

What are the requirements to leave an aircraft engine running?

A
  • Pilot’s seat occupied by someone competent to control the aircraft

or

  • No persons are on board the aircraft
  • Aircraft is prevented from moving
  • The aircraft is not left unattended
59
Q

Which critical surfaces should be preserved of ice, frost or snow?

A
  • Wings
  • Propellers & Rotors
  • Control surfaces
  • Stabilizers
  • Any other stabilizing surface of the aircraft
60
Q

What is the minimum distance to keep with obstacles when flying over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons?

A

1,000ft with the highest obstacle in a 2,000ft radius from the aircraft.

61
Q

In which cases a low altitude flight is permitted?

A
  • Police operations
  • For the purpose of saving human life
  • Fire-fighting and air ambulance ops
  • Aerial photography (conducted by holder of an air operator certificate)
  • Flight training with a supervising FI onboard
62
Q

If the ATC unit is not in operation, what happens with class C and class D airspaces?

A

They become class E airspaces.

63
Q

What is considered an aerobatic manoeuvre?

A
  • Bank angle of more than 60°
  • Abnormal altitude change
  • Abnormal acceleration
64
Q

When flying VFR within Northern Domestic Airspace with a true track of 255°, which altitude should I fly?

A

Even + 500ft (4,500ft / 6,500ft / 8,500ft etc.)

65
Q

When flying IFR within Southern Domestic Airspace following a magnetic track of 167°, at which altitude should I fly?

A

Odd (5,000ft / 7,000ft / etc.)

The question said IFR!

66
Q

Flying in Standard Pressure Region, when should you set your altimeter to the altimeter setting of the aerodrome at which you plan to land?

A

Just before starting the final descent (aka the descent for the purpose of landing)

67
Q

When transiting between Altimeter-Setting Region and Standard Pressure Region, on which side of the “frontier” should you change your altimeter setting?

A

Always in Standard Pressure Region

68
Q

When flying a multi-engine aircraft with the ability to fly with one engine failed, when is it mandatory to carry life rafts on board?

A

When you fly over water more than 200 NM or 60 minutes at cruise speed (lesser distance)

CAR 602.63

69
Q

When is it mandatory to carry individual floating devices on board?

A

When you plan to fly over water beyond a distance that would allow the aircraft to reach shore

CAR 602.62

70
Q

What information do you have to put on a flight plan or a flight itinerary?

A
  • Registration and type of aircraft
  • Flight rules (VFR or IFR)
  • Type of flight
  • Wake turbulence category
  • Aircraft equipment (radio, radionav)
  • Departure aerodrome
  • Departure time
  • Route
  • Cruising speed
  • Cruising altitude
  • Arrival aerodrome
  • Arrival time (estimated)
  • Estimated total time
  • SAR activation time
  • Alternative aerodrome
  • Endurance
  • Colours and markings
  • Pilot’s name and license number
  • Number of persons on board
  • ELT category
  • Survival equipment
  • Contact if SAR action is initiated
  • Other remarks
71
Q

With who can you file your flight plan or flight itinerary?

A
  • ATC
  • Flight service station
  • Community aerodrome radio station
72
Q

What is the definition of day time? (old and new version)

A

Old : 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset / in regions where the sun doesn’t rise or set daily, whenever the center of the sun’s disc is above 6° below the horizon

New : from the beginning of the morning civil twilight to the end of the evening civil twilight

73
Q

What is the definition of night time? (old and new version)

A

Old : 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise / in regions where the sun doesn’t rise or set daily, whenever the center of the sun’s disc is below 6° below the horizon

New : from the end of the evening civil twilight to the beginning of the morning civil twilight

74
Q

What is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds when flying by day in uncontrolled airspace below 1,000ft AGL?

A

2 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

1 SM visibility if you fly an helicopter.

75
Q

Flying VFR in a Control Zone, what is the minimum distance from ground?

A

500ft, except for the purpose of T/O or landing

76
Q

What is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds when flying by night in uncontrolled airspace above 1,000ft AGL?

A
  • 3 SM visibility

- Distance from clouds : 2,000ft horizontally and 500ft vertically

77
Q

What are the requirements to perform a VFR OTT flight?

A
  • Get the rating (10h instruments flight in addition to the 5h of the PPL)
  • 5 SM min. visibility
  • 5,000ft between two layers of clouds
  • Min. vertical distance from clouds : 1,000ft
78
Q

What are the requirements regarding the destination aerodrome regarding a VFR OTT flight?

