ACE 07 Exam Prep Flashcards
What is Par-Q?
See if doc clearance is required before becoming active https://acewebcontent.azureedge.net/healthcoachresources/pdfs/Par-QandYou.pdf
What is Par-Q?
See if doc clearance is required before becoming active https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/tools-calculators/risk-of-chronic-disease-tool https://www.acefitness.org/ptresources/pdfs/AssessmentForms/5-PAR-QandYou.pdf
Cal values per gram
Fat = 9 kcal/g Alcohol = 7 kcal/g Carbohydrates = 4 kcal/g Protein = 4 kcal/g
Desired Body Weight (DBW)
Desired Weight = Lean Muscle / Desired Lean Muscle %
***DBW (Desired Body Weight) = LBW (Lead Body Weight) ÷ (1 – DBF%)
Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body %
Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW
Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean %
Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW
Example: 200-pound individual with 30% body fat; How much will he or she weigh at 25% body fat? •100% – 30% = 70%
- 200 pounds x 0.70 = 140 pounds LBW
- 100% – 25% = 75%
- 140 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 187 pounds DBW
WAIST-TO-HIP RATIO (WHR)
Waist ÷ Hip = WHR Example: Individual with 36-inch waist and 35-inch hip circumference 36 in ÷ 35 in = 1.03
At risk: M >0.95; F > 0.86
BMI METRIC FORMULA
Underweight <18.5
Normal Weight 18.5-24.9
Overweight 25.0-29.9
Grade I Obesity 30.0-34.9
Grade II Obesity 35.0-39.9
Grade III Obesity >40
*Source: ACE Lifestyle & Weight Management Coach Manual
https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/tools-calculators/bmi-calculator
Metric Formula: Weight (kg) ÷ Height2 (m) Weight conversion: weight in pounds ÷ 2.2 = weight in kg Height conversion: (height in inches x 2.54) ÷ 100 = height in meters Example: BMI for a 5’ 8”, 196-pound individual (5’ x 12) + 8 = 68” 196 ÷ 2.2 = 89 kg (68” x 2.54) ÷ 100 = 1.73 m 89 kg ÷ (1.73 m x 1.73 m) = 30 (rounded up)
PREDICTED 1 REPETITION MAX (1RM)
weight lifted ÷ 0.75 of a weight that can be lifted 10 reps Pounds lifted ÷ % 1RM = Predicted 1RM Example: Individual can perform maximum of 10 repetitions (10RM) with 150 pounds. What is his predicted 1RM? 10RM ÷ 0.75 = 1RM 150 pounds ÷ 0.75 = 200 pounds
Karvonen Formula - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)
Step 1: 220 – Age = Predicted MHR Step 2: Predicted MHR – Resting Heart Rate = HRR Step 3: (HRR x % intensity) + RHR = THR Example: 34-year-old, resting heart rate = 62 bpm, 75% of HRR • 220 – 34 = 186 bpm • 186 – 62 = 124 • (124 x 0.75) + 62 = 155 bpm
DAILY CALORIC DEFICIT NEEDED TO ACHIEVE DESIRED WEIGHT LOSS IN SET TIMEFRAME
1 pound body fat = 3,500 kcal
Step 1: (Desired Weight Loss (pounds) x 3,500 kcal/pounds) ÷ # Weeks = Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week)
Step 2: Weekly Caloric Deficit (kcal/week) ÷ 7 days /week = Daily Caloric Deficit
Example: Individual wants to lose 15 pounds in 20 weeks; What daily caloric deficit is required to reach this goal?
- (15 pounds x 3,500 kcal/pounds) ÷ 20 weeks = 2,625 kcal / week
- 2,625 kcal/week ÷7 days/week = 375 kcal/day
Shoulder mobility assessment and stretches
Apley’s Scratch Test for Shoulder Mobility: To assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder girdle (primarily the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints).
Shoulder Push Stabilization Screen: To examine stabilization of the scapulothoracic joint during closed-kinetic-chain pushing movements
https://www.acefitness.org/certifiednewsarticle/2660/a-commonsense-approach-to-addressing-shoulder/
static postural assessment
Lordosis
Kyphosis
Flat back
Sway back
Scoliosis
Muscular balance
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cxOQR-yccsQ&list=PLxdf3t0LRHQu8-47F6pcv2FIx9WlrHIEf&index=6
Figure 4 test/ Patrick Test
Objective: To test hip range of motion
Planes of motion
Sagittal
Flexion: Decreasing the angle between two bones
Extension: Increasing the angle between two bones
Dorsiflexion:Moving the top of the foot toward the shin (only at the ankle)
Plantarflexion: moving the sole of the foot downward (pointing the toes)
Frontal
Adduction: Motion toward the midline
Abduction: Motion away from the midline of the body
Elevation: Moving to a superior position (only at the scapula)
Depression: Moving to an inferior position (only at the scapula)
Inversion: Lifting the medial border of the foot
Eversion: Lifting the lateral border of the foot
Transverse
Rotation- Internal (inward) or external (outward) turning about the vertical axis of the bone
Pronation- Rotating the hand and wrist medially from the bone
Supination-Rotating the hand and wrist laterally from the bone
Horizontal Flexion (adduction)- From the 90-degree abducted arm position, the humerus is flexed (adducted) in toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane
Horizontal Extension (abduction)- Return of the humerus from horizontal flexion
Let’s Examine Each Plane in a Bit More Detail
Dividing the body into left and right halves using an imaginary line gives us the sagittal plane. Any forward and backward movement parallel to this line occurs in the sagittal plane.
With the same imaginary line, divide the body into front and back halves and you have the frontal plane. Any lateral (side) movement parallel to the line will occur in the frontal plane.
Last, but certainly not least, we have the transverse plane, which divides the body into superior and inferior halves. Movement parallel to the waistline, otherwise known as rotational movement, occurs in the transverse plane.
For a clearer understanding, we can view the planes as they relate to exercises performed in a workout session. Below are a few exercises performed in each plane.
Sagittal plane:bicep curl and forward or reverse lunges
Frontalplane: dumbbell lateral (side) raise
Transverse:horizontal wood chop
Joint mobility and stability
- The lumbar spine favors stability, remember how we talk to people about ‘move as a log’ and ‘don’t bend in your low back’ etc.
- The hip favors mobility since there are a lot of attachments and actions happening at that joint, it needs to move freely
- The thoracic spine favors mobility, considering the shoulder attachments, clavicle, ribs, etc. attaching into this area, and think about all the movement that comes from our upper back/shoulder/chest area. It’s also a significant component in developing and maintaining good posture.
- The scapulothoracic joint favors stability, and it is where the scapulae attach to the thorax (which is the region of the body formed by the sternum, thoracic vertebrae, and ribs). It isn’t a typical synovial joint but more of an articulation. However, the ability of the scapulae to maintain proper proximity against the rib cage is vital for the movement and mobility of the glenohumeral joint.
- The glenohumeral joint favors mobility. This joint is the connection between your shoulder and your arm. It is a highly mobile joint and has a considerable range of motion (ROM).
Types of stretches
Active Isolated Stretching (AIS)
This stretch technique is held for only two seconds at a time. It is performed repeatedly for several repetitions, each time exceeding the previous point of resistance by a few degrees. Much like a strength-training regimen, AIS is performed for several sets with a specific number of repetitions.
Myofascial Release
Through the use of a foam roller or similar device, myofascial release relieves tension and improves flexibility in the fascia (a densely woven specialized system of connective tissue that covers and unites all of the body’s compartments), and underlying muscle. Small, continuous back-and-forth movements are performed over an area of 2 to 6 inches for 30 to 60 seconds. The individual’s pain tolerance will determine the amount of pressure applied to the target area.
Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)
This type of stretching capitalizes on the use of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition, and includes three types of techniques:
Hold-relax
Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.
Hold and resist force applied by the fitness professional, causing an isometric contraction in the target muscle group, for six seconds.
Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase range of motion (ROM).
There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.
Contract-relax
Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch.
The fitness professional applies resistance, counteracting the client’s force of concentric contraction of the target muscle group, without completely restricting the joint through its ROM.
Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.
There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition.
Hold-relax with agonist contraction
This technique is similar to the Hold-relax technique, but differs for the final stretch.
Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch. Concentrically contract the opposing muscle group of the target muscle group that is being stretched; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM.
There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to reciprocal and autogenic inhibition.
Common Postural deviations
- Lordosis: An increased anterior lumbar curve with an associated tilting of the pelvis. This typically leads to tension on the spine, which could result in low-back pain.
- Kyphosis: An increased posterior thoracic curve with associated rounded shoulders, depressed chest, and forward-head posture with neck hyperextension.
- Flat Back: A decreased anterior lumbar curve or a reduced normal inward curve of the lower back with the pelvis tilted posteriorly and head exhibiting a forward position.
- Sway Back: A decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve. Sway back is often seen with rounded shoulders, a depressed chest and a forward-tilted head. The femur and head are farther forward than what is seen in a kyphosis deviation.
- Scoliosis: An excessive lateral spinal curvature often accompanied by vertebral rotation. While scoliosis is a congenital or non-correctable condition, exercises can be implemented to help manage the deviation.
- A blood pressure of 142/92 is considered Moderate Normal Low High Question 1 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
high
- This sign or symptom is synonymous with ischemia. pain sensations or cramping in lower extremities dizziness pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw difficulty breathing with usual activities Question 2 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw
- Why is it necessary for the personal trainer to have a client fill out a risk stratification before beginning exercise? To figure out the best way to approach goal setting To determine if a client is cleared by a doctor to exercise To discover possible movement impairments To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system Question 3 of 25 https://www.fitnessmentors.com/free-ace-cpt-practice-test/
To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system
- Which of the following would be the most accurate way to measure a clients blood pressure?
Sitting with feet flat on the floor using right or left arm
- Which of the following is a positive risk factor? LDL cholesterol at 120 mg/dl Blood pressure 120/85 HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl Exercises 3 times per week
HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl
- All of the following do not need a doctors clearance except which? Postural imbalances Father died of a heart attack at 75 years old Heart murmur High HDL Cholesterol
Heart murmur
- Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. What is her risk classification and risk factor count according to ACSM guidelines?
High risk, 1 factor
- Veronica is 62-year-old woman who has come to you for help. Last year she had a knee replacement surgery and has not been exercising at all since her physical therapy ended 6 months ago. She has been smoking cigarettes for the past 45 years. Her father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 54 and her mother died of the same thing when she was 66. Veronica has a BMI of 23. Systolic BP = 138 mmHg, Diastolic BP = 88 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 130 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol = 59. According to ACSM guidelines how many risk factors does Veronica have and what is her risk classification? 5 factors, moderate risk 7 factors, high risk 7 factors, moderate risk 5 factors, high risk
5 factors, moderate risk
- A blood pressure of 142/92 is considered Moderate Normal Low High 2. This sign or symptom is synonymous with ischemia. pain sensations or cramping in lower extremities dizziness pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw difficulty breathing with usual activities 3. Why is it necessary for the personal trainer to have a client fill out a risk stratification before beginning exercise? To figure out the best way to approach goal setting To determine if a client is cleared by a doctor to exercise To discover possible movement impairments To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system 4. Which of the following would be the most accurate way to measure a clients blood pressure? Sitting crossed legged using the right arm only Sitting or standing with arm slightly flexed with both feet flat on the floor Standing using right or left arm Sitting with feet flat on the floor using right or left arm 5. Which of the following is a positive risk factor? LDL cholesterol at 120 mg/dl Blood pressure 120/85 HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl Exercises 3 times per week 6. All of the following do not need a doctors clearance except which? Postural imbalances Father died of a heart attack at 75 years old Heart murmur High HDL Cholesterol 7. Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. What is her risk classification and risk factor count according to ACSM guidelines? High risk, 2 factors High risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 2 factors 8. Veronica is 62-year-old woman who has come to you for help. Last year she had a knee replacement surgery and has not been exercising at all since her physical therapy ended 6 months ago. She has been smoking cigarettes for the past 45 years. Her father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 54 and her mother died of the same thing when she was 66. Veronica has a BMI of 23. Systolic BP = 138 mmHg, Diastolic BP = 88 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 130 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol = 59. According to ACSM guidelines how many risk factors does Veronica have and what is her risk classification? 5 factors, moderate risk 7 factors, high risk 7 factors, moderate risk 5 factors, high risk 9. Continually exercising with poor form can cause repetitive stress and lead to muscle balance improved performance muscle hypertrophy overuse injuries 10. This questionnaire is limited by its lack of detail and may overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries. Medical Release Form Health-History questionnaire Release of liability waiver PAR-Q 11. A 44 year old man name Roger comes to you wanting to exercise. After a thorough health-risk appraisal you learn than his father had diabetes and smoked cigarettes, he quit smoking last year, he alternates between exercising on the stationary bike and treadmill 3 days per week for 30-45 per session during his lunch break at work. He has a BMI of 31, Systolic BP 142 mmHg, Diastolic BP 88 mmHg, and a total serum cholesterol of 187 mg/dl. What risk classification is Roger and how many risk factors does he have if any according to ACSM guidelines?
Moderate risk, 2 factors
- Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. Would she need to have a medical exam before engaging in moderate exercise? not enough information no depends on her cardiovascular assessment Yes
yes
- Which is most common location for detecting a pulse? radial artery popliteal artery brachial arterial femoral artery
radial artery
- Which of the following medications produces a lower heart rate at rest and while exercising? Beta Blockers Diuretics Antidepressants Antihistamines
Beta Blockers
- All of the following are positive risk factors except Fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dl HDL of 38mg/dl Systolic BP of 142 BMI of 31
Fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dl
- Cardiovascular disease characterized by hardening of arteries as well as thickening of arterial walls and loss of elasticity. arthritis atherosclerosis chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) diabetes
atherosclerosis
- The trainer and client have been working out for the past two weeks when the trainer becomes aware that the client has had multiple back injuries in the past. The client wants to continue to exercise as their back is not hurting that day. What is the best course of action for the trainer to take? Stop the session and have the client receive medical clearance from their doctor before scheduling another training session Warm up the low back area to prevent damage Massage the area of pain Modify the program to address weak core muscles
Stop the session and have the client receive medical clearance from their doctor before scheduling another training session
Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factor Thresholds for use with ACSM Risk Stratification
p.120, 121, 128
- +1; Age: Men>=45; Women >=55 +1;
- Family history: myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, father sudden death <55 yo, mother sudden death < 65 yo +1;
- Cig smoker/ quit last 6 months/ exposure to secondhand smoke +1:
- Sedentary life style: not participating in at least 30 mins moderate activity (40-60% VO2R) at least 3 days a week last 3 months +1:
- Obesity: BMI >=30 or men waist >102cm (40 inches)/ women waist >88cm (35 inches) +1
- Hypertension: SBP >=140 mmHg/ DBP >=90 mmHg/ on antihypertensive medications +1
- Dyslipidemia: LDL >= 130 mg/dL or HDL <40 mg/dL or on lapid-lowering medication. or Secrum cholesterol >= 200 mg/dL +1
- Prediabetes: Fasting plasma glucose >= 100 mg/dL but <= 125 mg/dL
============
- HDL cholesterol >=60 mg/dL -1
Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factor Thresholds for use with ACSM Risk Stratification Low Risk Moderate Risk High Risk
Low Risk: < 2 risk factors Moderate Risk: >= 2 risk factors High Risk: symptomatic, or known cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, or metabolic disease
Effects of medication on HR response
p.133
not so important
Triglyceride Numbers based on fasting blood test. high triglycerides levels with heart disease, heart attacks, and stroke, especially in people with low levels of “good” HDL cholesterol and in those with type 2 diabetes.
Triglyceride Numbers Here are the levels, based on a fasting blood test. Normal: Less than 150 mg/dL Borderline: 150 to 199 mg/dL High: 200 to 499 mg/dL Very High: 500 mg/dL or above
ACE activity pack - Movement
p.15 https://www.acefitness.org/academy/AcademyElitePDFs/ESS-AES_Download_Final.pdf
When performing a seated row exercise, you notice the client’s shoulders rising up toward his ears during each repetition. What is MOST likely causing this movement error?
Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius Why? When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162 ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 34-35
Your new client, Sarah, is a strong believer in the practice of vitamin supplementation. After reviewing her three-day food diary, which includes her supplement schedule, you determine that Sarah is taking megadoses of vitamins B6, B12, and niacin. Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate when addressing Sarah regarding her supplementation practice?
“Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician.” Why? Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program and steps should be taken to avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of some vitamins and minerals can lead to toxicity. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162–163
During the initial interview, a new client claims, “I want to lose 15 lb. (6.8 kg) in the next month for my high school reunion.” Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate?
Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them. Why? Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the client–trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-54
A client wants to quickly lose the 20 pounds (9.1 kg) he has gained during the past 10 years. Which of the following timeframes would be MOST appropriate for him to safely achieve his weight-loss goal?
3 to 5 months Why? According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week timeframe for the client to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only answer that falls within this timeframe.
Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you. Recently, Larry’s work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change would Larry CURRENTLY be categorized?
Contemplation Why? Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72
Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of acceleration and speed?
40-yard dash Why? The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256
What is a diabetic client MOST likely to experience if he or she takes too much insulin prior to an exercise session?
Hypoglycemia Why? Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise) that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia.
When performing initial cardiorespiratory fitness assessments with a client who is taking a beta blocker, which of the following medication-related effects SHOULD be expected?
Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate Why? Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause both a decreased exercise heart rate and a decreased resting heart rate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134
Postural screening performed with a new client reveals that he has a posterior pelvic tilt and a decreased anterior curvature of the lower back. Based on this information, which muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in this client’s flexibility program?
Rectus abdominis and hamstrings Why? These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis, while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 158-160
Cindy’s first attempt at the incline bench press exercise appears shaky and uncoordinated. After the set, Cindy comments that she had a hard time feeling her chest muscles working and that it was challenging to move her arms in a controlled manner. Which stage of learning BEST correlates with Cindy’s performance?
Cognitive Why? This response is correct, as within the cognitive stage of learning clients make many errors and have highly variable performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform exercises incorrectly.
What is the PRIMARY goal of a resistance-training program consisting of three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions for all major muscle groups?
Muscular endurance Why? Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of two to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are implemented to promote muscular endurance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 338
You have just completed McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery with a client. Which of the following results from this battery of assessments should be of PRIMARY focus when designing this client’s exercise program, as it is indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain?
Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds) Why? This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of 1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could lead to back pain. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 187-192
As you are assessing a new client’s static posture from the posterior view, you observe that the medial borders and inferior angle of his scapulae protrude away from the posterior surface of his back. This postural deviation is commonly referred to as “scapular winging.” Which of the following muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in his resistance-training program, as it is most likely weak and contributing to this postural deviation?
Serratus anterior Why? Weakness in the serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as scapular “winging” and results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the clients strengthen the serratus anterior, as well as the rhomboids, which are also often weak with scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to “pack” their scapulae by retracting and depressing the scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162
On her health screening form, Carrie indicates that she has been diagnosed with “tennis elbow.” Which of the following anatomical structures is MOST affected by this condition?
The lateral epicondyle of the humerus Why? “Tennis elbow” is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 581-582
At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle is MOST commonly involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve?
Piriformis Why? Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45
What is sciatica?
Sciatica refers to back pain caused by a problem with the sciatic nerve. This is a large nerve that runs from the lower back down the back of each leg. When something injures or puts pressure on the sciatic nerve, it can cause pain in the lower back that spreads to the hip, buttocks, and leg. https://www.webmd.com/back-pain/ss/slideshow-visual-guide-to-sciatica
A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for her initial program?
Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions Why? This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376
During a bend and lift screen (anterior view), you notice a client’s knees moving inward. Based on this assessment, which muscles are MOST likely weak?
Gluteus medius and maximus Why? This answer is correct given that the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are primary abductors of the hip and as such they can prevent hip adduction. When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip adduction during squatting motions. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and protracted shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. What are this client’s postural deviations?
Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms Why? Kyphosis posture is characterized by increased flexion of the thoracic spine with protracted shoulders and often a forward-tilted head. Additionally, the backs of this client’s hands are facing forward, indicating that he has internally—or medially—rotated humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160
How to conduct postural screening?
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160 1. Lordosis 2. Kyphosis 3. Flat back 4. Sway back 5. Scoliosis
Practical Static postural analysis
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and forward, rounded shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. Which of the following sets of muscles and muscle groups should be the PRIMARY focus of a flexibility program designed to address this client’s postural deviations?
Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior Why? This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 162
A new client tells you that he has been jogging 3–4 days per week for the past six weeks following a program from a popular health magazine. He has worked his way up to jogging 30 continuous minutes at an intensity of 70% of his predicted maximal HR, which he calculated by subtracting his age from 220. As you design a new program for him, what method for monitoring cardiorespiratory exercise intensity should be used to provide the MOST individualized training program?
Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This response is correct because it involves programming at an actual metabolic marker that is unique to this client. By using the submaximal talk test to determine his heart rate at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the trainer is finding out the HR where this individual moves from moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. Nothing is predicted, as HR at VT1 is measured through a reliable field test. Once a personal trainer measures a client’s HR at VT1, the trainer can utilize this information to design effect aerobic-efficiency-phase training for clients using zones 1 and 2 according to the ACE IFTTM Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-224 & 420-421
A new client wants to lose weight and body fat, and agrees to have his body composition assessed during the initial session. He currently weighs 220 lb (100 kg) with 25% body fat (BF%). He wants to decrease his body-fat level to 15%. If he maintains his current lean body weight (LBW), what will his new weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat?
194 lb Why? This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations: DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%) Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body % 100% - 25% = 75% Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW 220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean % 100% - 15% = 85% Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW 165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 206
A client you are working with weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and has a primary focus on increasing muscular strength and hypertrophy through resistance training 5–6 days per week. He is unsure of how much protein he should be consuming to maximize results and asks you for help. According to the protein guidelines for strength-trained athletes from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, what range for daily protein intake would be MOST appropriate for this client?
146 to 155 grams Why? A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91 kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179
Which of the following flexibility assessment results would indicate TIGHTNESS in the infraspinatus and teres minor?
Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation Why? This response is correct, as limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators, which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 184