Adrenal Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

why does Hyponatremia (low Na), Hyperkalemia (high K), Hypotension (low BP) occur in Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

because of the mineralocorticoid deficiency -> no aldosterone -> affects Na and K channels in priniciple cells of tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why does hyperpigmentation occur in Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

Increased ACTH production -> so there is also an increase POMC (a precursor). MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone) is also a product POMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Testing for Primary Adrenal Insufficiency consists of _____

A

1) morning serum cortisol level (if less than 16 mg/dL) then …
2) 250 mcg IV cosyntropin over 2 mins -> measure cortisol at 30 and 60 min if cortisol less than 20 mg/dl then AI is the diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

whats the difference in Treatment for primary vs secondary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

In Primary replace both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, whereas secondary is only glucocorticoid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the Causes of Hyperaldosteronism

A

1) Primary aldosteronism (Conn’s)
2) Secondary aldosteronism: Cirrhosis, heart failure
3) Liddle’s Syndrome: mutation in epithelial sodium channel
4) Deoxycorticosterone mediated: Genetic recombination of genes
5) Licorice ingestion: pseudohyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of primary Aldosteronism

A
Resistant hypertension 
Hypokalemia*
Mild hypernatremia
Metabolic alkalosis
Muscle weakness can occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who should be screened for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Under 30 with HTN,
Hypokalemia and HTN
Resistant hypertension (on 2 meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patients who lack cortisol have _____ that is poorly responsive to _________

A

low blood pressure,

Pressors (norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some causes of SECONDARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

A

1) Following supraphysiological doses of exogenous glucocorticoids for more than 3 weeks
2) Opioids
3) Following cure of Cushing’s syndrome
4) Hypothalamic/pituitary lesions: tumor, surgery in the area, radiation, infectious, hemorrhagic, infiltrative, metastatic disease to the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patients with primary gland (adrenal) failure will have what lab values related to cortisol and aldosterone
whereas

A

hyponatremia but hyperkalemia,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patients with secondary disease have preserved aldosterone synthesis from the adrenal gland and are therefore ______, regarding labs.

A

normokalemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______ is by far the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries, whereas _______remains the most common cause in developing countries.

A

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland (Addison’s disease) ,
tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adrenal insufficiency is associated with other autoimmune disorders, such as _____

A
Hypothyroidism (25%)
Graves’ disease (11%)
Primary ovarian (13%) or testicular (2%) failure
Type I diabetes mellitus (10%)
Autoimmune hypoparathyroidism (4%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the four basic types of primary aldosteronism

A

1) Aldosterone-producing adenoma (APA) (34%)
2) Idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA); a.k.a. Bilateral Adrenal Hyperplasia (66%)
3) Glucocorticoid-remediable hyperaldosteronism (GRA) (rare)
4) Aldosterone-producing carcinoma (rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia is causing Hyperaldosteronism

A

mineralocorticoid antagonist (spironolactone 25-100 mg daily or eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What Can Cause Pseudohyperaldosteronism

A

Licorice

17
Q

describe the screening test for hyperaldosteronism

A

measure baseline aldosterone (PA) and plasma renin activity (PRA) levels. If the PA/PRA ratio is > 20 with a PA > 15 ng/dL, this is highly suggestive of primary aldosteronism.

18
Q

what can interfere with the screening test for hyperaldosteronism and should be avoided or discontinued before the testing

A

Spironolactone use

19
Q

If PA/PRA ratio is elevated, what should you do next?

A

salt suppression test
Need to demonstrate inappropriate aldosterone secretion after salt loading
Given 2L normal saline over 4 hours and measure aldosterone
Normal: aldosterone suppresses below 5 ng/dL
Hyperaldo: aldosterone above 10 ng/dL

20
Q

Once a biochemical diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is certain, what should be done next?

A

CT or MRI should be performed to look for adenoma or hyperplasia

Then adrenal vein sampling (AVS) should be done for lateralization

21
Q

In adrenal vein sampling. if there is Unilateral elevation of aldosterone,the a/an _____ is suspected, while bilateral elevation of aldosterone suggests ______

A
adenoma,
idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA)
22
Q

how is an adrenal adenoma treated?

A

surgical excision

23
Q

How is idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA) treated

A

aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone) and other antihypertensive medications

24
Q

Tumors that occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue anywhere along the sympathetic chain or parasympathetic chain are referred to as _____

A

paragangliomas

25
Q

what are the classic triad of symptoms seen in pheocromocytomas

A

Headache
Palpitations
Sweating

26
Q

what are some of the drugs that can interfere with testing for pheocromocytomas?

A
Acetaminophen,
SSRI's
SNRI's
Tricyclic antidepressants
marijuana and other illicit drug use
27
Q

Treatment of pheochromocytomas is achieved by surgical removal after appropriate medical peri-operative blockade to avoid a hypertensive crisis during surgery. Peri-operative blockade is started with _____

A

alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker (First line: phenoxybenzamine, Second line: prazosin, terazosin or doxazosin) followed by a beta blocker (once full alpha blockade is achieved), or a calcium channel blocker (as part of the second line treatment).

28
Q

an adrenal nodule is likely benign on CT scan if ____

A

HU < 10 on non-contrast CT

29
Q

Benign lipid rich nodules have signal drop out on _____ MRI imaging

A

out of phase

30
Q

what are the Imaging Characteristics of Benign Adrenal Masses

A

Less than 4cm
Homogeneous with smooth or regular borders
HU <10 on non-contrast CT scan
Rapid enhancement of contrast; rapid loss of contrast
>50% washout

31
Q

what are the characteristics of Adrenocortical carcinoma

A

Large: >4cm.
HU > 20,
Low washout

32
Q

All adrenal nodules should be ruled out for hormonal hypersecretion by what screening tests

A

Plasma metanephrines or 24hr urine mets/cats
Screens for pheochromocytoma
1 mg overnight dex suppression test
Screens for hypercortisolism

33
Q

If patient is hypertensive and has an adrenal incidentaloma, screen for ______

A

primary aldosteronism

aldosterone/plasma renin activity

34
Q

The most common cause of cushings syndrome is _____

A

iatrogenic: due to the chronic administration of glucocorticoids in the treatment of autoimmune or inflammatory disorders

35
Q

what are the screening tests for cushings?

A

24 hr urinary free cortisol (UFC) determination, overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test (DST)

36
Q

what is an abnormal result in the dexamethasone supression test

A

8 AM plasma cortisol is > 1.8 micro grams/dL

37
Q

when can Cushing’s syndrome be excluded from the differential

A

When 24 hr Free urine cortisol and dexamethasone supression tests are normal