Adrenal Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

why does Hyponatremia (low Na), Hyperkalemia (high K), Hypotension (low BP) occur in Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

because of the mineralocorticoid deficiency -> no aldosterone -> affects Na and K channels in priniciple cells of tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why does hyperpigmentation occur in Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

Increased ACTH production -> so there is also an increase POMC (a precursor). MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone) is also a product POMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Testing for Primary Adrenal Insufficiency consists of _____

A

1) morning serum cortisol level (if less than 16 mg/dL) then …
2) 250 mcg IV cosyntropin over 2 mins -> measure cortisol at 30 and 60 min if cortisol less than 20 mg/dl then AI is the diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

whats the difference in Treatment for primary vs secondary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

In Primary replace both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, whereas secondary is only glucocorticoid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the Causes of Hyperaldosteronism

A

1) Primary aldosteronism (Conn’s)
2) Secondary aldosteronism: Cirrhosis, heart failure
3) Liddle’s Syndrome: mutation in epithelial sodium channel
4) Deoxycorticosterone mediated: Genetic recombination of genes
5) Licorice ingestion: pseudohyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of primary Aldosteronism

A
Resistant hypertension 
Hypokalemia*
Mild hypernatremia
Metabolic alkalosis
Muscle weakness can occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who should be screened for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Under 30 with HTN,
Hypokalemia and HTN
Resistant hypertension (on 2 meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patients who lack cortisol have _____ that is poorly responsive to _________

A

low blood pressure,

Pressors (norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some causes of SECONDARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

A

1) Following supraphysiological doses of exogenous glucocorticoids for more than 3 weeks
2) Opioids
3) Following cure of Cushing’s syndrome
4) Hypothalamic/pituitary lesions: tumor, surgery in the area, radiation, infectious, hemorrhagic, infiltrative, metastatic disease to the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patients with primary gland (adrenal) failure will have what lab values related to cortisol and aldosterone
whereas

A

hyponatremia but hyperkalemia,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patients with secondary disease have preserved aldosterone synthesis from the adrenal gland and are therefore ______, regarding labs.

A

normokalemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______ is by far the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries, whereas _______remains the most common cause in developing countries.

A

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland (Addison’s disease) ,
tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adrenal insufficiency is associated with other autoimmune disorders, such as _____

A
Hypothyroidism (25%)
Graves’ disease (11%)
Primary ovarian (13%) or testicular (2%) failure
Type I diabetes mellitus (10%)
Autoimmune hypoparathyroidism (4%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the four basic types of primary aldosteronism

A

1) Aldosterone-producing adenoma (APA) (34%)
2) Idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA); a.k.a. Bilateral Adrenal Hyperplasia (66%)
3) Glucocorticoid-remediable hyperaldosteronism (GRA) (rare)
4) Aldosterone-producing carcinoma (rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia is causing Hyperaldosteronism

A

mineralocorticoid antagonist (spironolactone 25-100 mg daily or eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What Can Cause Pseudohyperaldosteronism

17
Q

describe the screening test for hyperaldosteronism

A

measure baseline aldosterone (PA) and plasma renin activity (PRA) levels. If the PA/PRA ratio is > 20 with a PA > 15 ng/dL, this is highly suggestive of primary aldosteronism.

18
Q

what can interfere with the screening test for hyperaldosteronism and should be avoided or discontinued before the testing

A

Spironolactone use

19
Q

If PA/PRA ratio is elevated, what should you do next?

A

salt suppression test
Need to demonstrate inappropriate aldosterone secretion after salt loading
Given 2L normal saline over 4 hours and measure aldosterone
Normal: aldosterone suppresses below 5 ng/dL
Hyperaldo: aldosterone above 10 ng/dL

20
Q

Once a biochemical diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is certain, what should be done next?

A

CT or MRI should be performed to look for adenoma or hyperplasia

Then adrenal vein sampling (AVS) should be done for lateralization

21
Q

In adrenal vein sampling. if there is Unilateral elevation of aldosterone,the a/an _____ is suspected, while bilateral elevation of aldosterone suggests ______

A
adenoma,
idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA)
22
Q

how is an adrenal adenoma treated?

A

surgical excision

23
Q

How is idiopathic hyperaldosteronism (IHA) treated

A

aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone) and other antihypertensive medications

24
Q

Tumors that occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue anywhere along the sympathetic chain or parasympathetic chain are referred to as _____

A

paragangliomas

25
what are the classic triad of symptoms seen in pheocromocytomas
Headache Palpitations Sweating
26
what are some of the drugs that can interfere with testing for pheocromocytomas?
``` Acetaminophen, SSRI's SNRI's Tricyclic antidepressants marijuana and other illicit drug use ```
27
Treatment of pheochromocytomas is achieved by surgical removal after appropriate medical peri-operative blockade to avoid a hypertensive crisis during surgery. Peri-operative blockade is started with _____
alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker (First line: phenoxybenzamine, Second line: prazosin, terazosin or doxazosin) followed by a beta blocker (once full alpha blockade is achieved), or a calcium channel blocker (as part of the second line treatment).
28
an adrenal nodule is likely benign on CT scan if ____
HU < 10 on non-contrast CT
29
Benign lipid rich nodules have signal drop out on _____ MRI imaging
out of phase
30
what are the Imaging Characteristics of Benign Adrenal Masses
Less than 4cm Homogeneous with smooth or regular borders HU <10 on non-contrast CT scan Rapid enhancement of contrast; rapid loss of contrast >50% washout
31
what are the characteristics of Adrenocortical carcinoma
Large: >4cm. HU > 20, Low washout
32
All adrenal nodules should be ruled out for hormonal hypersecretion by what screening tests
Plasma metanephrines or 24hr urine mets/cats Screens for pheochromocytoma 1 mg overnight dex suppression test Screens for hypercortisolism
33
If patient is hypertensive and has an adrenal incidentaloma, screen for ______
primary aldosteronism | aldosterone/plasma renin activity
34
The most common cause of cushings syndrome is _____
iatrogenic: due to the chronic administration of glucocorticoids in the treatment of autoimmune or inflammatory disorders
35
what are the screening tests for cushings?
24 hr urinary free cortisol (UFC) determination, overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test (DST)
36
what is an abnormal result in the dexamethasone supression test
8 AM plasma cortisol is > 1.8 micro grams/dL
37
when can Cushing's syndrome be excluded from the differential
When 24 hr Free urine cortisol and dexamethasone supression tests are normal