ACE 07 Exam Prep Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is Par-Q?

A

See if doc clearance is required before becoming active https://acewebcontent.azureedge.net/healthcoachresources/pdfs/Par-QandYou.pdf

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2
Q

What is Par-Q?

A

See if doc clearance is required before becoming active https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/tools-calculators/risk-of-chronic-disease-tool https://www.acefitness.org/ptresources/pdfs/AssessmentForms/5-PAR-QandYou.pdf

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3
Q

Cal values per gram

A

Fat = 9 kcal/g Alcohol = 7 kcal/g Carbohydrates = 4 kcal/g Protein = 4 kcal/g

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4
Q

Desired Body Weight (DBW)

A

Desired Weight = Lean Muscle / Desired Lean Muscle %

***DBW (Desired Body Weight) = LBW (Lead Body Weight) ÷ (1 – DBF%)

Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body %

Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW

Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean %

Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW

Example: 200-pound individual with 30% body fat; How much will he or she weigh at 25% body fat? •100% – 30% = 70%

  • 200 pounds x 0.70 = 140 pounds LBW
  • 100% – 25% = 75%
  • 140 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 187 pounds DBW
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5
Q

WAIST-TO-HIP RATIO (WHR)

A

Waist ÷ Hip = WHR Example: Individual with 36-inch waist and 35-inch hip circumference 36 in ÷ 35 in = 1.03

At risk: M >0.95; F > 0.86

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3815/physiological-assessments-anthropometric-measurements

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6
Q

BMI METRIC FORMULA

A

Underweight <18.5

Normal Weight 18.5-24.9

Overweight 25.0-29.9

Grade I Obesity 30.0-34.9

Grade II Obesity 35.0-39.9

Grade III Obesity >40

*Source: ACE Lifestyle & Weight Management Coach Manual

https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/tools-calculators/bmi-calculator

Metric Formula: Weight (kg) ÷ Height2 (m) Weight conversion: weight in pounds ÷ 2.2 = weight in kg Height conversion: (height in inches x 2.54) ÷ 100 = height in meters Example: BMI for a 5’ 8”, 196-pound individual (5’ x 12) + 8 = 68” 196 ÷ 2.2 = 89 kg (68” x 2.54) ÷ 100 = 1.73 m 89 kg ÷ (1.73 m x 1.73 m) = 30 (rounded up)

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7
Q

PREDICTED 1 REPETITION MAX (1RM)

A

weight lifted ÷ 0.75 of a weight that can be lifted 10 reps Pounds lifted ÷ % 1RM = Predicted 1RM Example: Individual can perform maximum of 10 repetitions (10RM) with 150 pounds. What is his predicted 1RM? 10RM ÷ 0.75 = 1RM 150 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 200 pounds

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8
Q

Karvonen Formula - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)

A

Step 1: 220 – Age = Predicted MHR Step 2: Predicted MHR – Resting Heart Rate = HRR Step 3: (HRR x % intensity) + RHR = THR Example: 34-year-old, resting heart rate = 62 bpm, 75% of HRR • 220 – 34 = 186 bpm • 186 – 62 = 124 • (124 x 0.75) + 62 = 155 bpm

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9
Q

DAILY CALORIC DEFICIT NEEDED TO ACHIEVE DESIRED WEIGHT LOSS IN SET TIMEFRAME

A

1 pound body fat = 3,500 kcal

Step 1: (Desired Weight Loss (pounds) x 3,500 kcal/pounds) ÷ # Weeks = Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week)

Step 2: Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week) ÷ 7 days /week = Daily Caloric Deficit

Example: Individual wants to lose 15 pounds in 20 weeks; What daily caloric deficit is required to reach this goal?

  • (15 pounds x 3,500 kcal/pounds) ÷ 20 weeks = 2,625 kcal / week
  • 2,625 kcal/week ÷7 days/week = 375 kcal/day
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10
Q

Shoulder mobility assessment and stretches

A

Apley’s Scratch Test for Shoulder Mobility: To assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder girdle (primarily the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints).

Shoulder Push Stabilization Screen: To examine stabilization of the scapulothoracic joint during closed-kinetic-chain pushing movements

https://www.acefitness.org/certifiednewsarticle/2660/a-commonsense-approach-to-addressing-shoulder/

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GL6kBBMtWkY

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11
Q

static postural assessment

A

Lordosis

Kyphosis

Flat back

Sway back

Scoliosis

Muscular balance

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cxOQR-yccsQ&list=PLxdf3t0LRHQu8-47F6pcv2FIx9WlrHIEf&index=6

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12
Q

Figure 4 test/ Patrick Test

A

Objective: To test hip range of motion

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=89Qiht82zmg

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13
Q

Planes of motion

A

Sagittal

Flexion: Decreasing the angle between two bones

Extension: Increasing the angle between two bones

Dorsiflexion:Moving the top of the foot toward the shin (only at the ankle)

Plantarflexion: moving the sole of the foot downward (pointing the toes)

Frontal

Adduction: Motion toward the midline

Abduction: Motion away from the midline of the body

Elevation: Moving to a superior position (only at the scapula)

Depression: Moving to an inferior position (only at the scapula)

Inversion: Lifting the medial border of the foot

Eversion: Lifting the lateral border of the foot

Transverse

Rotation- Internal (inward) or external (outward) turning about the vertical axis of the bone

Pronation- Rotating the hand and wrist medially from the bone

Supination-Rotating the hand and wrist laterally from the bone

Horizontal Flexion (adduction)- From the 90-degree abducted arm position, the humerus is flexed (adducted) in toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane

Horizontal Extension (abduction)- Return of the humerus from horizontal flexion

Let’s Examine Each Plane in a Bit More Detail

Dividing the body into left and right halves using an imaginary line gives us the sagittal plane. Any forward and backward movement parallel to this line occurs in the sagittal plane.

With the same imaginary line, divide the body into front and back halves and you have the frontal plane. Any lateral (side) movement parallel to the line will occur in the frontal plane.

Last, but certainly not least, we have the transverse plane, which divides the body into superior and inferior halves. Movement parallel to the waistline, otherwise known as rotational movement, occurs in the transverse plane.

For a clearer understanding, we can view the planes as they relate to exercises performed in a workout session. Below are a few exercises performed in each plane.

Sagittal plane:bicep curl and forward or reverse lunges

Frontalplane: dumbbell lateral (side) raise

Transverse:horizontal wood chop

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2863/the-planes-of-motion-explained

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14
Q

Joint mobility and stability

A
  • The lumbar spine favors stability, remember how we talk to people about ‘move as a log’ and ‘don’t bend in your low back’ etc.
  • The hip favors mobility since there are a lot of attachments and actions happening at that joint, it needs to move freely
  • The thoracic spine favors mobility, considering the shoulder attachments, clavicle, ribs, etc. attaching into this area, and think about all the movement that comes from our upper back/shoulder/chest area. It’s also a significant component in developing and maintaining good posture.
  • The scapulothoracic joint favors stability, and it is where the scapulae attach to the thorax (which is the region of the body formed by the sternum, thoracic vertebrae, and ribs). It isn’t a typical synovial joint but more of an articulation. However, the ability of the scapulae to maintain proper proximity against the rib cage is vital for the movement and mobility of the glenohumeral joint.
  • The glenohumeral joint favors mobility. This joint is the connection between your shoulder and your arm. It is a highly mobile joint and has a considerable range of motion (ROM).

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/1189/joint-mobility-and-stability

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15
Q

Types of stretches

A

Active Isolated Stretching (AIS)

This stretch technique is held for only two seconds at a time. It is performed repeatedly for several repetitions, each time exceeding the previous point of resistance by a few degrees. Much like a strength-training regimen, AIS is performed for several sets with a specific number of repetitions.

Myofascial Release

Through the use of a foam roller or similar device, myofascial release relieves tension and improves flexibility in the fascia (a densely woven specialized system of connective tissue that covers and unites all of the body’s compartments), and underlying muscle. Small, continuous back-and-forth movements are performed over an area of 2 to 6 inches for 30 to 60 seconds. The individual’s pain tolerance will determine the amount of pressure applied to the target area.

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)

This type of stretching capitalizes on the use of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition, and includes three types of techniques:

Hold-relax

Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.

Hold and resist force applied by the fitness professional, causing an isometric contraction in the target muscle group, for six seconds.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase range of motion (ROM).

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.

Contract-relax

Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.

The fitness professional applies resistance, counteracting the client’s force of concentric contraction of the target muscle group, without completely restricting the joint through its ROM.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.

Hold-relax with agonist contraction

This technique is similar to the Hold-relax technique, but differs for the final stretch.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch. Concentrically contract the opposing muscle group of the target muscle group that is being stretched; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to reciprocal and autogenic inhibition.

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching

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16
Q

Common Postural deviations

A
  • Lordosis: An increased anterior lumbar curve with an associated tilting of the pelvis. This typically leads to tension on the spine, which could result in low-back pain.
  • Kyphosis: An increased posterior thoracic curve with associated rounded shoulders, depressed chest, and forward-head posture with neck hyperextension.
  • Flat Back: A decreased anterior lumbar curve or a reduced normal inward curve of the lower back with the pelvis tilted posteriorly and head exhibiting a forward position.
  • Sway Back: A decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve. Sway back is often seen with rounded shoulders, a depressed chest and a forward-tilted head. The femur and head are farther forward than what is seen in a kyphosis deviation.
  • Scoliosis: An excessive lateral spinal curvature often accompanied by vertebral rotation. While scoliosis is a congenital or non-correctable condition, exercises can be implemented to help manage the deviation.

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2909/identifying-and-working-with-common-postural-deviations

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17
Q
  1. A blood pressure of 142/92 is considered Moderate Normal Low High Question 1 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
A

high

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18
Q
  1. This sign or symptom is synonymous with ischemia. pain sensations or cramping in lower extremities dizziness pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw difficulty breathing with usual activities Question 2 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
A

pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw

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19
Q
  1. Why is it necessary for the personal trainer to have a client fill out a risk stratification before beginning exercise? To figure out the best way to approach goal setting To determine if a client is cleared by a doctor to exercise To discover possible movement impairments To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system Question 3 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
A

To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following would be the most accurate way to measure a clients blood pressure?
A

Sitting with feet flat on the floor using right or left arm

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is a positive risk factor? LDL cholesterol at 120 mg/dl Blood pressure 120/85 HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl Exercises 3 times per week
A

HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl

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22
Q
  1. All of the following do not need a doctors clearance except which? Postural imbalances Father died of a heart attack at 75 years old Heart murmur High HDL Cholesterol
A

Heart murmur

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23
Q
  1. Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. What is her risk classification and risk factor count according to ACSM guidelines?
A

High risk, 1 factor

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24
Q
  1. Veronica is 62-year-old woman who has come to you for help. Last year she had a knee replacement surgery and has not been exercising at all since her physical therapy ended 6 months ago. She has been smoking cigarettes for the past 45 years. Her father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 54 and her mother died of the same thing when she was 66. Veronica has a BMI of 23. Systolic BP = 138 mmHg, Diastolic BP = 88 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 130 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol = 59. According to ACSM guidelines how many risk factors does Veronica have and what is her risk classification? 5 factors, moderate risk 7 factors, high risk 7 factors, moderate risk 5 factors, high risk
A

5 factors, moderate risk

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25
Q
  1. A blood pressure of 142/92 is considered Moderate Normal Low High 2. This sign or symptom is synonymous with ischemia. pain sensations or cramping in lower extremities dizziness pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw difficulty breathing with usual activities 3. Why is it necessary for the personal trainer to have a client fill out a risk stratification before beginning exercise? To figure out the best way to approach goal setting To determine if a client is cleared by a doctor to exercise To discover possible movement impairments To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system 4. Which of the following would be the most accurate way to measure a clients blood pressure? Sitting crossed legged using the right arm only Sitting or standing with arm slightly flexed with both feet flat on the floor Standing using right or left arm Sitting with feet flat on the floor using right or left arm 5. Which of the following is a positive risk factor? LDL cholesterol at 120 mg/dl Blood pressure 120/85 HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl Exercises 3 times per week 6. All of the following do not need a doctors clearance except which? Postural imbalances Father died of a heart attack at 75 years old Heart murmur High HDL Cholesterol 7. Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. What is her risk classification and risk factor count according to ACSM guidelines? High risk, 2 factors High risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 2 factors 8. Veronica is 62-year-old woman who has come to you for help. Last year she had a knee replacement surgery and has not been exercising at all since her physical therapy ended 6 months ago. She has been smoking cigarettes for the past 45 years. Her father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 54 and her mother died of the same thing when she was 66. Veronica has a BMI of 23. Systolic BP = 138 mmHg, Diastolic BP = 88 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 130 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol = 59. According to ACSM guidelines how many risk factors does Veronica have and what is her risk classification? 5 factors, moderate risk 7 factors, high risk 7 factors, moderate risk 5 factors, high risk 9. Continually exercising with poor form can cause repetitive stress and lead to muscle balance improved performance muscle hypertrophy overuse injuries 10. This questionnaire is limited by its lack of detail and may overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries. Medical Release Form Health-History questionnaire Release of liability waiver PAR-Q 11. A 44 year old man name Roger comes to you wanting to exercise. After a thorough health-risk appraisal you learn than his father had diabetes and smoked cigarettes, he quit smoking last year, he alternates between exercising on the stationary bike and treadmill 3 days per week for 30-45 per session during his lunch break at work. He has a BMI of 31, Systolic BP 142 mmHg, Diastolic BP 88 mmHg, and a total serum cholesterol of 187 mg/dl. What risk classification is Roger and how many risk factors does he have if any according to ACSM guidelines?
A

Moderate risk, 2 factors

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26
Q
  1. Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. Would she need to have a medical exam before engaging in moderate exercise? not enough information no depends on her cardiovascular assessment Yes
A

yes

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27
Q
  1. Which is most common location for detecting a pulse? radial artery popliteal artery brachial arterial femoral artery
A

radial artery

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following medications produces a lower heart rate at rest and while exercising? Beta Blockers Diuretics Antidepressants Antihistamines
A

Beta Blockers

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29
Q
  1. All of the following are positive risk factors except Fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dl HDL of 38mg/dl Systolic BP of 142 BMI of 31
A

Fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dl

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30
Q
  1. Cardiovascular disease characterized by hardening of arteries as well as thickening of arterial walls and loss of elasticity. arthritis atherosclerosis chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) diabetes
A

atherosclerosis

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31
Q
  1. The trainer and client have been working out for the past two weeks when the trainer becomes aware that the client has had multiple back injuries in the past. The client wants to continue to exercise as their back is not hurting that day. What is the best course of action for the trainer to take? Stop the session and have the client receive medical clearance from their doctor before scheduling another training session Warm up the low back area to prevent damage Massage the area of pain Modify the program to address weak core muscles
A

Stop the session and have the client receive medical clearance from their doctor before scheduling another training session

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32
Q

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factor Thresholds for use with ACSM Risk Stratification

A

p.120, 121, 128

  • +1; Age: Men>=45; Women >=55 +1;
  • Family history: myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, father sudden death <55 yo, mother sudden death < 65 yo +1;
  • Cig smoker/ quit last 6 months/ exposure to secondhand smoke +1:
  • Sedentary life style: not participating in at least 30 mins moderate activity (40-60% VO2R) at least 3 days a week last 3 months +1:
  • Obesity: BMI >=30 or men waist >102cm (40 inches)/ women waist >88cm (35 inches) +1
  • Hypertension: SBP >=140 mmHg/ DBP >=90 mmHg/ on antihypertensive medications +1
  • Dyslipidemia: LDL >= 130 mg/dL or HDL <40 mg/dL or on lapid-lowering medication. or Secrum cholesterol >= 200 mg/dL +1
  • Prediabetes: Fasting plasma glucose >= 100 mg/dL but <= 125 mg/dL

============

  • HDL cholesterol >=60 mg/dL -1
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33
Q

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factor Thresholds for use with ACSM Risk Stratification Low Risk Moderate Risk High Risk

A

Low Risk: < 2 risk factors Moderate Risk: >= 2 risk factors High Risk: symptomatic, or known cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, or metabolic disease

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34
Q

Effects of medication on HR response

A

p.133

not so important

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35
Q

Triglyceride Numbers based on fasting blood test. high triglycerides levels with heart disease, heart attacks, and stroke, especially in people with low levels of “good” HDL cholesterol and in those with type 2 diabetes.

A

Triglyceride Numbers Here are the levels, based on a fasting blood test. Normal: Less than 150 mg/dL Borderline: 150 to 199 mg/dL High: 200 to 499 mg/dL Very High: 500 mg/dL or above

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36
Q

ACE activity pack - Movement

A

p.15 https://www.acefitness.org/academy/AcademyElitePDFs/ESS-AES_Download_Final.pdf

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37
Q

When performing a seated row exercise, you notice the client’s shoulders rising up toward his ears during each repetition. What is MOST likely causing this movement error?

A

Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius Why? When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162 ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 34-35

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38
Q

Your new client, Sarah, is a strong believer in the practice of vitamin supplementation. After reviewing her three-day food diary, which includes her supplement schedule, you determine that Sarah is taking megadoses of vitamins B6, B12, and niacin. Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate when addressing Sarah regarding her supplementation practice?

A

“Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician.” Why? Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program and steps should be taken to avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of some vitamins and minerals can lead to toxicity. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162–163

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39
Q

During the initial interview, a new client claims, “I want to lose 15 lb. (6.8 kg) in the next month for my high school reunion.” Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate?

A

Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them. Why? Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the client–trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-54

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40
Q

A client wants to quickly lose the 20 pounds (9.1 kg) he has gained during the past 10 years. Which of the following timeframes would be MOST appropriate for him to safely achieve his weight-loss goal?

A

3 to 5 months Why? According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week timeframe for the client to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only answer that falls within this timeframe.

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41
Q

Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you. Recently, Larry’s work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change would Larry CURRENTLY be categorized?

A

Contemplation Why? Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

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42
Q

Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of acceleration and speed?

A

40-yard dash Why? The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256

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43
Q

What is a diabetic client MOST likely to experience if he or she takes too much insulin prior to an exercise session?

A

Hypoglycemia Why? Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise) that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia.

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44
Q

When performing initial cardiorespiratory fitness assessments with a client who is taking a beta blocker, which of the following medication-related effects SHOULD be expected?

A

Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate Why? Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause both a decreased exercise heart rate and a decreased resting heart rate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

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45
Q

Postural screening performed with a new client reveals that he has a posterior pelvic tilt and a decreased anterior curvature of the lower back. Based on this information, which muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in this client’s flexibility program?

A

Rectus abdominis and hamstrings Why? These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis, while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 158-160

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46
Q

Cindy’s first attempt at the incline bench press exercise appears shaky and uncoordinated. After the set, Cindy comments that she had a hard time feeling her chest muscles working and that it was challenging to move her arms in a controlled manner. Which stage of learning BEST correlates with Cindy’s performance?

A

Cognitive Why? This response is correct, as within the cognitive stage of learning clients make many errors and have highly variable performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform exercises incorrectly.

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47
Q

What is the PRIMARY goal of a resistance-training program consisting of three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions for all major muscle groups?

A

Muscular endurance Why? Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of two to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are implemented to promote muscular endurance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 338

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48
Q

You have just completed McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery with a client. Which of the following results from this battery of assessments should be of PRIMARY focus when designing this client’s exercise program, as it is indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain?

A

Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds) Why? This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of 1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could lead to back pain. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 187-192

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49
Q

As you are assessing a new client’s static posture from the posterior view, you observe that the medial borders and inferior angle of his scapulae protrude away from the posterior surface of his back. This postural deviation is commonly referred to as “scapular winging.” Which of the following muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in his resistance-training program, as it is most likely weak and contributing to this postural deviation?

A

Serratus anterior Why? Weakness in the serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as scapular “winging” and results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the clients strengthen the serratus anterior, as well as the rhomboids, which are also often weak with scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to “pack” their scapulae by retracting and depressing the scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162

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50
Q

On her health screening form, Carrie indicates that she has been diagnosed with “tennis elbow.” Which of the following anatomical structures is MOST affected by this condition?

A

The lateral epicondyle of the humerus Why? “Tennis elbow” is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 581-582

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51
Q

At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle is MOST commonly involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve?

A

Piriformis Why? Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45

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52
Q

What is sciatica?

A

Sciatica refers to back pain caused by a problem with the sciatic nerve. This is a large nerve that runs from the lower back down the back of each leg. When something injures or puts pressure on the sciatic nerve, it can cause pain in the lower back that spreads to the hip, buttocks, and leg. https://www.webmd.com/back-pain/ss/slideshow-visual-guide-to-sciatica

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53
Q

A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for her initial program?

A

Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions Why? This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376

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54
Q

During a bend and lift screen (anterior view), you notice a client’s knees moving inward. Based on this assessment, which muscles are MOST likely weak?

A

Gluteus medius and maximus Why? This answer is correct given that the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are primary abductors of the hip and as such they can prevent hip adduction. When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip adduction during squatting motions. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169

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55
Q

Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and protracted shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. What are this client’s postural deviations?

A

Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms Why? Kyphosis posture is characterized by increased flexion of the thoracic spine with protracted shoulders and often a forward-tilted head. Additionally, the backs of this client’s hands are facing forward, indicating that he has internally—or medially—rotated humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160

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56
Q

How to conduct postural screening?

A

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160 1. Lordosis 2. Kyphosis 3. Flat back 4. Sway back 5. Scoliosis

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58
Q

Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and forward, rounded shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. Which of the following sets of muscles and muscle groups should be the PRIMARY focus of a flexibility program designed to address this client’s postural deviations?