A
  • Sky condition : SCT or CLR
  • Min. ground visibility : 5 SM
  • No forecast of precipitations, fog, TS or BLSN

These conditions have to be met :

  • 1 hour before and 2 hours after ETA if weather forecast is a TAF
  • 1 hour before and 3 hours after ETA if weather forecast is a FA (area forecast)
79
Q

What are the minimum conditions to operate a SVFR (Special VFR) flight?

A
  • Controlled airspace (authorization needed)
  • Min. visibility : 1 SM (half an SM if helicopter)
  • Visual reference to the ground
  • Clear of clouds

Only possible for the purpose of landing when requested during night.

80
Q

What should you do if you notice a radio communication failure while operating in a class B, C or D airspace?

A

Leave the airspace.
Squawk 7600.
If possible, inform ATC.

81
Q

What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft means (in flight and on ground)?

A
  • In flight : give way to other aircraft, continue circling

- On ground : stop

82
Q

What do blinking runway lights advise to vehicles and pedestrians?

A

Vacate the runways immediately.

83
Q

What does a flashing green light directed at an aircraft means (in flight and on ground)?

A
  • In flight : return for landing

- On ground : cleared to taxi

84
Q

What does a flashing red light directed at an aircraft means (in flight and on ground)?

A
  • In flight : airport unsafe, do not land

- On ground : taxi clear of landing area in use

85
Q

What does a steady green light directed at an aircraft means (in flight and on ground)?

A
  • In flight : cleared to land

- On ground : cleared to take-off

86
Q

In case you plan to flight within ADIZ, when are you required to inform the ATC of a change in time or point of entry?

A

When time of entry is +/- 5 minutes of the ETE on flight plan.
When point of entry is further than 20 NM from the estimated one.

87
Q

Remind me what are the requirements regarding oxygen on board, please…

A

Between 10,000ft ASL and 13,000ft ASL :

  • Oxygen for each crew member + 10% of passengers
  • If the flight is operated more than 30 minutes at these altitudes

Above 13,000ft ASL :

  • Oxygen for everyone on board
  • For the entire duration of the flight at these altitudes
88
Q

On which frequencies does an ELT emit?

A

121,5MHz, 243MHz and 406MHz (digital)

89
Q

When can you conduct an ELT test? How long should it be?

A

During the first 5 minutes of each UTC hour.

Test has to last less than 5 seconds.

90
Q

What is an aviation occurence?

A
  • Any accident or incident associated with the operation of aircraft.
  • Any situation or condition that the board has reasonable grounds to believe, if left unattended, induce an accident or incident.
91
Q

What is an aviation incident?

Could you give two or three examples?

A

An incident resulting directly from the operation of an airplane having a maximum takeoff weight greater than 2250 kg where :

  • An engine fails or is shut down as a precautionary measure
  • A transmission gearbox malfunction occurs
  • Difficulties controlling aircraft encountered
  • Any aircraft system malfunction
  • Weather phenomena
  • Wake turbulence
  • Uncontrolled vibrations
  • Operations outside the flight envelope

AIM.GEN.3.3.2

92
Q

Give 5 types of advisory services

A

FIC (Flight Information Center)
FSS (Flight Service Stations)
FISE (Flight Information Service Enroute)
AAS (Airport Advisory Services)
ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service)

93
Q

What are the functions of an AAS (Airport Advisory Service)?

A
  • Make weather reports
  • Communicate the active or preferred runway
  • Provide field condition reports
  • Share NOTAMs and PIREPs
  • Give information on the known aircraft and vehicle traffic
94
Q

What are the conditions which enable to conduct a SIRO (Simultaneous Intersecting Runwaay Operations) or a LAHSO (Land and hold short operation) ?

A
  • 1,000ft min ceiling
  • 3 NM visibility
  • Tailwind < 5 Kt
  • Crosswind < 15Kt
  • No windshear or turbulences
95
Q

What are the fuel requirements of a VFR flight during the day?

A

The aircraft shall carry enough fuel to :

  • cover the path to the destination aerodrome (including taxiing, foreseeable delays prior to T/O, meteorological conditions, foreseeable air traffic delays)
  • cover an additional period of 30 min at normal cruising speed
96
Q

What are the equipments required on a power aircraft for a VFR flight during the day?

A
  • Altimeter
  • Airspeed indicator
  • Magnetic compass
  • Tachometer
  • Oil pressure indicator
  • Coolant temperature indicator
  • Mean to determine fuel quality
  • Mean to determine position of the landing gear
97
Q

When it is compulsory to direct informations to the ground station of a MF area or to broadcast?

A
  • Maneuvering ( before entering the area )
  • Departure ( before moving onto the runway, before and after takeoff)
  • Arrival ( 5 min prior to enter the area, when joining the aerodrome circuit)
  • Through ( 5 min prior to enter the area , when clear of the area )

PPL (9 decks)

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