ADM

Question 1

ADM-01: Oath of Office

Part of this policy regarding Oath of Office was a surprisingly difficult question on a past exam due to wording and similar alternative answer options. What is this wording?

Answer 1

…Shall TAKE and AFFIRM an Oath of Office prior to the initial performance of duties.

Question 2

ADM-01: Oath of Office

Oath of Office key points

Answer 2

• …I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Commonwealth of Massachusetts, and will support the Constitution thereof…
• I do solemnly swear and affirm…rules and regulations of the Constitution, and the laws of the Commonwealth…

Question 3

ADM-02: Department Mission Statement

Mission Statement-informational

Answer 3

…quality policing directed at achieving safer roadways and reducing crime through investigations, education and patrol services, and by providing leadership and resources during NATURAL DISASTERS, CIVIL DISORDERS, and CRITICAL INCIDENTS.

Note:

• Don’t confuse these with Authority restrictions in ADM-04.

Question 4

ADM-04: State Police Authority

What are the limits of authority?

Answer 4

1. No industrial dispute unless actual violence has occurred & then only by written order of Governor.
2. No reservation or other property of the USA unless requested by the person in charge.
3. No member shall serve civil process.

Question 5

ADM-05: Organizational Structure

Who SHALL review and revise organizational charts?

Answer 5

The charts shall be:

• Reviewed by each Division Commander prior to the next fiscal year;
• Revised through the Office of the Superintendent; AND
• Be accessible to the public upon submission of record request.

Note:

• Organizational charts graphically depict organizational entities, levels of command, lines of authority, and positions established for the duties of personnel.

Question 6

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

The Command Staff is responsible for the administrative and operational control of the Department. Who are the Civilian Members of the Command Staff?

Answer 6

1. Chief Administrative Officer (CAO)
2. Chief Science Officer (CSO)

Question 7

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

Who are the Department CEO and COO?

Answer 7

• Colonel/Superintendent-CEO
• Lieutenant Colonel/Deputy Superintendent-COO

Question 8

ADM-06: Command Staff Responsibilities

How often are staff meetings conducted?

Answer 8

• WEEKLY staff meetings between the Colonel and all Divisions MAY be conducted.

Question 9

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Who establishes a Policy Review Committee and who reviews SOP’s?

Answer 9

• The Colonel establishes the Policy Review Committee. Policy Review Committee ensures each General Order and SP Form is reviewed at least annually and revised as needed.
• The Deputy reviews all SOP’s

Question 10

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Who ensures all Personnel Orders are posted and archived accordingly?

Answer 10

Human Resources

Question 11

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

1. Who has the authority to issue an administrative notice?
2. What is issued for formal or informal clarification or inquiry?

Answer 11

1. Superintendent; and
   Deputy Superintendent
2. Superintendent’s Memorandum

Question 12

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

It is the responsibility of each sworn and civilian employee to read and familiarize themselves with promulgated directives. How long do sworn and civilian employees have to read them after they’ve been distributed?

Answer 12

• Read promulgated directives within one week of distribution or upon return to duty for members on approved leave.

Note: Written directive formatting for P&P shall be indexed with prefix denoting administrative code, title, and effective date (CTE).

Question 13

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Key points to remember.

Answer 13

• The Office of Employee Relations (OER) shall disseminate information relative to a new labor agreement, including modifications to existing agreements, to managers and supervisors of bargaining unit employees.
• Members are encouraged to make suggestions and recommendations to revise or create written directives. Such suggestions/recommendations shall be written and forwarded, through channels, to the Office of the Superintendent-Strategic Planning Section for consideration by the Department Policy Review Committee.

Question 14

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

Key points regarding archives.

Answer 14

• Department written directives, excluding Division Commander’s Orders and Personnel Orders, shall be maintained by the Office of the Superintendent-Strategic Planning Section, including the signed “master copy”.
• Division Commanders and the Human Resources Section shall maintain the signed “master copy” of their Division Commander’s Orders or Personnel Orders.

Question 15

ADM-07: Written Directives, Schedules, and Forms

What are the key dates to remember for the submission of the Master Vacation Schedule?

Answer 15

Each Troop/Station/Section/Unit Commanding Officer shall:

• Submit through channels to their Division Commander on or before February 14th of each year.

Division Commanders shall:

• Retain submitted Master Vacation Schedules for the current year.

DAS and HR Section shall:

• Post a blank copy of the Master Vacation Schedule to DMS prior to January 1st.

Question 16

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

How often will Division Commanders meet with the Office of the Superintendent to review, evaluate, and update the stated goals and objectives of their respective Division?

Answer 16

At least annually (minimum)

Question 17

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Division Commanders submit a WRITTEN PROGRAM EVALUATION of their goals and objectives?

Answer 17

Prior to September 30th each year

Question 18

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Division Commanders submit a DIVISIONAL GOALS & OBJECTIVES REPORT to the Office of the Superintendent?

Answer 18

Prior to November 30th each year

Question 19

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

When shall Strategic Planning forward the ANNUAL GOAL & OBJECTIVES REPORT to the Colonel for review?

Answer 19

On or prior to December 30th each year

Question 20

ADM-08: Strategic Planning

Speed Guide!

Answer 20

September, November, and December 30th!!!

Question 21

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

Speed Guide for the who is who of Grant Approval!

Answer 21

• Director of Federal Grant Initiates;
• Grants Unit Representative; AND
• Strategic Planning Section Commander or Designee

Question 22

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

Define the Following Terms:

1. Grant
2. Cooperative Agreement
3. Interagency Service Agreement (ISA)

Answer 22

1. Grant: An award of financial assistance from an external entity where NO “substantial involvement” is anticipated between the awarding entity and the Department during performance of the agreed upon activity.
2. Cooperative Agreement: An agreement of financial assistance where “substantial involvement” is anticipated between an external entity and the Department during the performance of an agreed upon activity. Cooperative agreements are often non-cash agreements involving services provided to or by the Department.
3. Interagency Service Agreement (ISA): An agreement between the Department and a Massachusetts state entity that commits funds for a specific program.

Question 23

ADM-08A: Grant Approval Process

How long do employees have to submit requests to Division Commander or designee prior to filing date deadline?

Answer 23

15 days

Question 24

ADM-09: Line Inspection

Where shall repeated minor deficiencies be documented?

Answer 24

MakeNote

Question 25

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections How long of a notice shall OPIA give to Commanders for any inspection?

Answer 25

7 days ## Footnote * To include scope of inspection along with the intended date.

Question 26

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections How often SHALL each organizational component of the Department be inspected?

Answer 26

At least every 3 years

Question 27

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections How long shall inspectors have to prepare and submit a detailed report to the Colonel?

Answer 27

60 days

Question 28

ADM-09A: Staff Inspections How long shall Commanders have to remedy deficiencies noted upon receipt of the Staff Inspections Report?

Answer 28

**30 days**; * To appropriate **Division Commander**, copy forwarded to **DST Commander**.

Question 29

ADM-10: Awards **The COLORS**: 1. Medal of Honor? 2. Medal of Valor? 3. Medal of Merit? 4. Medal of Lifesaving?

Answer 29

1. **Medal of Honor**: Gold > Blue/Yellow/Blue (Extraordinary-BYB) 2. **Medal of Valor**: Silver > White/Red/Blue/Red/White (Outstanding courage-WRBRW) 3. **Medal of Merit**: Bronze > Blue/White (Outstanding achievement-BW) 4. **Medal of Lifesaving**: Bronze > Red/White (RW) Note: * GEN-02: 10 years of service-Service Ribbon (B/W/B) and 1 gold star for each additional 5 years.

Question 30

ADM-10: Awards Awards shall be presented at least biannually during which months?

Answer 30

April and October ##Footnote Note: * In **extraordinary circumstances**, the board may vote to an exception to this policy provided the vote is _unanimous and forward the exception to the Colonel for approval_.

Question 31

ADM-10: Awards Speed guide by the numbers!

Answer 31

* **Awards Board > Media Relations notification of the nominees: 45 days out**. * Media Relations > confirms nominees have been notified through Office of Superintendent: **30 days out**. * Office of Superintendent > nominees notified: **30 days out**.

Question 32

ADM-10: Awards Who appoints the following Award Board members: 1. President? 2. Department Employee (Civilian)? 3. All other Division Representatives?

Answer 32

1. Superintendent. 2. Deputy. 3. Division Commander. ## Footnote Note: * EES Coordinator (non voter) is designated by DST Commander within Board chart *(and or designee as far as outside the Board according to p.1)* and is a Commissioned Officer or Program Coordinator.

Question 33

ADM-10: Awards How many voting members SHALL comprise the Awards Board?

Answer 33

8 VOTING members/9 total ## Footnote Notes: * EES Coordinator on board BUT does NOT vote. * There is a 1 year minimum service on the Board.

Question 34

ADM-11: Sick Leave How will a SL request be logged in the DAJ?

Answer 34

Name, ID, and type of Sick Leave. ## Footnote Note: **As early as possible on the first day of a Sick Leave absence**, a member shall notify their duty assignment of the intention to use Sick Leave. The member shall notify their duty assignment of the anticipated duration of the Sick Leave absence. If the absence is shorter than, or extends beyond, the initially anticipated period of absence, the member shall advise their duty assignment of the modification to the Sick Leave request.

Question 35

ADM-11: Sick Leave Explain the **excess of** 5 consecutive work days SL requirement.

Answer 35

**Members MAY be required to undergo a medical examination, OR provide documentation from a licensed medical practitioner, to determine their fitness for duty**. ## Footnote Note: Members utilizing SL **may** be ordered to remain at a reported place of recuperation. Exceptions: Can receive care, buy medical products, vote or attend church, attend emergency situations, or attend other matters with **supervisory permission**. Note: Members using SL _may leave MA_, only under the following conditions: * With **authorization of their Commanding Officer**; and * To obtain medical care as prescribed by their licensed medical practitioner.

Question 36

ADM-11: Sick Leave What must members do when reporting to work earlier than previously reported?

Answer 36

They SHALL call to cancel remaining SL **at least 8 hours prior** to next shift start time.

Question 37

ADM-11: Sick Leave When shall calls/visits **NOT** occur when SL abuse is suspected?

Answer 37

Between 2200-0800 hours

Question 38

ADM-11A: Temporary Modified Duty When disputing a TMD assignment, how long does a member have to provide written notification to the Colonel?

Answer 38

Within 10 days ## Footnote * **Also with written statement from member's physician detailing** the medical reasons why assignment cannot be performed. * Past exam question.

Question 39

ADM-11A: Temporary Modified Duty Return to Duty Requirements speed guide!

Answer 39

**90 days-1 year**: * Notify Commander> HR>DST>Member completes Online Academy>Refresher Courses _if DST deems necessary_>Commander advised by SPA Commandant. * *(_if deemed necessary_)* patrol procedures, EVOC, DT, and firearms **Exceeds 1 year**: * Previous listed notifications + Background/Medical Exam/Psych Testing. **Exceeds 3 years**: * Previous listed + complete RTT.

Question 40

ADM-11B: Injury Reporting and Leave Under reporting, what shall be noted in the DAJ?

Answer 40

The nature and cause(s) of a member's injury. ## Footnote Note: Members with any **recurrent injuries** shall be placed on Sick Leave until officially approved and placed on ILD status.

Question 41

ADM-11B: Injury Reporting and Leave How long do members have to submit paperwork to investigating supervisor?

Answer 41

**Within 7 days** ## Footnote Note: Injured members should, if necessary, seek emergency medical care or seek treatment from their own personal physician. All bills shall be: * Made out in the injured **member’s name and home address**. * Itemized and initialed by the member. Note: SP Surgeon shall schedule **periodical** examinations as deemed necessary to determine the member’s duty status. NOTICE NO TIME FRAME!!!

Question 42

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines When are members required to notify their commanding officer of a pregnancy?

Answer 42

1. Reached 3rd trimester; 2. Requested modification, exemption, or leave; OR 3. Been given restrictions or limitations by physician that prohibits her from performing all aspects of her current assignment.

Question 43

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines Under the notification process, what are member requirements?

Answer 43

* Healthcare provider letter within **7 days** of initial notification. * Physician or obstetrician written updates every **30 days** thereafter.

Question 44

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines Additional notification process key points to remember.

Answer 44

* Name, address and contact information for the attending healthcare provider. * Restrictions or limitations and **if none then letter SHALL explicitly state so**. * Anticipated due date. * Anticipated date of return to work *(if known)*. * Any other relevant information to assist Department.

Question 45

ADM-11C: Maternity Leave and Guidelines Under Duty Assignment section, when an alternative duty assignment is unavailable within current assignment then the Colonel SHALL endeavor to remedy concerns within what timeframe?

Answer 45

Within **72 hours** of receipt of notice. ## Footnote Note: * Involuntary Alternative Duty: The **neutral healthcare provider** shall render an opinion which **shall be binding** upon the Department and the member.

Question 46

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence Who shall appoint the Leave Coordinator?

Answer 46

**DAS** Commander

Question 47

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence How long and how often are employees entitled to donate blood?

Answer 47

* Maximum of 4 hours of leave of absence w/pay. * Maximum of 5 times per federal fiscal year (10/1 to 9/30).

Question 48

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence How much and how often can an employee withdraw from the EILB?

Answer 48

* Up to **120 _DAYS_**; * Within a **2 year period**; * When all paid leave is exhausted!

Question 49

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence How long do employees have to make notification to the Department Leave Coordinator with Workpartners of a FMLA or PFML request?

Answer 49

At least **30 days** in advance of the desired leave, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible. ## Footnote * Requests for PFML to the Department PFML Coordinator (and website). * PFML granted with Department of Family & Medical Leave (DFML).

Question 50

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence How long do employees have to make notification to the Department Leave Coordinator for Non-FMLA Family Leave?

Answer 50

At least **14 days** in advance of the desired leave, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible.

Question 51

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence How long can the Colonel grant employees authorized leave of absence w/o pay?

Answer 51

Up to 90 days ## Footnote * At least 30 days notice to Leave Coordinator.

Question 52

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence When returning to service from **FMLA**, **medical leave**, or authorized leave of **absence w/o pay**, members returning to service due to their own illness/injury in excess of ____ days SHALL make notification to their Commander to contact Occupational Health *(to schedule an appointment with the SP Surgeon prior to returning to work and have a recommendation from the SP Surgeon for return to service).*

Answer 52

**10 days**

Question 53

ADM-11E: Leaves of Absence Requests for Leave of Absence **Without Pay** shall be made in writing to the Leave Coordinator _at least 30 days in advance of the desired leave_, or if unforeseen, as soon as possible. Written requests shall contain what information?

Answer 53

The written request shall contain the following: * Anticipated start and end dates of said leave; * A detailed statement of the reason for the leave; * In the event that the absence is illness/injury related, written requests shall be accompanied by substantiating proof of such illness. ## Footnote Note: The Colonel may grant employees authorized leave of absence without pay for up to 90 days and/or grant an extension of leave of absence upon written request filed by the employee.

Question 54

ADM-13: Notification of ME and/or Next of Kin If the ME declines to respond to the scene, who should request authority from the ME to remove the body? Also, who determines who SHALL make the notification to the next of kin?

Answer 54

**Troop Duty Officer** (for both) * For homicides, suicides, unattended deaths, DIS shall determine the notification process - all others by DFS.

Question 55

ADM-13: Notification of ME and/or Next of Kin List the order of next of kin notification for deaths.

Answer 55

1. Live-in spouse; 2. Parents or legal guardian; 3. Adult children; 4. Brother or sister; or 5. Other relatives.

Question 56

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations How long is the DST Division Commander, or designee, have before they SHALL transmit any officer misconduct complaint to POST?

Answer 56

2 business days ## Footnote Note: DST reviews recommendations for disciplinary action with the Deputy Superintendent.

Question 57

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations **Internal personnel complaints originating _within the Department_** by any employee shall be documented in a To/From format. The To/From SHALL be **faxed or emailed to DST** within what period of time?

Answer 57

24 hours

Question 58

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations How long do Supervisors have before they SHALL conduct an assigned investigation?

Answer 58

Within 30 days

Question 59

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations List the disposition classifications and define each.

Answer 59

1. **Unfounded** - False/not factual. 2. **Exonerated** - Occurred, but actions were lawful & proper. 3. **Not Sustained** - Insufficient evidence to prove or disprove. 4. **Sustained** - Supported by evidence to prove misconduct. ## Footnote Note: Deputy Superintendent administers disciplinary action as appropriate which has been approved by the Colonel.

Question 60

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations How shall disposition findings be filed?

Answer 60

Filing Types: 1. Unfounded; 2. Exonerated; 3. Not Sustained, and 4. Sustained * Complaint dispositions classified as Unfounded, Exonerated, or NOT- Sustained, and not alleging serious misconduct, shall be filed within the **Internal Affairs database**. **Note**: For Sustained the Troop/Section/Unit Commander shall: * Prepare a memorandum indicating the category of the complaint, and recommendations; AND * Forward memorandum, with all completed reports and correspondence, through channels to DST.

Question 61

ADM-14: Internal Department Investigations How long do Troop/Section/Unit Commanders have to forward completed reports to the DST Commander?

Answer 61

Within **30 days** of assigned date. ## Footnote * DST may authorize a time extension upon a written request. * Interviews may be recorded mechanically or by a Department stenographer. The accused employee may independently record his/her own interview.

Question 62

ADM-15: OPIA Investigations How long does OPIA have before they SHALL complete an IA investigation into officer misconduct and issue a final disposition?

Answer 62

Within **1 year** of receiving a complaint or notice from the POST commission of the complaint being filed. ## Footnote Note: OPIA has the authority to report directly to OS or DST.

Question 63

ADM-15: OPIA Investigations For IA investigations for criminal conduct, can a polygraph examination be used?

Answer 63

Yes

Question 64

ADM-17: EES Who designates the EES Coordinator *(a commissioned officer or program coordinator)?*

Answer 64

DST Commander or designee

Question 65

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination Who is the Sexual Harassment Officer of the Department?

Answer 65

DST Commander

Question 66

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination Who assigns the Harassment Investigation Officer? ## Footnote * SHALL be a Commissioned Officer!

Answer 66

**Colonel** assigns and that person reports to the DST

Question 67

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination If the Harassment Investigation Unit (HIU) determines an investigation is required, who does the complaint get forwarded to? ## Footnote Note: HIU shall **promptly** respond to a complaint.

Answer 67

Commonwealth's HR Division's Investigations: **Center of Expertise** *(COE)* ## Footnote * Supervisors assigned to Office of Ombudsman and/or EAU are not to report incidents to the HIU like other Supervisors.

Question 68

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination Who SHALL the HIU notify of complaints of **_unlawful_** harassment or discrimination?

Answer 68

The Department's Office of **Diversity & Equal Opportunity** (DEO)

Question 69

ADM-18: Unlawful Harassment, Sexual Harassment & Discrimination List the alternative and other option for which a complaint shall be classified.

Answer 69

1. **Withdrawn:** * Cases in which the complainant has withdrawn the complaint shall be classified as **Withdrawn**. 2. **Referred:** * Cases that are approved for an _alternate resolution_ shall be classified as **Referred**. ## Footnote Note: This **shall be reviewed and approved by the DST Commander**.

Question 70

ADM-19: Vehicle Management Which month must the Fleet Administrator ensure the annual reconciliation of the master inventory?

Answer 70

**June** * Be wary of the titles of Fleet Administrator and Fleet Coordinator *(Troop/Section Commander or designee).*

Question 71

ADM-19: Vehicle Management Who SHALL the Fleet Administrator provide a VIN of disposed vehicles to?

Answer 71

Commonwealth of Massachusetts **Operational Services Division**

Question 72

ADM-19: Vehicle Management Explain the designation differences between down and out of service?

Answer 72

1. **Down**-inoperable/requires repairs. 2. **Out of Service**-permanently disabled. * Neither shall be operated.

Question 73

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management When there is any damage or vandalism to a Department vehicle, who SHALL members immediately report this to?

Answer 73

1. **Immediate Supervisor**; & 2. **Fleet Administrator** ##Footnote Note: **Difference between reasons to contact the Administrator *(dmg or vandalism)* vs the following**… * Any damage to a department vehicle caused by a person arrested, detained, transported to court or other non-department employee shall be immediately reported to the **Fleet Section** in order to collect restitution. The Fleet Coordinator shall make arrangements for repairs through the Fleet Section.

Question 74

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management When requesting to affix/install ornamentation on or in any Department vehicle, including vehicles assigned to various authorities or other governmental agencies, who SHALL members direct their written request to?

Answer 74

1. The Deputy Superintendent; & 2. The Fleet Administrator ## Footnote Notes: * No alterations unless approved in advance and in writing. * Note the seeming inconsistency where adding and/or removing tint requires Fleet Administrator authorization. “Written requests” through channels to Troop/Section/Unit Commander. * Window tint = Fleet Administrator approval.

Question 75

ADM-19A: Vehicle Management What is the standard when to have oil changes conducted?

Answer 75

9k miles or 6 months, whichever comes first. ##Footnote Side note: * Airbag switches shall not be installed in any department vehicle without the prior written approval of the Fleet Administrator.

Question 76

ADM-19B: AVL Who SHALL members report technical problems or malfunctions relating to with the operation of the AVL system? ## Footnote * Included Key Point on AVL Data Use.

Answer 76

1. Immediately to **Supervisor**; and to 2. **Communications Section**. * Record in DAJ and who the issue was reported to. Important Note: * Supervisors and Communications Section shall then immediately report malfunctions to **EOTTS**. ## Footnote Note: AVL data shall be used for all relevant purposes including but not limited to *(deep breath, and go!)*, the deployment of personnel, operational efficiency, patrol strategy, personnel and other investigations, the enforcement of work rules, regulations, policies, customs, practices, procedures, orders, commands, and/or directives.

Question 77

ADM-19B: AVL Who SHALL have access to AVL data for any lawful, relevant purpose? * *Think Highest Ranks*

Answer 77

1. Colonel; 2. Deputy; 3. Division Commanders and/or designee(s)

Question 78

ADM-20: Weapons Management Who SHALL contact the Armorer when needed?

Answer 78

GHQ Communications Section

Question 79

ADM-21: Communications Who is "Keeper of the Records" for the Communications Section?

Answer 79

**Director of Telecommunications** * Supervises all personnel assigned to the Communications Section. * The Communications Officer (Commissioned) serves as the DCJIS Administrator and POC for the Department.

Question 80

ADM-21: Communications What is the retention schedule for recordings?

Answer 80

* Radio Payload: min. 1 year. * 911 Payload: min. 1 year. * 911 Call **Detail Records**: min. 3 years.

Question 81

ADM-21: Communications How often SHALL the Troop/Station/Section Commander inspect and test the alternative power source?

Answer 81

**Weekly** * Maintain at least annually, including documented testing and/or operation of full load.

Question 82

ADM-21: Communications What is the response to a false CODE 30 check?

Answer 82

CODE 17 and clear the radio by holding the emergency button for approximately 3 seconds.

Question 83

ADM-21: Communications Give the meaning/reason for infrequent radio codes of a 8, 12, 18, and 20?

Answer 83

* **CODE 8**: Stopping a suspicious vehicle. * **CODE 12**: Any messages for me? * **CODE 18**: Permission to leave assigned patrol. * **CODE 20**: Investigation *(state type and location).*

Question 84

ADM-22: Court Attendance and Fees How long SHALL Commanding Officers retain court appearance forms for inspection?

Answer 84

3 years ## Footnote Notes: * Members on sick, injured, or extended leaves may not receive court witness fees. * Court appearance fees shall be computed from the start of the appearance, or the member’s actual arrival time, whichever is later, until the end of the appearance * Unlike TMD and injured leave members, those on **extended leave** subpoenaed to appear in court shall **not** appear in court on behalf of the Department.

Question 85

ADM-22: Court Attendance and Fees Who is to maintain staff supervision of court officers and conduct SEMI-ANNUAL inspections of their files?

Answer 85

Troop Cases & Reports Officers

Question 86

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime Who approves a Captain/Detective Captain to work a paid detail and under what conditions?

Answer 86

* **Deputy Superintendent** will approve and must be non-construction related and supervise at least 10 officers. * Cannot be bumped within 24 hours of start time.

Question 87

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime Prior to an escort detail, a member assigned to the CVES, or the member assigned to the detail, shall inspect all oversized or overweight loads for what?

Answer 87

1. Permits 2. Load security 3. Vehicle conditions 4. Operator qualifications

Question 88

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime Which holiday(s) do members receive time and one-half pay for the actual hours worked?

Answer 88

Thursday, Thanksgiving Day or December 25, Christmas Day.

Question 89

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime Explain the 1/2 travel rule as it pertains to this policy.

Answer 89

* Travel to/from a regularly scheduled shift to/from an OT/detail assignment is authorized, provided travel NOT exceed 1/2 hour from the geographical boundary of such regularly scheduled shift location. * Required to use at a minimum, 1/2 hour of accrued PER/VAC leave as travel time to/from a detail when greater than 1/2 hour.

Question 90

ADM-25: Paid Details and Overtime When are new SPD-3 forwarded to a Paid Detail Administrator for annual changes?

Answer 90

Prior to the 1st of March each year *(or upon transfer).* ##Footnote Side note: * **_Troop XO_ shall maintain all SP-381 forms and ensure all those forms indicating unsatisfactory performance are brought to the attention of _Troop Commander_**.

Question 91

ADM-26: Military Service What are the service days and subsequent authorized rest periods under this policy?

Answer 91

Summary-**8/14/90**: * Service 1-30 days: 8 hour rest period. * Service 31-180 days: 14 days rest period. * Service 181 or more days: 90 days rest period.

Question 92

ADM-26: Military Service Informational key points.

Answer 92

* Employees on military leave with pay are entitled to pay for benefits that are seniority based, not performance based, unless otherwise specified in the CBA (shift differential, on-call, clothing allowance, etc...). * Employees are placed (w/or w/o pay) on an _administrative schedule_ for the duration of any individual or consecutive leaves in **excess of 30 consecutive/calendar** days.

Question 93

ADM-26: Military Service/Military Leave-Matrix Informational key points *(extreme shortcut version-read matrix):* 1. ARNG-federal activation 2. ARNG-state activation 3. NG (state activation-other states) 4. NG (federal activation-other states)

Answer 93

1. YES-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-NO, up to 40 paid days 2. Yes-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-YES (in first 30 days), up to 30 paid days 3. No-pay difference, VAC/SIC/PER-NO, HOLIDAY-NO 4. Pay difference-see matrix, VAC/SIC/PER-YES, HOLIDAY-NO, up to 40 paid days

Question 94

ADM-27: Transfers Speed guide for the Transfer Policy.

Answer 94

Troopers: 5+ years. Sergeants: 2+ years. * Honored requests submitted at least 21 days prior to end of 56 day bid cycle. * Vacancies posted for at least 10 days. * Notify members at least 5 days before a transfer becomes effective. * Transfers shall be effective 7 days prior to end of current bid cycle. * TDY assignments not to exceed 90 days w/o review and extension by Colonel.

Question 95

ADM-28: Department Motor Vehicles Who does a member report vandalism of their unattended cruiser to?

Answer 95

Vandalism to an unattended Department Vehicle shall be reported to the employee’s **duty station or assignment** as soon as possible after discovery.

Question 96

ADM-28: Department Motor Vehicles Can employees garage a Department vehicle away from their residence?

Answer 96

YES, but Troop/Section Commander approval required.

Question 97

ADM-29: Workplace Violence Who designates employees to the Workplace Violence Safety Incidence Team, where are those names forwarded, and who is in the unit?

Answer 97

**Deputy Superintendent** > HR * Consists of a Commissioned Officer or senior manager from each division and a rep from HR, Office of Employee Relations, DST, and Legal Section.

Question 98

ADM-29: Workplace Violence How long do sworn members and supervisors have to ensure notification has been made to the Workplace Violence Coordinator?

Answer 98

**Within 72 hours** * The **Workplace Violence Coordinator** does **NOT** conduct investigations into these incidents. All investigations conducted according to ADM-14. * Investigative assistance should be sought from the HR Division's Investigations Center of Expertise (COE). ## Footnote Note: * Do **NOT** mix up the 72 hours here and the EAU notice of 18 hours! * Office of Ombudsman and EAU or considered confidential and not the proper venue.

Question 99

ADM-30: Asset Management Numbers speed guide!

Answer 99

* Non-GAAP: $1k-$49,999. * GAAP: fixed assets $50k+ (THINK BIGGER). ##Footnote Note: * Reporting twice per year to MMARS.

Question 100

ADM-30: Asset Management Numbers speed guide for Asset Management Unit!

Answer 100

* **[The most likely exam question, if one is presented]** Report fixed asset inventory as of _June 30th_ each yr! (**Think Station Commander barracks inventory**) * GAAP/fixed report June 30th & Dec 31st each yr! * Annual Asset Forfeiture, Tech, & Fed Grant Inventory as of Jan 31st each year!

Question 101

ADM-30: Asset Management Define key points within the terms: * Asset Forfeiture or Federal Grant Fixed Asset. * Fixed Assets. * Technology Asset.

Answer 101

* **Asset Forfeiture or Federal Grant Fixed Asset**: Tangible and useful life of 1+ years regardless of original cost. * **Fixed Assets**: Tangible and useful life of 1+ years regardless of original cost ($1k+). * **Technology Asset**: Tangible and capable of storing data regardless of original cost (excludes flash drive, digital versatile disks, or other consumable tech).

Question 102

ADM-34: ITR Who SHALL employees seek written authorization from when installing hardware and/or software on any Department ITR?

Answer 102

DAS ## Footnote * Also need this approval to move desktops, terminals, and printers.

Question 103

ADM-34: ITR What do you type into emails when sending privileged correspondence between attorneys and other Department employees?

Answer 103

"**Attorney-Client Privileged**"

Question 104

ADM-34A: Social Media/Networking What Article in Rules & Regulations notes how Department employees should treat Department business?

Answer 104

Article 5

Question 105

ADM-34A: Social Media/Networking Who administers official Department social media accounts and who authorizes maintenance and information within them?

Answer 105

**Office of Media Relations** * The Colonel and/or Director of the Office of Media Relations maintains them and the information posted/contained within.

Question 106

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras What are the three reasons listed in the initial policy section noting why the MSP implemented the use of BWC and CMC?

Answer 106

1. Enhance police **transparency**; 2. Increase public **trust**; 3. Foster **police-community relations** **RECAP:** * **Transparency, Trust, Relations**! ## Footnote Side Note: * **Record After the Fact (RATF)** - captures events that occur while powered on but not actively recorded by a member. RATF shall NOT be enabled unless agreed to by the parties.

Question 107

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras What is the audio buffer delay on a BWC and a CMC?

Answer 107

1. **BWC**: 30 seconds 2. **CMC**: 1 minute ## Footnote Note: The CMC systems have an auto-record trigger of 5 seconds.

Question 108

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras What is the minimum standard for how often members are required to dock their BWC?

Answer 108

No less than **1 time per week**. * Note the UOF standards which are different numbers.

Question 109

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras Who shall a **member** notify if their BWC/CMC malfunctions?

Answer 109

**Supervisor**; and * Supervisor will notify **MIS** ## Footnote Note: * Supervisor will issue a spare BWC. * Don’t mix up this point of contact situation with the one listed under AVL malfunctions which involves **_supervisor and communications_**

Question 110

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras SHALL members inform the prosecuting attorney whether the member reviewed BWC/CMC recordings prior to a court appearance?

Answer 110

YES

Question 111

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras Who is responsible for collecting and securing BWC/CMC from members involved in a shooting?

Answer 111

1. **FIRST**; and/or *(Force Investigation Response & Support Team)* 2. **SPDU of Jurisdiction**.

Question 112

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras What steps are taken for members who are not supervisors, as defined in Supervisor Access to footage, who wish to access recordings of a BWC/CMC member?

Answer 112

1. Written *(to/from or email)* or verbal permission of a supervisor; 2. _Member Access to Footage Following an Officer-Involved Shooting_ , and **only if required to produce a report**, make a statement, provide testimony, or for training purposes. 3. Request approval must be documented by the **supervisor or Duty Lieutenant** in writing *(To-From, DAJ entry, or e-mail)* which should document name of the requesting officer, the approving supervisor, and the scope of the request. 4. Outside of chain of command requests *(without specific reasons)* go to member's Division Commander.

Question 113

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras Who may review BWC/CMC recordings for ANY reason?

Answer 113

**Access to Footage**: * The **Colonel**, the **Deputy Superintendent**, and **any Division Commander or his/her designees** *(in the ranks of **Major, Detective Captain, and Captain**, may review BWC/CMC recordings for any reason)*. * Any Non-Commissioned or Commissioned Officer conducting a Personnel Investigation may review BWC/CMC recordings pertaining to that investigation. * Any request for access to BWC/CMC recordings **outside of the immediate chain of command** of the BWC/CMC member, **must be submitted in writing via To-From or e-mail to the BWC/CMC member’s Division Commander**. The Division Commander or his/her designee, as enumerated above, may approve or deny said request in writing. The BWC/CMC member shall be provided written notice of such request if approved. ## Footnote Note: * In the event, member refuses to make a statement after being denied reasonable access to their own or other department recordings, department administrative action may **NOT** be taken against the member for failing to make a statement, **BUT** could still be pursued for the underlying event and refusal to cooperate with an investigation.

Question 114

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras If a member receives a public records request for BWC/CMC recordings, where SHALL the request be directed?

Answer 114

**Legal Section** ## Footnote Note: **A copy will go to the Director of the Office of Media Relations**.

Question 115

ADM-35: Body-Worn & Cruiser-Mounted Cameras Speed chart for recording retention!

Answer 115

**Indefinite/10/6/3/1(30)**: * **Schedule I**: Indefinite Retention (deaths/sexual assaults) * **Schedule II**: 10 Year Retention (UOF/felony) * **Schedule III**: 6 Year Retention (Misdemeanor) * **Schedule IV**: 3 Year Retention (CD16 PI/Invest Person or Premise/MV stop/FIO) * **Schedule V**: 1 Year Retention (CD16 PDO/No report/Transport/Test/Training). ## Footnote Note: * Any not falling into this retention schedule are retained for 30 days. * Accidental? Members shall submit an **email request** with sufficient information to the Troop/Section/Unit Commander and that person can approve in writing *(email is sufficient)* to the BWC/CMC System Administrator.

Question 116

ADM-36: Diversity & Equal Opportunity Who appoints the Department's Diversity Officer?

Answer 116

* **Colonel** appoints; * The Department Diversity Officer is also the Recruitment & Diversity Office Unit Commander. Both that person and the Colonel approve each Division's Diversity Officer (DDO).

Question 117

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access **FILL IN THE BLANK:** Department employees shall adhere to MGL, MSP, P&Ps, R&Rs, provisions of their applicable CBAs and/or _____ *(two words)* while utilizing department telephones.

Answer 117

**Red Book**

Question 118

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access Do you need a State Police PIN to access the telephone interpreter services?

Answer 118

No

Question 119

ADM-41: Telephone Use/Access Who receives requests for Department-issued cellular telephones?

Answer 119

**Chief Administrative Officer** (CAO), *through channels.* * Separation or transfer requires turn-in to Asset Management.

Question 120

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places Define Open & Gross Lewdness (OG)-Felony.

Answer 120

**Must prove 5 elements**: 1. Exposure of genitals, buttocks, or female breasts to one or more persons. 2. Intentional. 3. Victim who might be offended by such conduct. 4. Produce “ALARM OR SHOCK”. 5. Identify at least 1 victim, non-LE.

Question 121

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places Define Unnatural Acts.

Answer 121

**Elements**: 1. In PUBLIC. 2. Involving oral contact with genitals/anal area, anal intercourse, or masturbation of another person, or any other intrusion of body part or some object into genital or anal opening of another person's body. 3. Done intentionally or with reckless disregard that others may observe and be offended. ## Footnote Definition: * Public Place-For the purposes of this policy only, a place where it is known or reasonably should be known that members of the public may be present and/or may be able to observe activity. An area may be open to the public and **not be considered a public place for the purposes of this policy if a reasonable person would not foresee that his/her activity would be seen by a member of the public**.

Question 122

ADM-46: Sexual Activity in Public Places Define Indecent Exposure (IE) and Lewd & Lascivious (LL) Behavior. ## Footnote * Extremely flawed section of policy! It groups these two charges together with overlapping elements and not providing a distinction which Scheft has done in his Criminal Law book.

Answer 122

**Taken DIRECTLY from Policy**: * A charge of lewd and lascivious behavior requires both: * In public place; and * Person who knows or should know of the presence of another who may be offended by the conduct. **This section also prohibits**: * Public solicitation of conduct to be performed in a public place; when * The conduct committed or solicited involves touching of the genitals, buttocks, or female breasts for the purpose of sexual arousal, gratification, or offense. **Abbreviated version taken from Scheft**: * (IE) Indecent Exposure: MUST expose genitals (Misdemeanor). * (LL) Lewd & Lascivious Conduct: PUBLIC & offensive consensual sex (ex. public solicitation of…). Suspect knows or should have known presence of another.

Question 123

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals Name some auxiliary aids and services named to assist communication.

Answer 123

* Video Remote Interpreting (VRI). * Text Telephones (TTYs).

Question 124

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals What is the number used to note the amount of spoken words that can be understood by speech or lip-reading?

Answer 124

1/3 rd

Question 125

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals What state agency determines who is qualified as an interpreter for the MSP?

Answer 125

The Massachusetts Commission for the Deaf and Hard of Hearing (DHH)

Question 126

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals What is the distance that a member should assume when attempting to communicate with a person who can lip read?

Answer 126

3 to 6 feet away

Question 127

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals In a criminal case, is a qualified legal sign language interpreter always needed during questioning or interrogation?

Answer 127

During questioning or interrogation of a suspect in a criminal case, a qualified legal sign language interpreter, including a Certified Deaf Interpreter is **"almost always"** required.

Question 128

ADM-49: Deaf or Hard of Hearing Individuals Key Points to Note *(the word SHOULD is commonly seen throughout this policy).*

Answer 128

* Individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing are entitled to a level of service **equivalent to that provided to other individuals without disabilities**. * All essential communication with the suspect SHOULD be completed prior to the application of handcuffs, if possible. * Rights: A member SHOULD advise a deaf or hard of hearing person of rights through a qualified interpreter to appropriately ensure that a waiver of those rights is deemed valid by a court. * FST section: Some deaf or hard of hearing persons have reduced verbal communication skills, and/or speech that may be incoherent or otherwise resemble intoxication. These individuals may also have difficulty with equilibrium, which would impact their ability to perform a balance test. * FST Section (continued): Members administering standardized FSTs should avoid any evidentiary questions during the testing process, as such questions may require an interpreter. Further, if applicable, members must document in their reports these and any other extenuating circumstances that impacted the administration of field sobriety tests.