A

Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior Why? This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 162

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59
Q

A new client tells you that he has been jogging 3–4 days per week for the past six weeks following a program from a popular health magazine. He has worked his way up to jogging 30 continuous minutes at an intensity of 70% of his predicted maximal HR, which he calculated by subtracting his age from 220. As you design a new program for him, what method for monitoring cardiorespiratory exercise intensity should be used to provide the MOST individualized training program?

A

Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This response is correct because it involves programming at an actual metabolic marker that is unique to this client. By using the submaximal talk test to determine his heart rate at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the trainer is finding out the HR where this individual moves from moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. Nothing is predicted, as HR at VT1 is measured through a reliable field test. Once a personal trainer measures a client’s HR at VT1, the trainer can utilize this information to design effect aerobic-efficiency-phase training for clients using zones 1 and 2 according to the ACE IFTTM Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-224 & 420-421

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60
Q

A new client wants to lose weight and body fat, and agrees to have his body composition assessed during the initial session. He currently weighs 220 lb (100 kg) with 25% body fat (BF%). He wants to decrease his body-fat level to 15%. If he maintains his current lean body weight (LBW), what will his new weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat?

A

194 lb Why? This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations: DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%) Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body % 100% - 25% = 75% Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW 220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean % 100% - 15% = 85% Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW 165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 206

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61
Q

A client you are working with weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and has a primary focus on increasing muscular strength and hypertrophy through resistance training 5–6 days per week. He is unsure of how much protein he should be consuming to maximize results and asks you for help. According to the protein guidelines for strength-trained athletes from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, what range for daily protein intake would be MOST appropriate for this client?

A

146 to 155 grams Why? A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91 kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179

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62
Q

Which of the following flexibility assessment results would indicate TIGHTNESS in the infraspinatus and teres minor?

A

Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation Why? This response is correct, as limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators, which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 184

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63
Q

Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following nutrition information about Ryan’s favorite mini pizza: Calories: 940 Calories from fat: 378 Total fat: 42 g Saturated fat: 18 g Trans fat: 2 g Cholesterol: 175 mg Sodium: 2,145 mg Carbohydrate: 108 g Fiber: 8 g Sugars: 17 g Protein: 33 g Which of the following nutrients contributes the GREATEST amount of calories to the total calories found in this food item?

A

Carbohydrates Why? To solve this problem, you must know the caloric values for 1 gram of each type of nutrient: 1 g protein = 4 kcal; 1 g carbohydrate = 4 kcal; 1 g fat = 9 kcal. Next, determine the number of calories each nutrient contributes to the total caloric content of the food by multiplying the number of grams of each nutrient by its associated caloric value: Fat: 42 g x 9 kcal/g = 378 kcal Protein: 33 g x 4 kcal/g = 132 kcal Carbohydrates: 108 g x 4 kcal/g = 432 kcal These calculations show that carbohydrates contribute the most calories of all the nutrients in this food item. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 172-173

64
Q

A new client requests to train only at local beaches, parks, and trails. What is the FIRST precaution to take when training clients outdoors in public places?

A

The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest for training have been identified as “legal.”

Why?

This response is correct, as it is the responsibility of the fitness professional to be familiar with local laws, as in some jurisdictions it is illegal to train clients on public beaches, parks, and/or trails.

Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

65
Q

Randy is a client you have been working with for several months. During that time, he has reached a level of conditioning that allows him to perform 40 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise at an intensity of 75% MHR. During his annual check-up earlier this week, Randy’s physician prescribed beta-blocker medication to help control mild hypertension, and gave him a written release to continue exercise as tolerated. Based on this information, how should Randy monitor his exercise intensity now that he is taking this new medication?

A

Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)

Why?

This response is correct as RPE is the recommended method for monitoring exercise intensity in individuals taking beta blockers, Due to the fact that it is based on perceived exertion, it is not negatively impacted by medications such as beta blockers. RPE has been validated against a variety of physiological intensity measures, including heart rate, % VO2R, and metabolic markers, and has been found to be a valid tool for monitoring intensity.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

66
Q

You are checking equipment in preparation for your next client to arrive for her training session and notice that an exercise bike is not functioning properly and may pose a danger to your client and other gym members. What is the BEST plan of action to take concerning this piece of equipment?

A

Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor

Why?

This response is correct and is the best course of action to take because it eliminates any possible dangers.

Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 658-659

67
Q

Preston is a weightlifter who exercises multiple times per week at the facility where you work. You notice that in his regular standing position, he exhibits a posture in which his shoulders are rounded forward and the backs of his hands face forward when he is standing in a relaxed manner. What is the MOST likely cause of this postural deviation?

A

Why?

This response is correct, as a standing posture with shoulders that are rounded forward and hands that face backward instead of toward each other is indicative of shortened pectorals and latissimus dorsi, as well as overstretched and potentially weakened scapular retractors and shoulder external rotators that passively allow the shoulders to fall forward into internal rotation.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 151 & 162

68
Q

Your client has lost 10 pounds of body fat in 60 days. What was the daily average caloric deficit required for this client to lose weight at this rate?

A

583 kcal per day

Why?

This answer is correct, as a caloric deficit of 583 kcal per day would result in a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal (583 kcal x 60 days = 35,000 kcal), which equates to a weight loss of 10 pounds (35,000 kcal / 3,500 kcal/lb = 10 lb), given that one pound of body fat holds 3,500 kcal of energy.

10 lb x 3,500 kcal per lb = a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal

35,000 kcal / 60 days = a daily caloric deficit of 583 kcal

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174.

69
Q

When designing an INITIAL exercise program for a client who has postural instability and hip mobility issues, which exercise should be included because it improves core stability and hip mobility and stability?

A

Glute bridge

Why?

This response is correct as the glute bridge is an exercise in which the client first engages his or her core to stabilize the lumbar spine, and then activates the gluteal muscles to extend the hips and lift the torso until it is in line with the thighs, holding for one or two seconds at the end range of motion before lowering and repeating the movement. This exercise improves core stability through the engagement of core musculature to stabilize the spine, and it improves hip mobility and stability during the “bridging” movement caused by the gluteal muscles contracting to extend the hips and lift the torso.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 286

70
Q

Once a client is proficient at performing jumps in place and single linear jumps, which of the following plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate intensity progression?

A

Multiple linear jumps

Why?

This response is correct, as intensity of plyometric drills increases according to the following progression: jumping in place — single linear jumps — multiple linear jumps — multidirectional jumps — hops and bounds —depth jumps.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 362

71
Q

Client: 47-year-old male

Physician clearance: Yes

Medical/health concerns: Smokes 25+ cigarettes per day

Blood pressure: 136/87 mmHg

Family history: Father had a heart attack at age 63

Past activity level: Wrestled and threw shot put in high school

Current activity level: Walks dog at a leisurely pace, 20 minutes a day

Main fitness goals: To improve strength and stamina and feel more fit

Given the information above, what is the client’s “total score” for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?

A

+3

Why?

This response is correct, as this client has 3 positive risk factors according to the ACSM risk factor thresholds. His positive risk factors are his age (47 years old), being a current smoker, and being sedentary.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 120-121

72
Q

Which of the following assessments would be MOST appropriate for gathering baseline data to help improve the cardiorespiratory exercise program design for a new client who currently runs recreationally for 20 to 35 minutes, three to four days per week?

A

Submaximal talk test for VT1

Why?

This is the correct response, as the objective of the test is to measure the HR response at VT1 for an individual client by progressively increasing exercise intensity and achieving steady state at each state, as well as to identify the HR where the ability to talk continuously becomes comprised in order to determine his/her unique metabolic marker. Since this client is a recreational runner, his/her cardiorespiratory training program should be focused on exercise intensities that are below and above VT1. Once this client’s HR at VT1 is determined, it can be used to design workouts that incorporate steady state training below VT1, with intervals performed above VT1.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-226

73
Q

According to the glycemic index (GI), which of the following foods is considered a low-GI food?

A

All Bran® cereal

Why?

This answer is correct, as All Bran® is a low-GI food (GI <55).

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness professionals, page 179

74
Q

Which of the following is a SMART goal?

A

“I will lose 10 pounds for my brother’s wedding in 3 months by running 3 days per week for 30–45 minutes and doing circuit training 2 days per week for 60 minutes.”

Why?

This is the correct response. This goal is specific (10-lb weight loss through running and circuit training, each with specific details), measurable (weight), attainable (10 lb in three months is less than 1 lb per week), relevant (it is for her brother’s wedding), and time-bound (three months).

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-51

75
Q

You begin working with a new client who prefers to train outdoors. She wants to begin running, so you locate a local trail where you are legally able to train with her. What is the BEST precaution to take when venturing out on this new trail with her for the first time?

A

Encourage the client to walk the trail the first time to learn the terrain and begin building fitness for running

Why?

This is the best response as the client is looking to begin a running program, so walking would provide an entry point that could be transitioned into a running program. Also, walking the course together on the first outing will allow you and the client to learn the trail.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

76
Q

Progressing to a three-zone cardiorespiratory training program with intensities performed below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at VT2 and above would be warranted for which of the following clients?

A

53-year-old female runner who runs 4–6 days per week and wants to qualify for the Boston Marathon

Why?

This response is correct, as the client has competitive goals that require a high level of cardiorespiratory training and performance. As such, this client would benefit from a three-zone training plan, as is featured in the anaerobic-endurance phase (phase 3) of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT® Model.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 422 & 428-432

77
Q

What are the three sites to measure when conducting a body-composition assessment using the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold equation for women?

A

Triceps, thigh, suprailium

Why?

This response is correct, as the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold measurement sites for women are the triceps, thigh, and suprailium.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 201

78
Q

A 58-year-old client you have been working with for several months tells you that she just completed a bone mineral density (BMD) scan and was diagnosed with osteopenia. Her physician has given her a medical release to exercise as tolerated to improve bone density and general fitness. Her exercise program currently consists of swimming (30 minutes; 3 days per week), walking (30 minutes; 2 days per week), and resistance training (2 sets of 12–15 repetitions performed 2 days per week for all major muscle groups). Which program modification would be MOST important to implement at this time?

A

Modify resistance training to include two sets of each exercise with a weight that fatigues the muscles in approximately eight repetitions

Why?

This response is correct, as resistance training can create stress on the bone that will cause bone density to be preserved and possibly enhanced. To facilitate optimal bone changes, a higher load is recommended that will fatigue the muscles in approximately eight repetitions. This will stimulate the greatest response in terms of bone density changes.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 537-539

79
Q

A client has progressed from performing eight squat repetitions with 300 pounds to performing 12 repetitions with that same weight. Using a double-progressive training protocol, what would be the MOSTappropriate weight to progress him to during his next workout where he performs weighted squats?

A

315 lb

Why?

This response is correct because 315 lb is a 5% increase from 300 lb. The double-progressive protocol has two steps for increasing total load during resistance training. First, the client increases repetitions until he or she can perform the maximum number of repetitions in the range (e.g., 12 repetitions is the maximum number in the eight-to-12 range). Once the client reaches the high end of the repetition range, the resistance is increased by 5% and the client performs as many repetitions as possible with the new load. Once the client performs the high end of the repetition range with this new resistance, the resistance is progressed another 5%.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 341

80
Q

A client has achieved his initial goal of running a 10K (6.2 miles) in 50 minutes but would like to improve his time. His program consists of 30–50 minute runs, three to four times per week. What modification would be MOST effective in helping this client achieve his new goal?

A

Incorporate a running interval-training program

Why?

This is the best response, as interval training is effective in increasing speed, lactate threshold, and overall aerobic power. This type of training should be reserved for clients in the higher cardiorespiratory fitness classifications and should be limited to a frequency of approximately two workouts per week.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 395

81
Q

Which of the following exercises would be MOST appropriate to include in a client’s initial exercise program if he has postural issues due to a lack of range of motion (ROM) in hip extension?

A

Half-kneeling triplanar stretch

Why?

A lack of ROM in hip extension is generally due to tight hip flexors. The half-kneeling triplanar stretch of the hip flexors improves mobility in all three planes without compromising lumbar stability.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 284-285

82
Q

Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated?

A

Muscle spindles

Why?

This response is correct, as the stretch reflex is associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. When a muscle is stretched quickly, the muscle spindles in the stretched muscle are activated and initiate a reflex arc that causes the stretched muscle to produce a sudden contraction.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 24–25

83
Q

Why should personal trainers obtain a physician’s medical release prior to training a high-risk client?

A

It allows the physician to provide guidelines for the exercise program.

Why?

This response is correct, as the purpose of a physician’s medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with guidelines for safe exercise participation based on the client’s medical information and to explain any physical-activity limitations the client has due to diseases, disorders, ailments, or injuries. The physician’s medical release should provide any specific exercise guidelines and contraindications for that client related to physical-activity participation. Deviations from these guidelines must be approved by the physician.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 123 & 127

84
Q

During a reassessment of the hurdle step screen, you notice the client exhibiting anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. Based on this information, his program should include exercises to STRENGTHEN which of the following groups of muscles?

A

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

Why?

This response is correct, as an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean during the hurdle step screen is indicative of weakness in the rectus abdominis and the hip extensors (gluteus maximus and hamstrings).

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 172

85
Q

What is bend and lift screen?

A

If knees bend inward: Hip adductors, tensor fascia latae are tight. Glut under active.

If heels off ground: plantarflexors (calfs) too tight

If initiation of movement is from knee: may indicate quadriceps and hip flexors dominance, as well as insufficient activation of the gluteus group.

P.168 of ACE PT manual 5th eidition

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ID1KMP2AKfc&list=PLzUUecpjrONhAhy46yQcFydOYGoKPtQhp

86
Q

What is hurdle step test?

A

Compensations:

If knees move inward/ hip adducts: tight hip adductors, tensor fascia latae; lengthened (weak) gluts medius and maximus

forward lean, rotation, lateral tilt: lack of core stability

p. 172 of ACE PT manual 5th edition
https: //www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3771/posture-and-movement-assessments

87
Q

What is thomas Test?

A

Test if hip flexor, iliopsoas and rectus fermoris are tight.

If lowered thigh not touch table and knee does not flex to 80 degress: primary hip flexor muslces are tight

If lowered thigh not touch table, knee does flex to 80 degress: iliopsoas is tight

If lowered thigh touches table, knee does not flex to 80 degrees: rectus fermoris is tight

ACE PT manual 5th edition p.179

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ieu-t3vwbqI

88
Q

Reducing exercise intensity is recommended in which of the following situations?

A

Following a 2-week period of complete rest

Why?

This response is correct, as extended periods of inactivity can lead to a loss of fitness and muscle atrophy.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 85-89 & page 234 – 235

89
Q

What is DASH eating plan?

A

DASH is a flexible and balanced eating plan that helps create a heart-healthy eating style for life.

The DASH eating plan requires no special foods and instead provides daily and weekly nutritional goals. This plan recommends:

Eating vegetables, fruits, and whole grains

Including fat-free or low-fat dairy products, fish, poultry, beans, nuts, and vegetable oils

Limiting foods that are high in saturated fat, such as fatty meats, full-fat dairy products, and tropical oils such as coconut, palm kernel, and palm oils

Limiting sugar-sweetened beverages and sweets.

https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health-topics/dash-eating-plan

90
Q

You have asked a new client to maintain a three-day food diary, which reveals the following average daily intake:

Breakfast: Plain yogurt (1 cup) with fresh fruits (1/2 cup), 2 slices whole-wheat toast with butter, coffee (12 oz), and orange juice (6 oz)

Lunch: Salad with lettuce, tomato, cucumber, carrots, and olive oil dressing; a provolone cheese and avocado sandwich with lettuce, tomato, and mustard; and iced tea (16 oz)

Snack: Carrots and celery

Dinner: Spaghetti with tomato, eggplant, and basil; French bread; and one glass of red wine

According to the DASH Eating Plan, what food groups are lacking in this client’s diet?

A

Meats, poultry, and fish, and nuts, seeds, and dry beans

Why?

This response is correct, as there are no servings from the meats, poultry, and fish group, or the nuts, seeds, and dry beans group listed in this food diary.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 187

91
Q

A client comes to you after a physician’s appointment where she was diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which exercise should be considered CONTRAINDICATED when designing a program for this client?

A

The Correct Answer is:

Push-ups

Why?

This exercise is contraindicated for clients who have carpal tunnel syndrome, as push-ups put the wrists into a position of full extension, which can compress the carpal tunnels.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 582-583

92
Q

Bone loss that results from long periods of inactivity is BEST explained by which of the following laws?

A

Wolff’s law

Why?

Wolff’s law states that bones respond to the stresses placed upon them. When the skeleton is subjected to stressful forces, such as those that occur with physical activity or exercise, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, which results in greater bone density. Wolff’s law also applies to long periods of inactivity. In these situations, there is a lack of stressful forces placed on the skeleton, so the bones no longer need to be prepared to withstand the impact and muscle forces of physical activity and respond by losing bone mineral content and becoming less dense.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 13

93
Q

Which of the following suggestions meets American Dietetic Association (ADA) guidelines regarding nutrition for people performing extended bouts of cardiorespiratory exercise?

A

Try to consume 30 to 60 grams of easily digestible carbohydrates every hour during training sessions lasting more than 60 minutes.

Why?

This response is correct for carbohydrate consumption during each hour of extended cardiorespiratory training bouts to maintain blood glucose levels. It is also the recommendation for exercise in extreme environmental conditions like heat, cold, or high altitude, or when a client did not consume adequate amounts of food or drink prior to the training session.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 177

94
Q

Your client is struggling to lose the last 10 pounds (4.5 kg) to reach her goal weight. She is thinking about taking a popular supplement that she has seen on television. What is the BEST response for a personal trainer to provide to this client?

A

“I can help you research potential negative side effects from the supplement, but for more specific information you should talk with a registered dietitian. “

Why?

This is the most appropriate response, because it involves the personal trainer helping to educate the client by researching any negative side effects from the supplement and it recommends that the client talk with a registered dietitian if she wants more specific information.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 181

95
Q

What type of insurance would protect a facility in the event it was sued by a member who tripped over an elliptical machine and strained his lower back?

A

General liability

Why?

This response is correct. General liability insurance covers facility-related personal injuries, such as slips, trips, and falls.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 664

96
Q

What is the PRIMARY goal of adding the hip-hinge exercise to a client’s program when progressing her from a program focused on postural stability to one focused on training movement patterns?

A

Emphasizing “glute dominance” over “quad dominance”

Why?

This response is correct, as the objective of the hip-hinge exercise is to emphasize “glute dominance” over “quad dominance” during the first 10 to 15 degrees of movement at the start of the squatting motion. This exercise is recommended for clients who initiate the first 10 to 15 degrees of the squatting movement by flexing the knees and driving the tibias forward prior to flexing at the hips.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 307-308

98
Q

Which exercise is CONTRAINDICATED for a client with a history of shoulder impingement syndrome?

A

Overhead barbell press in the frontal plane

Why?

This response is correct, as individuals with shoulder injuries, or undergoing post-rehabilitation from shoulder injuries, should modify overhead activities. For example, the overhead press can be modified to use dumbbells with the arms moving in the scapular plane without fully extending the elbows. This takes the shoulder out of the abducted and externally rotated position seen during the overhead barbell press in the frontal plane.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 377 & 579-580

99
Q

Which of the following guidelines would be MOST effective for a resistance-training program designed to increase muscular strength?

A

Sets of 4–6 repetitions at 80–90% 1 RM with 2–5 minute rest intervals

Why?

This response is correct, as this resistance-training program is designed to have a primary focus on muscular strength, based upon the repetition range, intensity, and recovery interval length.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 338 & 352-355

100
Q

How to perform 1-RM assessment?

A

Set 1: Est. 50% 5-10 reps; 1 min rest

Set 2: Est. 70% 3-5 reps; 1 min rest

Set 3: 80-90% 2-3 reps; 2 mins rest

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2894/understanding-1-rm-and-predicted-1-rm-assessments

101
Q

What is the recommended training for specific goals based on 1-RM?

A
102
Q

Your client would like to lose 30 lb (13.6kg) over the next 20 weeks. She has decided to reduce her daily caloric intake by 450 kcal. In addition to this change, what is the MINIMUM number of kcal she would need to expend through physical activity each day to reach her goal?

A

300 kcal

Why?

To lose 1 pound of fat a caloric deficit of 3500 kcal is required.

30 lb x 3,500 kcal/lb = 105,000 kcal

105,000 kcal / 20 weeks = 5,250 kcal per week deficit

5,250 kcal/week / 7 days/week = 750 kcal deficit required per day.

750 kcal – 450 kcal = 300 kcal.

Therefor the client would need to expend 300 kcal per day through physical activity.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

103
Q

How many calcloric deficiet is required to loose one pound of fat?

A

3500 kcal

104
Q

Which of the following would be CONTRAINDICATED for a client who has low-back pain and a physician’s release to exercise as tolerated?

A

Performing full-ROM low-back exercises first thing in the morning when the body is well rested

Why?

This response is correct, as performing full-range spinal motion while under load shortly after rising is not recommended. This is due to the diurnal variation in the fluid level of the intervertebral discs that results in the discs being more hydrated in the morning after rising from bed. When the discs are more hydrated, they are less pliable. This becomes important when going through a full-range spinal motion, such as standing spinal flexion, where the anterior sides of the vertebrae come closer together and compress the anterior portion of the discs. This forces the fluid toward the posterior wall of the disc. The more the discs are hydrated, the more fluid that gets forced against the posterior wall of the disc. If the posterior wall is weak, this creates an increased risk for bulges in the wall of the disc.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 548-551

105
Q

A new client you are working with has medical clearance to exercise and is currently taking diuretic medication for hypertension. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate?

A

Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise

Why?

This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. This decreases blood volume and can predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid intake before, during, and after exercise is important.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 133 & 518-520

106
Q

An 18-year-old client is starting an exercise program to increase strength for the upcoming high school football season. He currently weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and wants to know if the protein bar he consumes twice daily is sufficient for his protein intake. Based on the following information, what is your BEST response?

A

Explain that 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein is recommended per kilogram of body weight for strength-trained athletes, and that it is best if this protein comes from a healthful diet

Why?

This response is correct because it meets the protein guidelines of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, which state that strength-trained athletes can consume up to 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein per kilogram of body weight each day. It also directs the client to try to get his protein sources from a healthful diet, which meets the USDA Dietary Guidelines.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179

107
Q

How much protein should strength-trained athletes consume each day?

A

1.2-1.7g protein/ kg of body weight/ day

strength-trained athletes can consume up to 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein per kilogram of body weight each day

108
Q

Which muscles would be MOST important to stretch if a client has limited range of motion (ROM) in shoulder internal rotation?

A

Teres minor and infraspinatus

Why?

Limited ROM in shoulder internal rotation is generally due to tightness in the muscles that externally rotate the shoulder, as these muscles must be lengthened to allow the shoulder to internally rotate. The teres minor and infraspinatus are two primary external rotators of the shoulder joint and would be important to stretch in a client who is limited in internal shoulder rotation.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 183-184

109
Q

A client you have been working with is now performing 30 minutes of continuous cardiorespiratory exercise at a moderate intensity below the talk test threshold three to four days per week. What modification would provide the MOST effective individualized program progression to help this client advance fitness?

A

Determine HR at VT1 using the submaximal talk test and progress exercise through interval work above VT1

Why?

This is the best response. This client is consistently performing 30 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold. This meets the criteria for aerobic-efficiency training, which involves training below VT1 with intervals above VT1. To determine this client’s HR at VT1, the trainer should conduct the submaximal talk test, and then use this information in progressing his or her cardiorespiratory program.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 399-408

110
Q

To assist a potential client’s transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage, which strategy would be MOST effective?

A

Discussing any apprehensions and allowing for questions about exercise

Why?

This is the correct response. Discussing any apprehensions a potential client has about exercise and allowing the chance for questions will help him or her gain a better understanding of the costs and benefits of adopting exercise as a lifestyle modification. By providing this individual with a better understanding of the benefits of exercise and addressing his or her apprehensions, the personal trainer can help him or her move from the contemplation stage to the preparation stage of change.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

111
Q

How many cal of enery per gram of fat, carb and proteins?

A

Fat: 9 cal/ g

Carb, Protein: 4 cal/ g

Fat and saturated fat have 9 kcal of energy per gram, while carbohydrates and proteins have 4 kcal of energy per gram.

112
Q

According to the Institute of Medicine’s (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI), what are the recommendations for percentage of calories consumed from carbohydrates, protein, and fat for active adults?

A

45–65% carbohydrates, 10–35% protein, and 20–35% fat

Why?

This is the correct response, as it matches the Institute of Medicine’s 2005 DRI for active adults to maintain optimal performance and health.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 176

113
Q

Which of the following is a closed-chain exercise?

A

Decline push-up

Why?

This response is correct. In closed-chain exercises, the distal end of the chain is fixed and the rest of the kinetic chain moves about this fixed point. Closed-chain exercises also emphasize joint compression and co-contraction of the muscles on either side of the joint to enhance stability. During a decline push-up, the hands are the distal end of the kinetic chain. They are placed on the floor and stay in contact with the floor throughout the exercise. There is joint compression at the wrists, elbows, and shoulders, with the pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, and triceps brachii acting as the prime movers at the shoulders and elbows to create and control the decline push-up movement, and the antagonists to these muscles contracting to enhance joint stability.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 114

114
Q

You are conducting a hurdle step screen with a new client. As she lifts her left foot over the hurdle, you observe that her right hip adducts more than 2 inches. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this movement?

A

Weak right gluteus medius and maximus

Why?

This response is correct, as weakness in the right gluteus medius and maximus would result in the pelvis dropping to the left when lifting the left leg. This is due to the right gluteus medius and maximus being unable to hold the pelvis level when standing on the right leg.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 171-173

115
Q

During the Thomas test, you observe that the back of the client’s thigh touches the table but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What is the MOST likely cause?

A

Tightness in the rectus femoris (one of the quads muscles)

Why?

This is the correct response. When the rectus femoris is tight, it will prevent the knee from flexing. In situations where the hip flexors have adequate length, this will result in a Thomas test where the client can touch the back of his or her thigh to the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 179-180

116
Q

During a postural screening with a new client, you observe that he has a forward-head position from spending many hours at the computer. Which of the following is MOST associated with this postural deviation?

A

Tight cervical spine extensors (back of the neck)

Why?

This is the correct response, as tight cervical spine extensors result from many hours spent in a position with the neck projected forward and head tilted backward, as is seen in many individuals when sitting at the computer. With forward-head position, the head must be tilted posteriorly with the neck extended for the individual to look forward vs. looking down. This can result in, or be caused by, tight cervical spine extensors.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 162-163

117
Q

Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate progression for a client who can perform two sets of 12 repetitions of the seated bilateral cable press exercise with good form?

A

Standing bilateral cable press

Why?

This is the correct response. Once a client can successfully perform the desired number of sets and repetitions, as set by the personal trainer, with good form on the seated bilateral cable press exercise, the next appropriate progression would be to perform the same exercise in a standing position. This advances the challenge by requiring balance and full-body bracing to prevent movement of the legs and torso, while still providing a chest press challenge for the upper-body muscles that produce this pushing motion.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 315

118
Q

Which of the following observations during the bend and lift screen would indicate that a client has excessive tightness in the plantarflexors?

A

Unable to keep the heels in contact with the floor

Why?

This is the correct response. Tightness in the plantarflexors will limit range of motion (ROM) in dorsiflexion. Good ROM in dorsiflexion is required to allow the tibia to tilt forward far enough for an individual to perform a full squat. If the plantarflexors are tight, the individual will have to either stop squatting once maximal dorsiflexion is reached, or raise his or her heels off the ground to squat lower.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169

119
Q

Where is plantarflexors?

A

Calves

120
Q

What is rectus fermoris?

A

One of the quad muscles

121
Q

What is the PRIMARY focus of movement training?

A

eaching clients to perform efficient squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements in all three planes

Why?

This is the correct response. Human movement can be looked at as a combination of five primary movements performed independently and in multiple combinations. These primary movements include bend-and-lift (squatting), single-leg (lunging), pushing, pulling, and rotational (spiral) movements. By training clients to perform these movements more efficiently in all three planes, personal trainers will help clients improve their ability to perform activities of daily living, and will help ensure that the client has good movement patterns prior to loading them with weight.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 347-348

122
Q

You have been asked to design an exercise program for a group of eight 12-year-old boys. As you design the exercise program, which of the following would be CONTRAINDICATED?

A

Scheduling maximal strength assessments every eight weeks to monitor progress

Why?

This is the correct response. Maximal strength assessments are generally one-repetition maximal lifts, which are not recommended for children.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 558-560

123
Q

What is undulating periodization program?

A

Undulating periodization models provide different training protocols during each 2–4 week microcycle. This program changes focus each workout, with the primary focus on muscular strength on Monday, muscular endurance on Wednesday, and muscular hypertrophy on Friday.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 344-346

124
Q

Categories of food used for energy

A
125
Q

Cardio Risk Stratification

A

If more than 2 risk factors, med risk

Negative Risk Factors (1)

  1. Age M45, F55
  2. Family history
  3. Cig
  4. Sendarty
  5. Obesity BMI >=30 kg/m OR M: 102cm/40inchs; F: 88cm/35inches
  6. Hypertension: Sysstolic >= 140mmHg OR Distolic >=90mmHg
  7. Dyslipidemia: LDL >=130 mg/dL OR HDL < 40 mg/dL OR serum cholesterol >=200 mg/dL
  8. Prediabetes: Fasting glucose >=100 mg/dL AND <=125 mg/dL

Positive risk factor (-1): HDL >=60 mg/dL

126
Q

Five basic movement patterns

A
  1. Bending and lift
  2. Single-leg
  3. Pushing
  4. Pulling
  5. Rotational
127
Q

Body Fat % Categories

A

Avg, F: 25-31%; M: 18-24%

128
Q

ACE Program Model

A

Functional movement and resistance training:

  1. Stability and Mobility
  2. Movement
  3. Load
  4. Performance

Cardio training:

  1. Aerobic-based
  2. Aerobic-efficiency
  3. Anaerobic-endurance
  4. anaerobic-power
129
Q

Stability and Mobility training focus

A
130
Q

Movement Training focus

A
131
Q

Load Training Focus

A
132
Q

Performance Training Focus

A
133
Q

Cardio Training Progression

A

10% incraese of duration, frequency, then intensity per weak is safe and appropriate.

e. g. 3 days/ week at 25min/ session: 3x25 = 75 mins; increase (10%) to 82.5mins:
e. g. 4 days/week x 20mins = 80 mins

134
Q

How to progress cardio interval training?

A

Progress time, then intervals. Maintain work-to-rest ratio 1:3.

e.g. current: 5 sets 1mins Zone 2 intervals, 3 mins recovery between sets.

Progression: 3 sets 1.5 min Zone 2 intervials, 4.5 min recovery between sets. Progress to 4, then 5 sets.

135
Q

Fluid intake recommendation

A

2 hrs before exercise: 500-600ml

During: every 10-20 mins drink 200 - 300ml

136
Q

Muscles used for movements

A
137
Q

Muscles used for movement 2

A
138
Q

The 3 energy system used for various types of exercise in different VT zones.

A
  1. Phosphogen
  2. Anaerobic Glycolysis
  3. Aerobic
142
Q

What is McGill’s Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery?

A

Video

McGill’s Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery assesses the endurance of three torso muscle groups and is comprised of the following tests:

Trunk Flexor Endurance Test: assesses muscular endurance of the deep core muscles.

Trunk Lateral Endurance Test: also called the side bridge test, assesses muscular endurance of the lateral core muscles.

Trunk Extensor Endurance Test: assesses muscular endurance of the torso extensor muscles.

143
Q

McGill’s Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery intrepretations

A

Flexion: Extension

For muscular balance between the front and back of the torso, the ratio should be less than 1.0 (ratio means dividing the two numbers).

In this case, the ratio refers to the number of seconds held in each position, or flexion time/extension time.

Right-side bridge (RSB): Left-side bridge (LSB)

Right-side bridge time/left-side bridge time

For muscular balance between the sides of the torso, the score should be no greater than 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0 (that is, an acceptable range would be a score somewhere between 0.95 to 1.05).

Side bridge (SB) (either side): Extension

One-side bridge time/extension time

For muscular balance between one side and the back of the torso, the score should be less than 0.75.

Let’s work through an example. A client completed the three tests with the following results:

Flexor Test: 120 seconds
RS Bridge: 88 seconds
Extension Test: 150 seconds
LS Bridge: 92 seconds

Scoring and Evaluation

Flexion: Extension

120 seconds:150 seconds = 120/150 = 0.8

The score of 0.8 fits within the criteria of <1.0 for muscular balance between the front and back of the torso.

RSB: LSB

88 seconds:92 seconds = 88/92 = 0.96 (0.956 rounded up)

This score fits within the 0.05 range from 1.0 (that is, it falls between 0.95 and 1.05), indicating muscular balance between the right and left sides of the torso.

Side bridge (choose one side at a time, but remember to perform the ratio calculation for both sides): Extension

RSB = 88 seconds:150 seconds = 88/150 = 0.59 (0.586 rounded up)

This score fits within the criteria of <0.75 for muscular balance between the right side and the back of the torso.

Side bridge: Extension

LSB = 92 seconds:150 seconds = 92/150 = 0.61 (0.613 rounded down)

This score fits within the criteria of <0.75 for muscular balance between the right side and the back of the torso.

The results show that this client has well-balanced torso muscles.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A_9mhL-_04c&t=165s

144
Q

Postural assessment general principles to identify tightness and weakness: Stretch tightness, strengthen weakness

A

A standing, relaxed postural assessment may be conducted to evaluate body-segment alignment. The information gathered in this type of static postural assessment may be used (in combination with movement screens) to evaluate how posture, both good and bad, impacts a client’s ability to move. The important observation to make during a static postural assessment is how (if at all) a person’s joints differ from what is considered “ideal” or “neutral.” Deviations from a neutral posture could mean that muscles on each side of the joint are chronically tight or weak. When muscles are overused or in a chronically shortened position at rest (e.g., hip flexors when seated) they may become tight. When those opposing muscles are underused or in a chronically lengthened position (e.g., hip extensors when seated), they can become weak. What you’ll notice in these compensations is that they’re almost always paired muscles groups, meaning that the agonist (the one responsible for the action in the compensation) is tight and the antagonist (the opposing muscle group) is weak. In that case, you want to stretch the agonist muscles and strengthen the antagonist muscles. Start by looking at static postural analysis and then move on to the movement assessments.

145
Q

Shoulder Mobility Assessment

A

Apley’s scratch test

Video

Text

149
Q

What are hip flexors?

A
150
Q

Hip Extensors

A
152
Q

External Hip Rotators

A
155
Q

PNF Stretching

A

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)

This type of stretching capitalizes on the use of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition, and includes three types of techniques:

Hold-relax

Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.

Hold and resist force applied by the fitness professional, causing an isometric contraction in the target muscle group, for six seconds.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase range of motion (ROM).

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.

Contract-relax

Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.

The fitness professional applies resistance, counteracting the client’s force of concentric contraction of the target muscle group, without completely restricting the joint through its ROM.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.

Hold-relax with agonist contraction

This technique is similar to the Hold-relax technique, but differs for the final stretch.

Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch. Concentrically contract the opposing muscle group of the target muscle group that is being stretched; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.

There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to reciprocal and autogenic inhibition.

https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching

157
Q

What is Thomas Test?

A

Test for hip flexion/ Quardriceps

  1. Lowered thigh not touch table, knee not flex to 80 degrees > Tight: Primary hip flexor muscles
  2. Lowered thigh not touch table, knee flex to 80 degress > Tight: iliopsoas (hip)
  3. Lowered thigh touch table, knee not flex to 80 degrees > Tight: rectus femoris (quad)