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AJX Study > AIM-J TSUNODA > Flashcards

AIM-J TSUNODA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the rated coverage of the NDB and VOR?

A

A far greater coverage may be obtained proportionally to aircraft altitude. These are the “proofed” distances:

  • VOR 40nm Enroute, 25nm Terminal
  • NDB 75nm Enroute, 25nm Terminal
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2
Q

What is the mandatory aerodrome lighting aids required for an aerodrome served for night landings or precision approaches?

A
  • Aerodrome beacon (ALL)
  • Taxiway edge lighting (ALL)
  • Wind direction indicator (ALL)
  • Approach lighting system (CAT 1/2/3)
  • PAPI (CAT 1/2/3)
  • Runway edge lights (CAT 1/2/3/Night)
  • Runway threshold lights (CAT1/2/3/Night)
  • Runway centreline lights (CAT 2/3) (However, installed at all CAT 1)
  • Runway touchdown zone lights (CAT 2/3)
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3
Q

How spaced apart are the runway centreline lights on a CAT 2/3 precision runway?

A

15m

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4
Q

How are the touchdown zone lights arranged, and what colour are they?

A

They extend from the landing threshold and extend to 900m. They are spaced with an interval of 60m, or 30m for CAT 2/3. They are white in colour

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5
Q

What are the colours of the runway centreline lights?

A
  • The lights are white in colour from the landing threshold until 900m before the end of the runway
  • The lights alternate red then white from 900m to 300m from the end of the runway
  • The lights are steady red for the last 300m of the runway
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6
Q

What colour are the taxiway lights?

A
  • Taxiway edge lighting is steady BLUE
  • Taxiway centreline lighting is steady GREEN
  • Rapid exit taxiway lighting is alternating YELLOW and GREEN
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7
Q

How can you determine that you are halfway down the runway?

A

You can determine that you are halfway down the runway by the halfway runway markings. They are white in colour, and they are 3 parallel markings crossing the runway

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8
Q

What is the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point marker for a runway greater than 2400m?

A

For a runway length of 2400m or longer, the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point marker is 400m from the landing threshold

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9
Q

What is the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point marker for a runway between 1500-2399m?

A

For a runway length of 1500m-2399m, the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point is 300m

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10
Q

What is the distance between the inside of the threshold and the runway threshold markings?

A

6m

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11
Q

How can you determine if the stopway pavement strength is equal to the pavement strength of the runway?

A

When the stopway is the same as the strength as the runway it is indicated by
->->->->->->->->
When the stopway is of less strength than the runway it is indicated by&raquo_space;»»»»>

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12
Q

What speed restrictions exist in a class D control zone?

A

Above 3000ft = 250kts At or below 3000ft = 200kts

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13
Q

What are the dimensions of a control zone?

A

A control zone extends to a 9km (5nm) radius. Generally, the upper limit is 3000ft at civil airports, and is generally higher at military airports

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14
Q

What is Positive Control Airspace?

A

PCA is airspace in the vicinity of high-density airports with highly congested airspace, such as Narita, Tokyo, Sendai, Naha and Fukuoka etc.

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15
Q

How is reported tower wind direction and velocity broadcast?

A

In magnetic bearing with 10-degree increments, and one knot increments

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16
Q

Is a “ready” call required in Japan?

A

No, a controller should regard a turbine aircraft ready for departure when approaching the departure point, unless otherwise the pilot informs that take-off preparations are not yet completed. Therefore, a pilot is not required to inform “ready” unless otherwise requested by ATC

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17
Q

What wake turbulence category is the B767?

A

MTOW greater than 300,000lbs or more = HEAVY

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18
Q

What items are to be included when requesting an airways clearance? When shall the request be made?

A

The following items must be included in an airways clearance, at least 5 minutes prior to EOBT:

  • Destination
  • Altitude
  • Parking location
19
Q

When should the pilot activate the transponder?

A

A pilot should activate the transponder prior to take-off as late or possible, and deactivate it after completing the landing roll as soon as possible. A taxiing aircraft is required to set it ON when either starting push back or commencing taxi at Narita, Tokyo, Kansai, Osaka, and Fukuoka

20
Q

When requested to report clear of the runway, when may an aircraft report clear?

A

An aircraft is clear of the runway when all parts of the aircraft comes beyond the stop line

21
Q

What is the meaning of a steady green light from tower to an aircraft?

A

Cleared to take-off / land

22
Q

What is the meaning of a steady red light from the tower to an aircraft?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

23
Q

When should a pilot change frequency from tower to departures?

A

A pilot should not change frequency until instructed by tower, even if a departure frequency is informed on the ATIS, or airways clearance prior to airborne

24
Q

What is the speed tolerance to be maintained?

A

Pilots should maintain a speed of +- 10kts or +- 0.02M

25
Q

A standard holding pattern requires turns in which direction?

A

RIGHT hand turns

26
Q

What timing is required for a standard holding pattern?

A
  • At or below 14,000ft = One minute outbound

- Above 14,000ft = One and a half minutes outbound

27
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds when holding at a navaid?

A
  • 0 to 6000ft = 210kts
  • 6001ft to 14,000ft = 220kts
  • 14,001ft or higher = 240kts
28
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds when holding at a DME fix?

A
  • 0 to 6000ft = 200kts
  • 6001ft to 14,000ft = 230kts
  • 14,001ft or higher = 265kts
29
Q

What is the maximum holding speed in turbulence?

A

280kts or 0.80M whichever is less. The protected area is generally predicated on the non-turbulent conditions and therefore, the pilot should inform ATC when the speed for turbulent conditions is required

30
Q

When applying a lateral offset, what side of track should this be done, and by how many miles?

A

The offset shall be established at a distance of one or two miles to the RIGHT of track by setting on the FMS

31
Q

What is the circling approach area for a category D aircraft?

A

2.5nm

32
Q

What is the minimum vertical separation during circling for a category D aircraft?

A

550ft

33
Q

What is the VDP?

A

The visual descent point is established at a certain point on the final approach course at which the lowest flight path dictated by the PAPI reaches MDA, in order to conduct an adequate descent to the touch down point

34
Q

Should a pilot descend prior to the VDP if the runway or visual reference is in sight?

A

A pilot should maintain MDA until crossing VDP even if the runway or visual references are sighted prior to VDP

35
Q

What is the rated coverage of the ILS glideslope?

A

10nm

36
Q

What is the rated coverage of the ILS localiser?

A

Where no topographical features dictate, it is rated to 25nm. Where topographical features do dictate, it is rated to 18nm

37
Q

What is a CAT I approach?

A

Operations to an RVR of 550m or greater, with a DH of 200ft or higher

38
Q

What is the required manoeuvre if a missed approach is required prior to the MAPt?

A

The pilot should initiate a go-around and fly on the instrument approach route segment as published to the MAPt, then follow the missed approach procedures

39
Q

What is the required manoeuver if a missed approach is required during circling?

A

In principle, climb out toward the landing runway, or direction presumed to be the centre of the airport

40
Q

If a speed adjustment has been issued after being cleared for approach, when is it terminated automatically?

A

The speed shall be maintained up until one of the following:

  • The outer marker or equivalent DME fix, or 5nm from touchdown, whichever is closer during an ILS approach
  • Turning base, or 5nm from the threshold whichever is closer during a visual approach
  • 5nm from touchdown when neither of the above are applicable
41
Q

What is the pilot in commands authority during actions in an emergency?

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft. In an emergency requiring immediate action, it may be difficult to comply with any of the prescribed procedures or ATC instructions in order to cope with the emergency. If an emergency action is taken that deviates from the provisions of an ATC clearance, the pilot in command shall promptly notify ATC, and when normal operations are resumed, obtain a clearance as much as possible

42
Q

What phraseology is required during a TCAS RA?

A

As soon as possible, notify the appropriate ATC unit of any RA as follows:

  • “TCAS RA”
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURN TO (assigned clearance)
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, (assigned clearance) RESUMED
  • “UNABLE, TCAS RA”
43
Q

What is meant by “minimum fuel” in Japan?

A

A pilot should advise ATC of their fuel status when the fuel supply has reached a state where any unexpected delay cannot be accepted to ensure a safe landing. Minimum fuel is NOT an emergency situation, but indicates that an emergency situation is possible, should any unexpected delay occur. A minimum fuel advisory does not indicate a need for traffic priority

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