Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSP Policy & Procedure (To Be Updated) > ADM > Flashcards

ADM Flashcards

1
Q

ADM-01: Oath of Office

Part of this policy regarding Oath of Office was a surprisingly difficult question on a past exam due to wording and similar alternative answer options. What is this wording?

A

…Shall TAKE and AFFIRM an Oath of Office prior to the initial performance of duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADM-01: Oath of Office

Oath of Office key points

A
  • …I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Commonwealth of Massachusetts, and will support the Constitution thereof…
  • I do solemnly swear and affirm…rules and regulations of the Constitution, and the laws of the Commonwealth…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ADM-02: Department Mission Statement

Mission Statement-informational

A

…quality policing directed at achieving safer roadways and reducing crime through investigations, education and patrol services, and by providing leadership and resources during NATURAL DISASTERS, CIVIL DISORDERS, and CRITICAL INCIDENTS.

Note:

  • Don’t confuse these with Authority restrictions in ADM-04.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ADM-04: State Police Authority

What are the limits of authority?

A
  1. No industrial dispute unless actual violence has occurred & then only by written order of Governor.
  2. No reservation or other property of the USA unless requested by the person in charge.
  3. No member shall serve civil process.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ADM-05: Organizational Structure

Who SHALL review and revise organizational charts?

A

The charts shall be:

  • Reviewed by each Division Commander prior to the next fiscal year;
  • Revised through the Office of the Superintendent; AND
  • Be accessible to the public upon submission of record request.

Note:

  • Organizational charts graphically depict organizational entities, levels of command, lines of authority, and positions established for the duties of personnel.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

The Command Staff is responsible for the administrative and operational control of the Department. Who are the Civilian Members of the Command Staff?

A
  1. Chief Administrative Officer (CAO)
  2. Chief Science Officer (CSO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

Who are the Department CEO and COO?

A
  • Colonel/Superintendent-CEO
  • Lieutenant Colonel/Deputy Superintendent-COO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

How often are staff meetings conducted?

A
  • WEEKLY staff meetings between the Colonel and all Divisions MAY be conducted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Who establishes a Policy Review Committee and who reviews SOP’s?

A
  • The Colonel establishes the Policy Review Committee. Policy Review Committee ensures each General Order and SP Form is reviewed at least annually and revised as needed.
  • The Deputy reviews all SOP’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Who ensures all Personnel Orders are posted and archived accordingly?

A

Human Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

  1. Who has the authority to issue an administrative notice?
  2. What is issued for formal or informal clarification or inquiry?
A
  1. Superintendent; and
    Deputy Superintendent
  2. Superintendent’s Memorandum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

It is the responsibility of each sworn and civilian employee to read and familiarize themselves with promulgated directives. How long do sworn and civilian employees have to read them after they’ve been distributed?

A
  • Read promulgated directives within one week of distribution or upon return to duty for members on approved leave.

Note: Written directive formatting for P&P shall be indexed with prefix denoting administrative code, title, and effective date (CTE).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Key points to remember.

A
  • The Office of Employee Relations (OER) shall disseminate information relative to a new labor agreement, including modifications to existing agreements, to managers and supervisors of bargaining unit employees.
  • Members are encouraged to make suggestions and recommendations to revise or create written directives. Such suggestions/recommendations shall be written and forwarded, through channels, to the Office of the Superintendent-Strategic Planning Section for consideration by the Department Policy Review Committee.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Key points regarding archives.

A
  • Department written directives, excluding Division Commander’s Orders and Personnel Orders, shall be maintained by the Office of the Superintendent-Strategic Planning Section, including the signed “master copy”.
  • Division Commanders and the Human Resources Section shall maintain the signed “master copy” of their Division Commander’s Orders or Personnel Orders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

What are the key dates to remember for the submission of the Master Vacation Schedule?

A

Each Troop/Station/Section/Unit Commanding Officer shall:

  • Submit through channels to their Division Commander on or before February 14th of each year.

Division Commanders shall:

  • Retain submitted Master Vacation Schedules for the current year.

DAS and HR Section shall:

  • Post a blank copy of the Master Vacation Schedule to DMS prior to January 1st.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

How often will Division Commanders meet with the Office of the Superintendent to review, evaluate, and update the stated goals and objectives of their respective Division?

A

At least annually (minimum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Division Commanders submit a WRITTEN PROGRAM EVALUATION of their goals and objectives?

A

Prior to September 30th each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Division Commanders submit a DIVISIONAL GOALS & OBJECTIVES REPORT to the Office of the Superintendent?

A

Prior to November 30th each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Strategic Planning forward the ANNUAL GOAL & OBJECTIVES REPORT to the Colonel for review?

A

On or prior to December 30th each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

Speed Guide!

A

September, November, and December 30th!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

Speed Guide for the who is who of Grant Approval!

A
  • Director of Federal Grant Initiates;
  • Grants Unit Representative; AND
  • Strategic Planning Section Commander or Designee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

Define the Following Terms:

  1. Grant
  2. Cooperative Agreement
  3. Interagency Service Agreement (ISA)
A
  1. Grant: An award of financial assistance from an external entity where NO “substantial involvement” is anticipated between the awarding entity and the Department during performance of the agreed upon activity.
  2. Cooperative Agreement: An agreement of financial assistance where “substantial involvement” is anticipated between an external entity and the Department during the performance of an agreed upon activity. Cooperative agreements are often non-cash agreements involving services provided to or by the Department.
  3. Interagency Service Agreement (ISA): An agreement between the Department and a Massachusetts state entity that commits funds for a specific program.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

How long do employees have to submit requests to Division Commander or designee prior to filing date deadline?

A

15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ADM-09: Line Inspection

Where shall repeated minor deficiencies be documented?

A

MakeNote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections

How long of a notice shall OPIA give to Commanders for any inspection?

A

7 days

  • To include scope of inspection along with the intended date.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections

How often SHALL each organizational component of the Department be inspected?

A

At least every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections

How long shall inspectors have to prepare and submit a detailed report to the Colonel?

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections

How long shall Commanders have to remedy deficiencies noted upon receipt of the Staff Inspections Report?

A

30 days;

  • To appropriate Division Commander, copy forwarded to DST Commander.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ADM-10: Awards

The COLORS:
1. Medal of Honor?
2. Medal of Valor?
3. Medal of Merit?
4. Medal of Lifesaving?

A
  1. Medal of Honor: Gold > Blue/Yellow/Blue (Extraordinary-BYB)
  2. Medal of Valor: Silver > White/Red/Blue/Red/White (Outstanding courage-WRBRW)
  3. Medal of Merit: Bronze > Blue/White (Outstanding achievement-BW)
  4. Medal of Lifesaving: Bronze > Red/White (RW)

Note:

  • GEN-02: 10 years of service-Service Ribbon
    (B/W/B) and 1 gold star for each additional 5 years.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ADM-10: Awards

Awards shall be presented at least biannually during which months?

A

April and October

Note:

  • In extraordinary circumstances, the board may vote to an exception to this policy provided the vote is unanimous and forward the exception to the Colonel for approval.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ADM-10: Awards

Speed guide by the numbers!

A
  • Awards Board > Media Relations notification of the nominees: 45 days out.
  • Media Relations > confirms nominees have been notified through Office of Superintendent: 30 days out.
  • Office of Superintendent > nominees notified: 30 days out.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ADM-10: Awards

Who appoints the following Award Board members:

  1. President?
  2. Department Employee (Civilian)?
  3. All other Division Representatives?
A
  1. Superintendent.
  2. Deputy.
  3. Division Commander.

Note:

  • EES Coordinator (non voter) is designated by DST Commander within Board chart (and or designee as far as outside the Board according to p.1) and is a Commissioned Officer or Program Coordinator.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ADM-10: Awards

How many voting members SHALL comprise the Awards Board?

A

8 VOTING members/9 total

Notes:

  • EES Coordinator on board BUT does NOT vote.
  • There is a 1 year minimum service on the Board.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ADM-11: Sick Leave

How will a SL request be logged in the DAJ?

A

Name, ID, and type of Sick Leave.

Note: As early as possible on the first day of a Sick Leave absence, a member shall notify their duty assignment of the intention to use Sick Leave. The member shall notify their duty assignment of the anticipated duration of the Sick Leave absence. If the absence is shorter than, or extends beyond, the initially anticipated period of absence, the member shall advise their duty assignment of the modification to the Sick Leave request.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ADM-11: Sick Leave

Explain the excess of 5 consecutive work days SL requirement.

A

Members MAY be required to undergo a medical examination, OR provide documentation from a licensed medical practitioner, to determine their fitness for duty.

Note: Members utilizing SL may be ordered to remain at a reported place
of recuperation. Exceptions: Can receive care, buy medical products, vote or attend church, attend emergency situations, or attend other matters with supervisory permission.

Note: Members using SL may leave MA, only under the following conditions:

  • With authorization of their Commanding Officer; and
  • To obtain medical care as prescribed by their licensed medical practitioner.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ADM-11: Sick Leave

What must members do when reporting to work earlier than previously reported?

A

They SHALL call to cancel remaining SL at least 8 hours prior to next shift start time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ADM-11: Sick Leave

When shall calls/visits NOT occur when SL abuse is suspected?

A

Between 2200-0800 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ADM-11A: Temporary Modified Duty

When disputing a TMD assignment, how long does a member have to provide written notification to the Colonel?

A

Within 10 days

  • Also with written statement from member’s physician detailing the medical reasons why assignment cannot be performed.
  • Past exam question.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ADM-11A: Temporary Modified Duty

Return to Duty Requirements speed guide!

A

90 days-1 year:

  • Notify Commander> HR>DST>Member completes Online Academy>Refresher Courses if DST deems necessary>Commander advised by SPA Commandant.
  • (if deemed necessary) patrol procedures, EVOC, DT, and firearms

Exceeds 1 year:

  • Previous listed notifications + Background/Medical Exam/Psych Testing.

Exceeds 3 years:

  • Previous listed + complete RTT.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ADM-11B: Injury Reporting and Leave

Under reporting, what shall be noted in the DAJ?

A

The nature and cause(s) of a member’s injury.

Note: Members with any recurrent injuries shall be placed on Sick Leave until officially approved and placed on ILD status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ADM-11B: Injury Reporting and Leave

How long do members have to submit paperwork to investigating supervisor?

A

Within 7 days

Note: Injured members should, if necessary, seek emergency medical care or seek treatment from their own personal physician. All bills shall be:

  • Made out in the injured member’s name and home address.
  • Itemized and initialed by the member.

Note: SP Surgeon shall schedule periodical examinations as deemed necessary to determine the member’s duty status. NOTICE NO TIME FRAME!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines

When are members required to notify their commanding officer of a pregnancy?

A
  1. Reached 3rd trimester;
  2. Requested modification, exemption, or leave; OR
  3. Been given restrictions or limitations by physician that prohibits her from performing all aspects of her current assignment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines

Under the notification process, what are member requirements?

A
  • Healthcare provider letter within 7 days of initial notification.
  • Physician or obstetrician written updates every 30 days thereafter.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines

Additional notification process key points to remember.

A
  • Name, address and contact information for the attending healthcare provider.
  • Restrictions or limitations and if none then letter SHALL explicitly state so.
  • Anticipated due date.
  • Anticipated date of return to work (if known).
  • Any other relevant information to assist Department.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines

Under Duty Assignment section, when an alternative duty assignment is unavailable within current assignment then the Colonel SHALL endeavor to remedy concerns within what timeframe?

A

Within 72 hours of receipt of notice.

Note:

  • Involuntary Alternative Duty: The neutral healthcare provider shall render an opinion which shall be binding upon the Department and the member.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

Who shall appoint the Leave Coordinator?

A

DAS Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

How long and how often are employees entitled to donate blood?

A
  • Maximum of 4 hours of leave of absence w/pay.
  • Maximum of 5 times per federal fiscal year (10/1 to 9/30).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

How much and how often can an employee withdraw from the EILB?

A
  • Up to 120 DAYS;
  • Within a 2 year period;
  • When all paid leave is exhausted!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

How long do employees have to make notification to the Department Leave Coordinator with Workpartners of a FMLA or PFML request?

A

At least 30 days in advance of the desired leave, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible.

  • Requests for PFML to the Department PFML Coordinator (and website).
  • PFML granted with Department of Family & Medical Leave (DFML).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

How long do employees have to make notification to the Department Leave Coordinator for Non-FMLA Family Leave?

A

At least 14 days in advance of the desired leave, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

How long can the Colonel grant employees authorized leave of absence w/o pay?

A

Up to 90 days

  • At least 30 days notice to Leave Coordinator.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

When returning to service from FMLA, medical leave, or authorized leave of absence w/o pay, members returning to service due to their own illness/injury in excess of ____ days SHALL make notification to their Commander to contact Occupational Health (to schedule an appointment with the SP Surgeon prior to returning to work and have a recommendation from the SP Surgeon for return to service).

A

10 days

53
Q

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence

Requests for Leave of Absence Without Pay shall be made in writing to the Leave Coordinator at least 30 days in advance of the desired leave, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible. Written requests shall contain what information?

A

The written request shall contain the following:

  • Anticipated start and end dates of said leave;
  • A detailed statement of the reason for the leave;
  • In the event that the absence is illness/injury related, written requests shall be accompanied by substantiating proof of such illness.

Note: The Colonel may grant employees authorized leave of absence without pay for up to 90 days and/or grant an extension of leave of absence upon written request filed by the employee.

54
Q

ADM-13: Notification of ME and/or Next of Kin

If the ME declines to respond to the scene, who should request authority from the ME to remove the body? Also, who determines who SHALL make the notification to the next of kin?

A

Troop Duty Officer (for both)

  • For homicides, suicides, unattended deaths, DIS shall determine the notification process - all others by DFS.
55
Q

ADM-13: Notification of ME and/or Next of Kin

List the order of next of kin notification for deaths.

A
  1. Live-in spouse;
  2. Parents or legal guardian;
  3. Adult children;
  4. Brother or sister; or
  5. Other relatives.
56
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

How long is the DST Division Commander, or designee, have before they SHALL transmit any officer misconduct complaint to POST?

A

2 business days

Note: DST reviews recommendations for disciplinary action with the Deputy Superintendent.

57
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

Internal personnel complaints originating within the Department by any employee shall be documented in a To/From format. The To/From SHALL be faxed or emailed to DST within what period of time?

A

24 hours

58
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

How long do Supervisors have before they SHALL conduct an assigned investigation?

A

Within 30 days

59
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

List the disposition classifications and define each.

A
  1. Unfounded - False/not factual.
  2. Exonerated - Occurred, but actions were lawful & proper.
  3. Not Sustained - Insufficient evidence to prove or disprove.
  4. Sustained - Supported by evidence to prove misconduct.

Note: Deputy Superintendent administers disciplinary action as appropriate which has been approved by the Colonel.

60
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

How shall disposition findings be filed?

A

Filing Types:
1. Unfounded;
2. Exonerated;
3. Not Sustained, and
4. Sustained

  • Complaint dispositions classified as Unfounded, Exonerated, or NOT- Sustained, and not alleging serious misconduct, shall be filed within the Internal Affairs database.

Note: For Sustained the Troop/Section/Unit Commander shall:

  • Prepare a memorandum indicating the category of the complaint, and recommendations; AND
  • Forward memorandum, with all completed reports and correspondence, through channels to DST.
61
Q

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations

How long do Troop/Section/Unit Commanders have to forward completed reports to the DST Commander?

A

Within 30 days of assigned date.

  • DST may authorize a time extension upon a written request.
  • Interviews may be recorded mechanically or by a Department stenographer. The accused employee may independently record his/her own interview.
62
Q

ADM-15: OPIA Investigations

How long does OPIA have before they SHALL complete an IA investigation into officer misconduct and issue a final disposition?

A

Within 1 year of receiving a complaint or notice from the POST commission of the complaint being filed.

Note: OPIA has the authority to report directly to OS or DST.

63
Q

ADM-15: OPIA Investigations

For IA investigations for criminal conduct, can a polygraph examination be used?

A

Yes

64
Q

ADM-17: EES

Who designates the EES Coordinator (a commissioned officer or program coordinator)?

A

DST Commander or designee

65
Q

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination

Who is the Sexual Harassment Officer of the Department?

A

DST Commander

66
Q

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination

Who assigns the Harassment Investigation Officer?

  • SHALL be a Commissioned Officer!
A

Colonel assigns and that person reports to the DST

67
Q

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination

If the Harassment Investigation Unit (HIU) determines an investigation is required, who does the complaint get forwarded to?

Note: HIU shall promptly respond to a complaint.

A

Commonwealth’s HR Division’s Investigations:

Center of Expertise (COE)

  • Supervisors assigned to Office of Ombudsman and/or EAU are not to report incidents to the HIU like other Supervisors.
68
Q

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination

Who SHALL the HIU notify of complaints of unlawful harassment or discrimination?

A

The Department’s Office of Diversity & Equal Opportunity (DEO)

69
Q

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination

List the alternative and other option for which a complaint shall be classified.

A
  1. Withdrawn:
  • Cases in which the complainant has withdrawn the complaint shall be classified as Withdrawn.
  1. Referred:
  • Cases that are approved for an alternate resolution shall be classified as Referred.

Note: This shall be reviewed and approved by the DST Commander.

70
Q

ADM-19: Vehicle Management

Which month must the Fleet Administrator ensure the annual reconciliation of the master inventory?

A

June

  • Be wary of the titles of Fleet Administrator and Fleet Coordinator (Troop/Section Commander or designee).
71
Q

ADM-19: Vehicle Management

Who SHALL the Fleet Administrator provide a VIN of disposed vehicles to?

A

Commonwealth of Massachusetts Operational Services Division

72
Q

ADM-19: Vehicle Management

Explain the designation differences between down and out of service?

A
  1. Down-inoperable/requires repairs.
  2. Out of Service-permanently disabled.
  • Neither shall be operated.
73
Q

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management

When there is any damage or vandalism to a Department vehicle, who SHALL members immediately report this to?

A
  1. Immediate Supervisor; &
  2. Fleet Administrator

Note: Difference between reasons to contact the Administrator (dmg or vandalism) vs the following…

  • Any damage to a department vehicle caused by a person arrested, detained, transported to court or other non-department employee shall be immediately reported to the Fleet Section in order to collect restitution. The Fleet Coordinator shall make arrangements for repairs through the Fleet Section.
74
Q

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management

When requesting to affix/install ornamentation on or in any Department vehicle, including vehicles assigned to various authorities or other governmental agencies, who SHALL members direct their written request to?

A
  1. The Deputy Superintendent; &
  2. The Fleet Administrator

Notes:

  • No alterations unless approved in advance and in writing.
  • Note the seeming inconsistency where adding and/or removing tint requires Fleet Administrator authorization. “Written requests” through channels to Troop/Section/Unit Commander.
  • Window tint = Fleet Administrator approval.
75
Q

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management

What is the standard when to have oil changes conducted?

A

9k miles or 6 months, whichever comes first.

Side note:

  • Airbag switches shall not be installed in any department vehicle without the prior written approval of the Fleet Administrator.
76
Q

ADM-19B: AVL

Who SHALL members report technical problems or malfunctions relating to with the operation of the AVL system?

  • Included Key Point on AVL Data Use.
A
  1. Immediately to Supervisor; and to
  2. Communications Section.
  • Record in DAJ and who the issue was reported to.

Important Note:

  • Supervisors and Communications Section shall then immediately report malfunctions to EOTTS.

Note: AVL data shall be used for all relevant purposes including but not limited to (deep breath, and go!), the deployment of personnel, operational efficiency, patrol strategy, personnel and other investigations, the enforcement of work rules, regulations, policies, customs, practices, procedures, orders, commands, and/or directives.

77
Q

ADM-19B: AVL

Who SHALL have access to AVL data for any lawful, relevant purpose?

  • Think Highest Ranks
A
  1. Colonel;
  2. Deputy;
  3. Division Commanders and/or designee(s)
78
Q

ADM-20: Weapons Management

Who SHALL contact the Armorer when needed?

A

GHQ Communications Section

79
Q

ADM-21: Communications

Who is “Keeper of the Records” for the Communications Section?

A

Director of Telecommunications

  • Supervises all personnel assigned to the Communications Section.
  • The Communications Officer (Commissioned) serves as the DCJIS Administrator and POC for the Department.
80
Q

ADM-21: Communications

What is the retention schedule for recordings?

A
  • Radio Payload: min. 1 year.
  • 911 Payload: min. 1 year.
  • 911 Call Detail Records: min. 3 years.
81
Q

ADM-21: Communications

How often SHALL the Troop/Station/Section Commander inspect and test the alternative power source?

A

Weekly

  • Maintain at least annually, including documented testing and/or operation of full load.
82
Q

ADM-21: Communications

What is the response to a false CODE 30 check?

A

CODE 17 and clear the radio by holding the emergency button for approximately 3 seconds.

83
Q

ADM-21: Communications

Give the meaning/reason for infrequent radio codes of a 8, 12, 18, and 20?

A
  • CODE 8: Stopping a suspicious vehicle.
  • CODE 12: Any messages for me?
  • CODE 18: Permission to leave assigned patrol.
  • CODE 20: Investigation (state type and location).
84
Q

ADM-22: Court Attendance and Fees

How long SHALL Commanding Officers retain court appearance forms for inspection?

A

3 years

Notes:

  • Members on sick, injured, or extended leaves may not receive court witness fees.
  • Court appearance fees shall be computed from the start of the appearance, or the member’s actual arrival time, whichever is later, until the end of the appearance
  • Unlike TMD and injured leave members, those on extended leave subpoenaed to appear in court shall not appear in court on behalf of the Department.
85
Q

ADM-22: Court Attendance and Fees

Who is to maintain staff supervision of court officers and conduct SEMI-ANNUAL inspections of their files?

A

Troop Cases & Reports Officers

86
Q

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime

Who approves a Captain/Detective Captain to work a paid detail and under what conditions?

A
  • Deputy Superintendent will approve and must be non-construction related and supervise at least 10 officers.
  • Cannot be bumped within 24 hours of start time.
87
Q

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime

Prior to an escort detail, a member assigned to the CVES, or the member assigned to the detail, shall inspect all oversized or overweight loads for what?

A
  1. Permits
  2. Load security
  3. Vehicle conditions
  4. Operator qualifications
88
Q

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime

Which holiday(s) do members receive time and one-half pay for the actual hours worked?

A

Thursday, Thanksgiving Day or December 25, Christmas Day.

89
Q

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime

Explain the 1/2 travel rule as it pertains to this policy.

A
  • Travel to/from a regularly scheduled shift to/from an OT/detail assignment is authorized, provided travel NOT exceed 1/2 hour from the geographical boundary of such regularly scheduled shift location.
  • Required to use at a minimum, 1/2 hour of accrued PER/VAC leave as travel time to/from a detail when greater than 1/2 hour.
90
Q

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime

When are new SPD-3 forwarded to a Paid Detail Administrator for annual changes?

A

Prior to the 1st of March each year (or upon transfer).

Side note:

  • Troop XO shall maintain all SP-381 forms and ensure all those forms indicating unsatisfactory performance are brought to the attention of Troop Commander.
91
Q

ADM-26: Military Service

What are the service days and subsequent authorized rest periods under this policy?

A

Summary-8/14/90:

  • Service 1-30 days: 8 hour rest period.
  • Service 31-180 days: 14 days rest period.
  • Service 181 or more days: 90 days rest period.
92
Q

ADM-26: Military Service

Informational key points.

A
  • Employees on military leave with pay are entitled to pay for benefits that are seniority based, not performance based, unless otherwise specified in the CBA (shift differential, on-call, clothing allowance, etc…).
  • Employees are placed (w/or w/o pay) on an administrative schedule for the duration of any individual or consecutive leaves in excess of 30 consecutive/calendar days.
93
Q

ADM-26: Military Service/Military Leave-Matrix

Informational key points (extreme shortcut version-read matrix):

  1. ARNG-federal activation
  2. ARNG-state activation
  3. NG (state activation-other states)
  4. NG (federal activation-other states)
A
  1. YES-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-NO, up to 40 paid days
  2. Yes-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-YES (in first 30 days), up to 30 paid days
  3. No-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-NO, HOLIDAY-NO
  4. Pay difference-see matrix, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-NO, up to 40 paid days
94
Q

ADM-27: Transfers

Speed guide for the Transfer Policy.

A

Troopers: 5+ years.
Sergeants: 2+ years.

  • Honored requests submitted at least 21 days prior to end of 56 day bid cycle.
  • Vacancies posted for at least 10 days.
  • Notify members at least 5 days before a transfer becomes effective.
  • Transfers shall be effective 7 days prior to end of current bid cycle.
  • TDY assignments not to exceed 90 days w/o review and extension by Colonel.
95
Q

ADM-28: Department Motor Vehicles

Who does a member report vandalism of their unattended cruiser to?

A

Vandalism to an unattended Department Vehicle shall be reported to the employee’s duty station or assignment as soon as possible after discovery.

96
Q

ADM-28: Department Motor Vehicles

Can employees garage a Department vehicle away from their residence?

A

YES, but Troop/Section Commander approval required.

97
Q

ADM-29: Workplace Violence

Who designates employees to the Workplace Violence Safety Incidence Team, where are those names forwarded, and who is in the unit?

A

Deputy Superintendent

> HR

  • Consists of a Commissioned Officer or senior manager from each division and a rep from HR, Office of Employee Relations, DST, and Legal Section.
98
Q

ADM-29: Workplace Violence

How long do sworn members and supervisors have to ensure notification has been made to the Workplace Violence Coordinator?

A

Within 72 hours

  • The Workplace Violence Coordinator does NOT conduct investigations into these incidents. All investigations conducted according to ADM-14.
  • Investigative assistance should be sought from the HR Division’s Investigations Center of Expertise (COE).

Note:

  • Do NOT mix up the 72 hours here and the EAU notice of 18 hours!
  • Office of Ombudsman and EAU or considered confidential and not the proper venue.
99
Q

ADM-30: Asset Management

Numbers speed guide!

A
  • Non-GAAP: $1k-$49,999.
  • GAAP: fixed assets $50k+ (THINK BIGGER).

Note:

  • Reporting twice per year to MMARS.
100
Q

ADM-30: Asset Management

Numbers speed guide for Asset Management Unit!

A
  • [The most likely exam question, if one is presented] Report fixed asset inventory as of June 30th each yr! (Think Station Commander barracks inventory)
  • GAAP/fixed report June 30th & Dec 31st each yr!
  • Annual Asset Forfeiture, Tech, & Fed Grant Inventory as of Jan 31st each year!
101
Q

ADM-30: Asset Management

Define key points within the terms:

  • Asset Forfeiture or Federal Grant Fixed Asset.
  • Fixed Assets.
  • Technology Asset.
A
  • Asset Forfeiture or Federal Grant Fixed Asset: Tangible and useful life of 1+ years regardless of original cost.
  • Fixed Assets: Tangible and useful life of 1+ years regardless of original cost ($1k+).
  • Technology Asset: Tangible and capable of storing data regardless of original cost (excludes flash drive, digital versatile disks, or other consumable tech).
102
Q

ADM-34: ITR

Who SHALL employees seek written authorization from when installing hardware and/or software on any Department ITR?

A

DAS

  • Also need this approval to move desktops, terminals, and printers.
103
Q

ADM-34: ITR

What do you type into emails when sending privileged correspondence between attorneys and other Department employees?

A

“Attorney-Client Privileged”

104
Q

ADM-34A: Social Media/Networking

What Article in Rules & Regulations notes how Department employees should treat Department business?

A

Article 5

105
Q

ADM-34A: Social Media/Networking

Who administers official Department social media accounts and who authorizes maintenance and information within them?

A

Office of Media Relations

  • The Colonel and/or Director of the Office of Media Relations maintains them and the information posted/contained within.
106
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

What are the three reasons listed in the initial policy section noting why the MSP implemented the use of BWC and CMC?

A
  1. Enhance police transparency;
  2. Increase public trust;
  3. Foster police-community relations

RECAP:

  • Transparency, Trust, Relations!

Side Note:

  • Record After the Fact (RATF) - captures events that occur while powered on but not actively recorded by a member. RATF shall NOT be enabled unless agreed to by the parties.
107
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

What is the audio buffer delay on a BWC and a CMC?

A
  1. BWC: 30 seconds
  2. CMC: 1 minute

Note: The CMC systems have an auto-record trigger of 5 seconds.

108
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

What is the minimum standard for how often members are required to dock their BWC?

A

No less than 1 time per week.

  • Note the UOF standards which are different numbers.
109
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

Who shall a member notify if their BWC/CMC malfunctions?

A

Supervisor; and

  • Supervisor will notify MIS

Note:

  • Supervisor will issue a spare BWC.
  • Don’t mix up this point of contact situation with the one listed under AVL malfunctions which involves supervisor and communications
110
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

SHALL members inform the prosecuting attorney whether the member reviewed BWC/CMC recordings prior to a court appearance?

A

YES

111
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

Who is responsible for collecting and securing BWC/CMC from members involved in a shooting?

A
  1. FIRST; and/or
    (Force Investigation Response & Support Team)
  2. SPDU of Jurisdiction.
112
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

What steps are taken for members who are not supervisors, as defined in Supervisor Access to footage, who wish to access recordings of a BWC/CMC member?

A
  1. Written (to/from or email) or verbal permission of a supervisor;
  2. Member Access to Footage Following an Officer-Involved Shooting , and only if required to produce a report, make a statement, provide testimony, or for training purposes.
  3. Request approval must be documented by the supervisor or Duty Lieutenant in writing (To-From, DAJ entry, or e-mail) which should document name of the requesting officer, the approving supervisor, and the scope of the request.
  4. Outside of chain of command requests (without specific reasons) go to member’s Division Commander.
113
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

Who may review BWC/CMC recordings for ANY reason?

A

Access to Footage:

  • The Colonel, the Deputy Superintendent, and any Division Commander or his/her designees (in the ranks of Major, Detective Captain, and Captain, may review BWC/CMC recordings for any reason).
  • Any Non-Commissioned or Commissioned Officer conducting a Personnel Investigation may review BWC/CMC recordings pertaining to that investigation.
  • Any request for access to BWC/CMC recordings outside of the immediate chain of command of the BWC/CMC member, must be submitted in writing via To-From or e-mail to the BWC/CMC member’s Division Commander. The Division Commander or his/her designee, as enumerated above, may approve or deny said request in writing. The BWC/CMC member shall be provided written notice of such request if approved.

Note:

  • In the event, member refuses to make a statement after being denied reasonable access to their own or other department recordings, department administrative action may NOT be taken against the member for failing to make a statement, BUT could still be pursued for the underlying event and refusal to cooperate with an investigation.
114
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

If a member receives a public records request for BWC/CMC recordings, where SHALL the request be directed?

A

Legal Section

Note: A copy will go to the Director of the Office of Media Relations.

115
Q

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras

Speed chart for recording retention!

A

Indefinite/10/6/3/1(30):

  • Schedule I: Indefinite Retention (deaths/sexual assaults)
  • Schedule II: 10 Year Retention (UOF/felony)
  • Schedule III: 6 Year Retention (Misdemeanor)
  • Schedule IV: 3 Year Retention (CD16 PI/Invest Person or Premise/MV stop/FIO)
  • Schedule V: 1 Year Retention (CD16 PDO/No report/Transport/Test/Training).

Note:

  • Any not falling into this retention schedule are retained for 30 days.
  • Accidental? Members shall submit an email request with sufficient information to the Troop/Section/Unit Commander and that person can approve in writing (email is sufficient) to the BWC/CMC System Administrator.
116
Q

ADM-36: Diversity & Equal Opportunity

Who appoints the Department’s Diversity Officer?

A
  • Colonel appoints;
  • The Department Diversity Officer is also the Recruitment & Diversity Office Unit Commander. Both that person and the Colonel approve each Division’s Diversity Officer (DDO).
117
Q

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access

FILL IN THE BLANK:

Department employees shall adhere to MGL, MSP, P&Ps, R&Rs, provisions of their applicable CBAs and/or _____ (two words) while utilizing department telephones.

A

Red Book

118
Q

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access

Do you need a State Police PIN to access the telephone interpreter services?

A

No

119
Q

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access

Who receives requests for Department-issued cellular telephones?

A

Chief Administrative Officer (CAO), through channels.

  • Separation or transfer requires turn-in to Asset Management.
120
Q

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places

Define Open & Gross Lewdness (OG)-Felony.

A

Must prove 5 elements:
1. Exposure of genitals, buttocks, or female breasts to one or more persons.
2. Intentional.
3. Victim who might be offended by such conduct.
4. Produce “ALARM OR SHOCK”.
5. Identify at least 1 victim, non-LE.

121
Q

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places

Define Unnatural Acts.

A

Elements:
1. In PUBLIC.
2. Involving oral contact with genitals/anal area, anal intercourse, or masturbation of another person, or any other intrusion of body part or some object into genital or anal opening of another person’s body.
3. Done intentionally or with reckless disregard that others may observe and be offended.

Definition:

  • Public Place-For the purposes of this policy only, a place where it is known or reasonably should be known that members of the public may be present and/or may be able to observe activity. An area may be open to the public and not be considered a public place for the purposes of this policy if a reasonable person would not foresee that his/her activity would be seen by a member of the public.
122
Q

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places

Define Indecent Exposure (IE) and Lewd & Lascivious (LL) Behavior.

  • Extremely flawed section of policy! It groups these two charges together with overlapping elements and not providing a distinction which Scheft has done in his Criminal Law book.
A

Taken DIRECTLY from Policy:

  • A charge of lewd and lascivious behavior requires both:
  • In public place; and
  • Person who knows or should know of the presence of another who may be offended by the conduct.

This section also prohibits:

  • Public solicitation of conduct to be performed in a public place; when
  • The conduct committed or solicited involves touching of the genitals, buttocks, or female breasts for the purpose of sexual arousal, gratification, or offense.

Abbreviated version taken from Scheft:

  • (IE) Indecent Exposure: MUST expose genitals (Misdemeanor).
  • (LL) Lewd & Lascivious Conduct: PUBLIC & offensive consensual sex (ex. public solicitation of…). Suspect knows or should have known presence of another.
123
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

Name some auxiliary aids and services named to assist communication.

A
  • Video Remote Interpreting (VRI).
  • Text Telephones (TTYs).
124
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

What is the number used to note the amount of spoken words that can be understood by speech or lip-reading?

A

1/3 rd

125
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

What state agency determines who is qualified as an interpreter for the MSP?

A

The Massachusetts Commission for the Deaf and Hard of Hearing (DHH)

126
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

What is the distance that a member should assume when attempting to communicate with a person who can lip read?

A

3 to 6 feet away

127
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

In a criminal case, is a qualified legal sign language interpreter always needed during questioning or interrogation?

A

During questioning or interrogation of a suspect in a criminal case, a qualified legal sign language interpreter, including a Certified Deaf Interpreter is “almost always” required.

128
Q

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals

Key Points to Note (the word SHOULD is commonly seen throughout this policy).

A
  • Individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing are entitled to a level of service equivalent to that provided to other individuals without disabilities.
  • All essential communication with the suspect SHOULD be completed prior to the application of handcuffs, if possible.
  • Rights: A member SHOULD advise a deaf or hard of hearing person of rights through a qualified interpreter to appropriately ensure that a waiver of those rights is deemed valid by a court.
  • FST section: Some deaf or hard of hearing persons have reduced verbal communication skills, and/or speech that may be incoherent or otherwise resemble intoxication. These individuals may also have difficulty with equilibrium, which would impact their ability to perform a balance test.
  • FST Section (continued): Members administering standardized FSTs should avoid any evidentiary questions during the testing process, as such questions may require an interpreter. Further, if applicable, members must document in their reports these and any other extenuating circumstances that impacted the administration of field sobriety tests.

MSP Policy & Procedure (To Be Updated) (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions