Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SOPS POE > ADM Sops > Flashcards

ADM Sops Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first Golden Rule for Modern Jet Pilots?

A

Fly, Navigate, and Communicate

This rule emphasizes the importance of prioritizing flying the aircraft, then navigating, and finally communicating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is emphasized in the task-sharing between the Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Monitoring (PM)?

A

The PF focuses on controlling and monitoring flight parameters, while the PM assists and actively monitors these parameters

Effective task-sharing is crucial for safe aircraft operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the second Golden Rule state about automation?

A

Use the appropriate level of automation at all times

Pilots should select automation considering factors like weather, malfunctions, or crew incapacitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must pilots understand regarding the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)?

A

Pilots must be constantly aware of the armed or engaged modes, guidance targets set, and the aircraft’s response

This includes monitoring, announcing, confirming, and understanding the FMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the actions required if the aircraft does not follow the desired flight path?

A

Immediate action is required, which may include changing the level of automation or the PM taking action

This can involve questioning, challenging, and taking over control if necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: The Golden Rules for Modern Jet Pilots only apply during normal operations.

A

False

The Golden Rules apply during both normal and abnormal or emergency situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the four key actions associated with understanding the FMA.

A
  • Monitor your FMA
  • Announce your FMA
  • Confirm your FMA
  • Understand your FMA

These actions help ensure pilots are aware of the aircraft’s operational modes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fill in the blank: The Golden Rules prioritize _______ and efficient handling of aircraft.

A

[safety]

The guidelines ensure pilots maintain control and situational awareness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the acronym RAISE stand for in the context of pilot communication?

A

R - Relay Information, A - Ask a Question, I - The ‘I’ Statement, S - Solution Statement, E - Emergency Statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should pilots do if they notice a divergence from Standard Operating Procedures?

A

Bring it to the attention of the Pilot Flying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first step in the RAISE process?

A

Relay Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘I’ statement in the RAISE process?

A

To express concern regarding the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What action should be taken if the situation remains unresolved after using RAISE?

A

Pilot Monitoring must take control of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What phrase indicates that the Pilot Monitoring is taking control of the aircraft?

A

I HAVE CONTROL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False: Using the phrase ‘I HAVE CONTROL’ is considered a serious matter and must be reported.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must pilots do within 24 hours if ‘I HAVE CONTROL’ is used?

A

Submit a written report to the Assistant Chief Pilot – Line Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should pilots do if the urgency of the situation requires skipping stages in the RAISE process?

A

Skip some stages or enter the process at a later stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fill in the blank: The ‘S’ in RAISE stands for _______.

A

Solution Statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of situations does RAISE address?

A

ATC clearances violation
procedures violation
Danger to passengers or crew
danger to aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the GRADE model stand for in the context of Aeronautical Decision Making?

A

Gather information, Review all available information, Analyze options and risks, make a Decision, Execute and continually evaluate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of the GRADE model?

A

To guide pilots through a structured decision-making process in complex situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of model is the GRADE model classified as?

A

Threat and Error Management (TEM) process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the five key stages of the GRADE model?

A
  • Gather Information
  • Review
  • Analyze Options and Risks
  • Decision
  • Execute and Evaluate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should be assessed during the ‘Gather Information’ stage?

A
  • Weather conditions
  • Time criticality
  • Terrain
  • Fuel status
  • NOTAMs
  • Aircraft limitations
  • Landing distance calculations
  • Liaison with SOCC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
During the 'Review' stage, what is important to ensure?
A comprehensive understanding of flight conditions and requirements.
26
What is emphasized during the 'Analyze Options and Risks' stage?
Identifying and assessing possible threats linked to potential courses of action.
27
True or False: Pilots should declare their decision during the 'Analyze Options and Risks' stage.
False.
28
What should be clearly stated during the 'Decision' stage?
The decision made based on the analysis of available options.
29
What does the 'Execute and Evaluate' stage involve?
ABC’s * Inform ATC of intentions * Brief cabin crew * Notify SOCC * Prepare MCDU/FMS * Conduct approach briefing * Complete the Approach Checklist * Continuously evaluate the decision
30
Fill in the blank: The GRADE model emphasizes a _______ approach to decision-making.
[thorough, methodical]
31
What is the importance of involving SOCC in the decision-making process?
To explore all options for diversion airports and ensure operational guidance.
32
What is critical to assess regarding fuel during the 'Gather Information' stage?
Remaining fuel, possibility of a fuel leak, and penalties/limitations due to fuel status.
33
What should be done continuously during the 'Execute and Evaluate' stage?
Evaluate the decision to ensure the safest course of action is being followed.
34
What does the Core Competencies do for the for Pilots? What is the pyramid tell us?
A framework to describe how a pilot operates successfully in the airline environment, consisting of nine competencies. It illustrates how competencies are layered to develop a competent pilot, including reliable and resilient competencies.
35
What are the foundational competencies in the Core Competency Pyramid?
* Foundational knowledge * Understanding how to fly the airplane * Use of company procedures
36
What are the resilient competencies in the Core Competency Pyramid?
* Prioritizing issues * Understanding the environment * Making decisions
37
What surrounds the competencies in the Core Competency Pyramid?
Strong communication and elements of leadership and teamwork.
38
True or False: The entire pyramid functions without a positive and open attitude.
False
39
What does APK stand for in the Core Competencies?
Application of Procedures
40
What is a key behavioral indicator of APK?
* Identifies the source of operating instructions * Follows SOP’s unless a higher degree of safety dictates an appropriate deviation * Identifies and follows all operating instructions in a timely manner * Correctly operates aircraft systems and associated equipment * Complies with applicable regulations * Applies relevant procedural knowledge
41
What does COM stand for in the Core Competencies?
Communication
42
Fill in the blank: A key behavioral indicator of COM is to convey messages ______.
clearly, accurately, and concisely
43
What does FPA stand for in the Core Competencies?
Aircraft Flight Path Management, Automation
44
What is a key behavioral indicator of FPA?
* Controls the aircraft using automation with accuracy and smoothness * Detects deviations from the desired aircraft trajectory and takes appropriate action
45
What does FPM stand for in the Core Competencies?
Aircraft Flight Path Management, Manual Control
46
What is a key behavioral indicator of FPM?
* Controls the aircraft manually with accuracy and smoothness * Detects deviations from the desired aircraft trajectory and takes appropriate action
47
What does KNO stand for in the Core Competencies?
Application of Knowledge
48
What is a key behavioral indicator of KNO?
* Demonstrates knowledge of the physical environment * Knows where to source required information
49
What does LTW stand for in the Core Competencies?
Leadership and Teamwork
50
What is a key behavioral indicator of LTW?
* Understands and agrees with the crew’s roles and objectives * Creates an atmosphere of open communication
51
What does PSD stand for in the Core Competencies?
Problem Solving and Decision Making
52
What is a key behavioral indicator of PSD?
* Seeks accurate and adequate information * Identifies and verifies what and why things have gone wrong
53
What does WLM stand for in the Core Competencies?
Workload Management
54
What is a key behavioral indicator of WLM?
* Maintains self-control in all situations * Plans, prioritizes, and schedules tasks effectively
55
What does SAW stand for in the Core Competencies?
Situational Awareness
56
What is a key behavioral indicator of SAW?
* Identifies and assesses accurately the state of the aircraft and its systems * Keeps track of time and fuel
57
True or False: Competencies serve as countermeasures in the context of Threat and Error Management (TEM).
True
58
What characterizes a stable approach?
A constant-angle, constant-rate of descent approach profile ending in the briefed touchdown zone ## Footnote A stable approach is defined by specific criteria that must be met.
59
List the six criteria for a stable approach.
* Constant and stable descent rate * Final landing configuration * Rate of descent no greater than 1000 fpm * Bank angle no greater than 25 degrees * Airspeed stabilized on target approach speed * Thrust stabilized above flight idle
60
True or False: A go-around must be performed if an approach does not meet stabilization criteria.
True ## Footnote This applies to all approach types, including visual approaches.
61
What is the requirement for lateral path establishment at the charted FAF/FAP?
The airplane shall be established on the lateral path at the charted altitude ## Footnote This is part of the stable approach policy.
62
At what altitude should wings be level according to stable approach criteria?
By 500 ft AAE ## Footnote Unless required by charted approach procedures.
63
What should the airplane configuration be at 1000 ft AAE?
* Fully configured for landing * Final landing flap set and in position * Airspeed VAPP, no greater than bugged VAPP + 15 trending towards VAPP * Bank angle not more than 25 degrees
64
What are the requirements for airspeed at 500 ft AAE?
* Stabilized on target within +10/-5 KIAS * Vertical speed stabilized at not more than 1000 fpm * Wings level * Thrust stabilized above flight idle * Within one dot (half scale) in lateral tracking and vertical path control
65
What is the stable landing policy regarding touchdown?
The airplane must touch down within the confines of the touchdown zone at approximately VREF ## Footnote Main landing gear should straddle the runway centreline.
66
What should the PM monitor during final approach and landing?
Stable approach parameters ## Footnote This includes runway identification and lateral drift monitoring.
67
What call should be made if the airplane's attitude reaches 7.5° of pitch during flare?
A 'Pitch' call shall be made ## Footnote Corrective actions should be initiated immediately.
68
Fill in the blank: Pilots shall not continue the approach beyond _____ and _____ gates without meeting the respective required conditions.
1000’ and 500’
69
What action should be taken if a safe landing is at risk before thrust reversers are deployed?
A go-around shall be immediately initiated
70
What is the vertical speed requirement at 500 ft AAE?
Stabilized at not more than 1000 fpm
71
True or False: Floating during landing does not require monitoring.
False ## Footnote Floating should be called and repeated until touchdown.

SOPS POE (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions