Acute Peds Flashcards

1
Q

large for gestational age

A

birth weight > 90th percentile

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2
Q

small for gestational age

A

birth weight < 10th percentile

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3
Q

intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

A

pathological birth weight < 10th percentile

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4
Q

selective fetal growth restriction (sFGR)

A

< 10th percentile and discordance >25%

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5
Q

low birth weight (LBW)

A

<2500 grams

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6
Q

very low birth weight (VLBW)

A

<1500 grams

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7
Q

T or F: babies with IUGR automatically qualify for early intervention

A

T

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8
Q

gravida 3 para0020. what does this mean?

A

3 pregnancies
0 babies
0 preemies
2 miscarriages
0 living children

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9
Q

APGAR

A

appearance (color)
pulse
grimace (reflexes)
activity (tone)
respiration

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10
Q

range of scores for APGAR… is higher or lower better?

A

1-10
higher is better

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11
Q

gestational age =

A

last menstrual cycle to birth

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12
Q

chronological age =

A

birth date to current age

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13
Q

weeks early =

A

40 weeks - gestational age

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14
Q

corrected age =

A

chronological age - weeks of prematurity

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15
Q

how long do you account for prematurity

A

until age 2

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16
Q

T or F: almost every preemie has osteopenia

A

T

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17
Q

retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

A

disruption of normal progression of retinal vascular development in preterm infant

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18
Q

how many stages of ROP

A

5

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19
Q

at what stage of ROP do you need to start intervention

A

stage 3 - some get better without treatment but some need intervention

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20
Q

plus disease

A
  • a sign that ROP is getting worse but treatment can prevent retinal detachment
  • blood vessels on retina get large and twisted (stage 3 ROP)
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21
Q

stage 4 ROP vs stage 5 ROP

A

stage 4 = partially detached retina
stage 5 = completely detached retina
**both need treatment

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22
Q

what can ROP cause later in life

A

nearsightedness

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23
Q

bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)

A
  • stiff lung tissue leads to difficult delivery of oxygen
  • usually occurs in alveoli
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24
Q

what can BPD lead to later in life

A

asthma
decreased immune system

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25
Q

if a baby still needs O2 after ______ weeks they will be diagnosed with BPD

A

36

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26
Q

SiPap

A
  • similar to Cpap and Bipap
  • almost like a ventilator through the nose
    helps infant breath for theirself
27
Q

with babies on SiPap they alternate between a mask and prongs. why?

A

to prevent skin breakdown

28
Q

ECMO

A

extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
*gives heart/lungs a rest

29
Q

two types of ECMO

A

venovenous = just for lungs
venoarterial = heart and lungs

30
Q

can babies stay on venovenous or venoarterial ecmo longer

A

venovenous
- for venoarterial they don’t like to keep them on it for more than a week

31
Q

ECMO cannot be used on babies less than ______ weeks. Why?

A

34
equipment not small enough

32
Q

how many grades of intraventricular hemorrhage

33
Q

grade 1 intraventricular hemorrhage

A

hemorrhage in germinal matrix

34
Q

grade 2 intraventricular hemorrhage

A

IVH <50% and not distending

35
Q

grade 3 intraventricular hemorrhage

A

IVH>50% and distending

36
Q

grade 4 intraventricular hemorrhage

A

grade 3 IVH with periventricular hemorrhagic infarction

37
Q

T or F: all infants have a germinal matric

A

F: only preemies

38
Q

T or F: babies with grades 1 and 2 IVH typically do not have long term problems

39
Q

what could babies with grade 3 and 4 IVH develop

A

hydrocephalus

40
Q

what do they do for a baby with grade 4 IVH?

A

MRI
neurosurgery consult
monitor head circumference

41
Q

periventricular leukomalacia

A

damage to deep periventricular white matter due to softening of brain tissue
*white matter is patchy like swiss cheese

42
Q

kids with periventricular leukomalacia often have…

A

microcephaly
*high risk for CP

43
Q

indants at highest risk of periventricular leukomalacia are those less than ____ weeks gestational age

44
Q

T or F: preemies have lots of spontaneous movements

A

F: minimal spontaneous movements

45
Q

what does prolonged mechanical ventilation put preemies at increased risk for?

A
  • neck hyperextension
  • scapular elevation/retraction
  • arching of trunk
  • ant/post pelvic tilt
46
Q

name some psychological stress cues for infants

A
  • yawning
  • spitting up
  • hiccups
  • HR
  • color change
  • RR
  • sneezing
47
Q

name some motor stress cues for infants

A
  • tremor
  • startle
  • sitting on air?
  • splaying
  • saluting
48
Q

T or F: you should document state of arousal every time you see an infant

49
Q

Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS)

A

state 1 - deep sleep, no movement
state 2 - light sleep, closed eyes, some movement
state 3 - sleepy, eyes opening and closing
state 4 - awake, open eyes, min movement
state 5 - completely awake, strongmovement
stage 6 - cry

50
Q

what does supine positioning encourage

A
  • midline symmetric flexion
  • shoulders protracted
  • hands near face or mouth
  • hips neutral rotation
  • hips/knees flexes
51
Q

what does sidelying positioning encourage?

A
  • midline symmetry
  • tucked chin
  • flexion of trunk/hips/knees
52
Q

what does prone positioning encourage

A
  • flexion/protraction of UE
  • neutral head position
  • flexion of hips/knees
53
Q

what position do you want to avoid with infants and why

A

extension because this uses increased calories

54
Q

what can you use to assess pain in babies/kids

A

FLACC scale

55
Q

FLACC scale

A

face, legs, activity, cry, consolability

56
Q

how will a newborn with a brachial plexus injury present

A

-absent shoulder abduction, ER, elbow flexion, and supination (more mild, recovery 4-6 months)
-flail shoulder, absent elbow flexion, flexed wrist, closed fist (slow recovery, 15 months)
-flail extremity, limited finger movement (poor recovery)

57
Q

if a newborn with a brachial plexus injury doesn’t have active biceps by 6 months what should you do

A

refer them to neurosurgery because that is a good indicator they are not goingt o get return without surgery

58
Q

what is the leading cause of death from disease in children in the US

59
Q

what is the most common peds cancer

60
Q

peds cancer is considered birth to age ______

61
Q

what are chemotherapy side effects

A
  • nausea
  • neurotoxicity
  • pulmonary toxicity
  • cardiotoxicity
  • muscle weakness
  • osteonecrosis
62
Q

does chemotherapy induced peripheral neuropathy usually start in the lower or upper extremities

63
Q

what does vincristine do

A
  • disrups microtubules
  • degeneration of axion cytoskeleton
  • inhibits axonal transport
    **increased risk of neuropathy