ACE 07 Exam Prep Flashcards

Question

1. A blood pressure of 142/92 is considered Moderate Normal Low High 2. This sign or symptom is synonymous with ischemia. pain sensations or cramping in lower extremities dizziness pain (tightness) or discomfort in jaw difficulty breathing with usual activities 3. Why is it necessary for the personal trainer to have a client fill out a risk stratification before beginning exercise? To figure out the best way to approach goal setting To determine if a client is cleared by a doctor to exercise To discover possible movement impairments To discover the potential presence of diseases to the cardiopulmonary system 4. Which of the following would be the most accurate way to measure a clients blood pressure? Sitting crossed legged using the right arm only Sitting or standing with arm slightly flexed with both feet flat on the floor Standing using right or left arm Sitting with feet flat on the floor using right or left arm 5. Which of the following is a positive risk factor? LDL cholesterol at 120 mg/dl Blood pressure 120/85 HDL cholesterol at 37 mg/dl Exercises 3 times per week 6. All of the following do not need a doctors clearance except which? Postural imbalances Father died of a heart attack at 75 years old Heart murmur High HDL Cholesterol 7. Shelly is a 29-year-old woman who you recently took through a thorough health-risk appraisal. She is motivated and wants to begin exercising. During the appraisal, you found that her BMI is 32, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and is taking medication for it. Shelly has been walking at a moderate intensity for at least 60 minutes for the past 6 months. Her systolic BP is 138 mmHg and diastolic is 87 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 125, HDL = 55. What is her risk classification and risk factor count according to ACSM guidelines? High risk, 2 factors High risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 1 factor Moderate risk, 2 factors 8. Veronica is 62-year-old woman who has come to you for help. Last year she had a knee replacement surgery and has not been exercising at all since her physical therapy ended 6 months ago. She has been smoking cigarettes for the past 45 years. Her father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 54 and her mother died of the same thing when she was 66. Veronica has a BMI of 23. Systolic BP = 138 mmHg, Diastolic BP = 88 mmHg. LDL cholesterol = 130 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol = 59. According to ACSM guidelines how many risk factors does Veronica have and what is her risk classification? 5 factors, moderate risk 7 factors, high risk 7 factors, moderate risk 5 factors, high risk 9. Continually exercising with poor form can cause repetitive stress and lead to muscle balance improved performance muscle hypertrophy overuse injuries 10. This questionnaire is limited by its lack of detail and may overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries. Medical Release Form Health-History questionnaire Release of liability waiver PAR-Q 11. A 44 year old man name Roger comes to you wanting to exercise. After a thorough health-risk appraisal you learn than his father had diabetes and smoked cigarettes, he quit smoking last year, he alternates between exercising on the stationary bike and treadmill 3 days per week for 30-45 per session during his lunch break at work. He has a BMI of 31, Systolic BP 142 mmHg, Diastolic BP 88 mmHg, and a total serum cholesterol of 187 mg/dl. What risk classification is Roger and how many risk factors does he have if any according to ACSM guidelines?

Answer 1

Moderate risk, 2 factors

Answer 2

radial artery

Answer 3

Beta Blockers

Answer 4

Fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dl

Answer 5

atherosclerosis

Answer 6

Stop the session and have the client receive medical clearance from their doctor before scheduling another training session

Answer 7

p.120, 121, 128 * +1; Age: Men\>=45; Women \>=55 +1; * Family history: myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, father sudden death \<55 yo, mother sudden death \< 65 yo +1; * Cig smoker/ quit last 6 months/ exposure to secondhand smoke +1: * Sedentary life style: not participating in at least 30 mins moderate activity (40-60% VO2R) at least 3 days a week last 3 months +1: * Obesity: BMI \>=30 or men waist \>102cm (40 inches)/ women waist \>88cm (35 inches) +1 * Hypertension: SBP \>=140 mmHg/ DBP \>=90 mmHg/ on antihypertensive medications +1 * Dyslipidemia: LDL \>= 130 mg/dL or HDL \<40 mg/dL or on lapid-lowering medication. or Secrum cholesterol \>= 200 mg/dL +1 * Prediabetes: Fasting plasma glucose \>= 100 mg/dL but \<= 125 mg/dL ============ * HDL cholesterol \>=60 mg/dL -1

Answer 8

Low Risk: \< 2 risk factors Moderate Risk: \>= 2 risk factors High Risk: symptomatic, or known cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, or metabolic disease

Answer 9

p.133 not so important

Answer 10

Triglyceride Numbers Here are the levels, based on a fasting blood test. Normal: Less than 150 mg/dL Borderline: 150 to 199 mg/dL High: 200 to 499 mg/dL Very High: 500 mg/dL or above

Answer 11

p.15 https://www.acefitness.org/academy/AcademyElitePDFs/ESS-AES\_Download\_Final.pdf

Answer 12

Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius Why? When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162 ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 34-35

Answer 13

“Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician.” Why? Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program and steps should be taken to avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of some vitamins and minerals can lead to toxicity. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162–163

Answer 14

Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them. Why? Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the client–trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-54

Answer 15

3 to 5 months Why? According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week timeframe for the client to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only answer that falls within this timeframe.

Answer 16

Contemplation Why? Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

Answer 17

40-yard dash Why? The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256

Answer 18

Hypoglycemia Why? Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise) that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia.

Answer 19

Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate Why? Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause both a decreased exercise heart rate and a decreased resting heart rate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

Answer 20

Rectus abdominis and hamstrings Why? These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis, while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 158-160

Answer 21

Cognitive Why? This response is correct, as within the cognitive stage of learning clients make many errors and have highly variable performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform exercises incorrectly.

Answer 22

Muscular endurance Why? Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of two to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are implemented to promote muscular endurance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 338

Answer 23

Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds) Why? This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of 1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could lead to back pain. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 187-192

Answer 24

Serratus anterior Why? Weakness in the serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as scapular “winging” and results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the clients strengthen the serratus anterior, as well as the rhomboids, which are also often weak with scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to “pack” their scapulae by retracting and depressing the scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162

Answer 25

The lateral epicondyle of the humerus Why? “Tennis elbow” is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 581-582

Answer 26

Piriformis Why? Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45

Answer 27

Sciatica refers to back pain caused by a problem with the sciatic nerve. This is a large nerve that runs from the lower back down the back of each leg. When something injures or puts pressure on the sciatic nerve, it can cause pain in the lower back that spreads to the hip, buttocks, and leg. https://www.webmd.com/back-pain/ss/slideshow-visual-guide-to-sciatica

Answer 28

Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions Why? This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376

Answer 29

Gluteus medius and maximus Why? This answer is correct given that the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are primary abductors of the hip and as such they can prevent hip adduction. When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip adduction during squatting motions. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169

Answer 30

Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms Why? Kyphosis posture is characterized by increased flexion of the thoracic spine with protracted shoulders and often a forward-tilted head. Additionally, the backs of this client’s hands are facing forward, indicating that he has internally—or medially—rotated humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160

Answer 31

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160 1. Lordosis 2. Kyphosis 3. Flat back 4. Sway back 5. Scoliosis

Answer 32

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/5413/practical-application-of-functional-assessments-static-postural-analysis?topicScope=physical-assessments](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/5413/practical-application-of-functional-assessments-static-postural-analysis?topicScope=physical-assessments) [https://youtu.be/cxOQR-yccsQ](https://youtu.be/cxOQR-yccsQ)

Answer 33

Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior Why? This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 162

Answer 34

Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This response is correct because it involves programming at an actual metabolic marker that is unique to this client. By using the submaximal talk test to determine his heart rate at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the trainer is finding out the HR where this individual moves from moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. Nothing is predicted, as HR at VT1 is measured through a reliable field test. Once a personal trainer measures a client’s HR at VT1, the trainer can utilize this information to design effect aerobic-efficiency-phase training for clients using zones 1 and 2 according to the ACE IFTTM Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-224 & 420-421

Answer 35

194 lb Why? This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations: DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%) Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body % 100% - 25% = 75% Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW 220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean % 100% - 15% = 85% Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW 165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 206

Answer 36

146 to 155 grams Why? A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91 kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179

Answer 37

Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation Why? This response is correct, as limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators, which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 184

Answer 38

Carbohydrates Why? To solve this problem, you must know the caloric values for 1 gram of each type of nutrient: 1 g protein = 4 kcal; 1 g carbohydrate = 4 kcal; 1 g fat = 9 kcal. Next, determine the number of calories each nutrient contributes to the total caloric content of the food by multiplying the number of grams of each nutrient by its associated caloric value: Fat: 42 g x 9 kcal/g = 378 kcal Protein: 33 g x 4 kcal/g = 132 kcal Carbohydrates: 108 g x 4 kcal/g = 432 kcal These calculations show that carbohydrates contribute the most calories of all the nutrients in this food item. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 172-173

Answer 39

The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest for training have been identified as “legal.” **Why?** This response is correct, as it is the responsibility of the fitness professional to be familiar with local laws, as in some jurisdictions it is illegal to train clients on public beaches, parks, and/or trails. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

Answer 40

**Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)** **Why?** This response is correct as RPE is the recommended method for monitoring exercise intensity in individuals taking beta blockers, Due to the fact that it is based on perceived exertion, it is not negatively impacted by medications such as beta blockers. RPE has been validated against a variety of physiological intensity measures, including heart rate, % VO₂R, and metabolic markers, and has been found to be a valid tool for monitoring intensity. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

Answer 41

Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor **Why?** This response is correct and is the best course of action to take because it eliminates any possible dangers. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 658-659

Answer 42

**Why?** This response is correct, as a standing posture with shoulders that are rounded forward and hands that face backward instead of toward each other is indicative of shortened pectorals and latissimus dorsi, as well as overstretched and potentially weakened scapular retractors and shoulder external rotators that passively allow the shoulders to fall forward into internal rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 151 & 162

Answer 43

583 kcal per day Why? This answer is correct, as a caloric deficit of 583 kcal per day would result in a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal (583 kcal x 60 days = 35,000 kcal), which equates to a weight loss of 10 pounds (35,000 kcal / 3,500 kcal/lb = 10 lb), given that one pound of body fat holds 3,500 kcal of energy. 10 lb x 3,500 kcal per lb = a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal 35,000 kcal / 60 days = a daily caloric deficit of 583 kcal ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174.

Answer 44

**Glute bridge** **Why?** This response is correct as the glute bridge is an exercise in which the client first engages his or her core to stabilize the lumbar spine, and then activates the gluteal muscles to extend the hips and lift the torso until it is in line with the thighs, holding for one or two seconds at the end range of motion before lowering and repeating the movement. This exercise improves core stability through the engagement of core musculature to stabilize the spine, and it improves hip mobility and stability during the “bridging” movement caused by the gluteal muscles contracting to extend the hips and lift the torso. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 286

Answer 45

Multiple linear jumps **Why?** This response is correct, as intensity of plyometric drills increases according to the following progression: jumping in place — single linear jumps — multiple linear jumps — multidirectional jumps — hops and bounds —depth jumps. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 362

Answer 46

+3 Why? This response is correct, as this client has 3 positive risk factors according to the ACSM risk factor thresholds. His positive risk factors are his age (47 years old), being a current smoker, and being sedentary. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 120-121

Answer 47

Submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This is the correct response, as the objective of the test is to measure the HR response at VT1 for an individual client by progressively increasing exercise intensity and achieving steady state at each state, as well as to identify the HR where the ability to talk continuously becomes comprised in order to determine his/her unique metabolic marker. Since this client is a recreational runner, his/her cardiorespiratory training program should be focused on exercise intensities that are below and above VT1. Once this client’s HR at VT1 is determined, it can be used to design workouts that incorporate steady state training below VT1, with intervals performed above VT1. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-226

Answer 48

All Bran® cereal Why? This answer is correct, as All Bran® is a low-GI food (GI \<55). ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness professionals, page 179

Answer 49

“I will lose 10 pounds for my brother’s wedding in 3 months by running 3 days per week for 30–45 minutes and doing circuit training 2 days per week for 60 minutes.” Why? This is the correct response. This goal is specific (10-lb weight loss through running and circuit training, each with specific details), measurable (weight), attainable (10 lb in three months is less than 1 lb per week), relevant (it is for her brother’s wedding), and time-bound (three months). ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-51

Answer 50

Encourage the client to walk the trail the first time to learn the terrain and begin building fitness for running Why? This is the best response as the client is looking to begin a running program, so walking would provide an entry point that could be transitioned into a running program. Also, walking the course together on the first outing will allow you and the client to learn the trail. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

Answer 51

53-year-old female runner who runs 4–6 days per week and wants to qualify for the Boston Marathon Why? This response is correct, as the client has competitive goals that require a high level of cardiorespiratory training and performance. As such, this client would benefit from a three-zone training plan, as is featured in the anaerobic-endurance phase (phase 3) of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT® Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 422 & 428-432

Answer 52

Triceps, thigh, suprailium Why? This response is correct, as the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold measurement sites for women are the triceps, thigh, and suprailium. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 201

Answer 53

Modify resistance training to include two sets of each exercise with a weight that fatigues the muscles in approximately eight repetitions Why? This response is correct, as resistance training can create stress on the bone that will cause bone density to be preserved and possibly enhanced. To facilitate optimal bone changes, a higher load is recommended that will fatigue the muscles in approximately eight repetitions. This will stimulate the greatest response in terms of bone density changes. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 537-539

Answer 54

315 lb Why? This response is correct because 315 lb is a 5% increase from 300 lb. The double-progressive protocol has two steps for increasing total load during resistance training. First, the client increases repetitions until he or she can perform the maximum number of repetitions in the range (e.g., 12 repetitions is the maximum number in the eight-to-12 range). Once the client reaches the high end of the repetition range, the resistance is increased by 5% and the client performs as many repetitions as possible with the new load. Once the client performs the high end of the repetition range with this new resistance, the resistance is progressed another 5%. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 341

Answer 55

Incorporate a running interval-training program Why? This is the best response, as interval training is effective in increasing speed, lactate threshold, and overall aerobic power. This type of training should be reserved for clients in the higher cardiorespiratory fitness classifications and should be limited to a frequency of approximately two workouts per week. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 395

Answer 56

Half-kneeling triplanar stretch Why? A lack of ROM in hip extension is generally due to tight hip flexors. The half-kneeling triplanar stretch of the hip flexors improves mobility in all three planes without compromising lumbar stability. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 284-285

Answer 57

Muscle spindles Why? This response is correct, as the stretch reflex is associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. When a muscle is stretched quickly, the muscle spindles in the stretched muscle are activated and initiate a reflex arc that causes the stretched muscle to produce a sudden contraction. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 24–25

Answer 58

It allows the physician to provide guidelines for the exercise program. Why? This response is correct, as the purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with guidelines for safe exercise participation based on the client’s medical information and to explain any physical-activity limitations the client has due to diseases, disorders, ailments, or injuries. The physician’s medical release should provide any specific exercise guidelines and contraindications for that client related to physical-activity participation. Deviations from these guidelines must be approved by the physician. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 123 & 127

Answer 59

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors Why? This response is correct, as an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean during the hurdle step screen is indicative of weakness in the rectus abdominis and the hip extensors (gluteus maximus and hamstrings). ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 172

Answer 60

If knees bend inward: Hip adductors, tensor fascia latae are tight. Glut under active. If heels off ground: plantarflexors (calfs) too tight If initiation of movement is from knee: may indicate quadriceps and hip flexors dominance, as well as insufficient activation of the gluteus group. P.168 of ACE PT manual 5th eidition https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ID1KMP2AKfc&list=PLzUUecpjrONhAhy46yQcFydOYGoKPtQhp

Answer 61

Compensations: If knees move inward/ hip adducts: tight hip adductors, tensor fascia latae; lengthened (weak) gluts medius and maximus forward lean, rotation, lateral tilt: lack of core stability p. 172 of ACE PT manual 5th edition https: //www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3771/posture-and-movement-assessments

Answer 62

Test if hip flexor, iliopsoas and rectus fermoris are tight. If lowered thigh not touch table and knee does not flex to 80 degress: primary hip flexor muslces are tight If lowered thigh not touch table, knee does flex to 80 degress: iliopsoas is tight If lowered thigh touches table, knee does not flex to 80 degrees: rectus fermoris is tight ACE PT manual 5th edition p.179 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ieu-t3vwbqI

Answer 63

Following a 2-week period of complete rest Why? This response is correct, as extended periods of inactivity can lead to a loss of fitness and muscle atrophy. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 85-89 & page 234 – 235

Answer 64

DASH is a flexible and balanced eating plan that helps create a heart-healthy eating style for life. The DASH eating plan requires no special foods and instead provides daily and weekly nutritional goals. This plan recommends: Eating vegetables, fruits, and whole grains Including fat-free or low-fat dairy products, fish, poultry, beans, nuts, and vegetable oils Limiting foods that are high in saturated fat, such as fatty meats, full-fat dairy products, and tropical oils such as coconut, palm kernel, and palm oils Limiting sugar-sweetened beverages and sweets. https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health-topics/dash-eating-plan

Answer 65

Meats, poultry, and fish, and nuts, seeds, and dry beans Why? This response is correct, as there are no servings from the meats, poultry, and fish group, or the nuts, seeds, and dry beans group listed in this food diary. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 187

Answer 66

The Correct Answer is: Push-ups Why? This exercise is contraindicated for clients who have carpal tunnel syndrome, as push-ups put the wrists into a position of full extension, which can compress the carpal tunnels. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 582-583

Answer 67

Wolff’s law Why? Wolff’s law states that bones respond to the stresses placed upon them. When the skeleton is subjected to stressful forces, such as those that occur with physical activity or exercise, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, which results in greater bone density. Wolff’s law also applies to long periods of inactivity. In these situations, there is a lack of stressful forces placed on the skeleton, so the bones no longer need to be prepared to withstand the impact and muscle forces of physical activity and respond by losing bone mineral content and becoming less dense. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 13

Answer 68

Try to consume 30 to 60 grams of easily digestible carbohydrates every hour during training sessions lasting more than 60 minutes. Why? This response is correct for carbohydrate consumption during each hour of extended cardiorespiratory training bouts to maintain blood glucose levels. It is also the recommendation for exercise in extreme environmental conditions like heat, cold, or high altitude, or when a client did not consume adequate amounts of food or drink prior to the training session. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 177

Answer 69

“I can help you research potential negative side effects from the supplement, but for more specific information you should talk with a registered dietitian. “ Why? This is the most appropriate response, because it involves the personal trainer helping to educate the client by researching any negative side effects from the supplement and it recommends that the client talk with a registered dietitian if she wants more specific information. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 181

Answer 70

General liability Why? This response is correct. General liability insurance covers facility-related personal injuries, such as slips, trips, and falls. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 664

Answer 71

Emphasizing “glute dominance” over “quad dominance” Why? This response is correct, as the objective of the hip-hinge exercise is to emphasize “glute dominance” over “quad dominance” during the first 10 to 15 degrees of movement at the start of the squatting motion. This exercise is recommended for clients who initiate the first 10 to 15 degrees of the squatting movement by flexing the knees and driving the tibias forward prior to flexing at the hips. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 307-308

Answer 72

Postural exercise [https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/blog/5983/two-classic-exercises-everyone-should-master](https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/blog/5983/two-classic-exercises-everyone-should-master) [https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/exercise-library/33/hip-hinge](https://www.acefitness.org/education-and-resources/lifestyle/exercise-library/33/hip-hinge)

Answer 73

Overhead barbell press in the frontal plane Why? This response is correct, as individuals with shoulder injuries, or undergoing post-rehabilitation from shoulder injuries, should modify overhead activities. For example, the overhead press can be modified to use dumbbells with the arms moving in the scapular plane without fully extending the elbows. This takes the shoulder out of the abducted and externally rotated position seen during the overhead barbell press in the frontal plane. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 377 & 579-580

Answer 74

Sets of 4–6 repetitions at 80–90% 1 RM with 2–5 minute rest intervals Why? This response is correct, as this resistance-training program is designed to have a primary focus on muscular strength, based upon the repetition range, intensity, and recovery interval length. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 338 & 352-355

Answer 75

Set 1: Est. 50% 5-10 reps; 1 min rest Set 2: Est. 70% 3-5 reps; 1 min rest Set 3: 80-90% 2-3 reps; 2 mins rest [https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2894/understanding-1-rm-and-predicted-1-rm-assessments](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2894/understanding-1-rm-and-predicted-1-rm-assessments)

Answer 76

300 kcal Why? To lose 1 pound of fat a caloric deficit of 3500 kcal is required. 30 lb x 3,500 kcal/lb = 105,000 kcal 105,000 kcal / 20 weeks = 5,250 kcal per week deficit 5,250 kcal/week / 7 days/week = 750 kcal deficit required per day. 750 kcal – 450 kcal = 300 kcal. Therefor the client would need to expend 300 kcal per day through physical activity. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

Answer 77

Performing full-ROM low-back exercises first thing in the morning when the body is well rested Why? This response is correct, as performing full-range spinal motion while under load shortly after rising is not recommended. This is due to the diurnal variation in the fluid level of the intervertebral discs that results in the discs being more hydrated in the morning after rising from bed. When the discs are more hydrated, they are less pliable. This becomes important when going through a full-range spinal motion, such as standing spinal flexion, where the anterior sides of the vertebrae come closer together and compress the anterior portion of the discs. This forces the fluid toward the posterior wall of the disc. The more the discs are hydrated, the more fluid that gets forced against the posterior wall of the disc. If the posterior wall is weak, this creates an increased risk for bulges in the wall of the disc. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 548-551

Answer 78

Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise Why? This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. This decreases blood volume and can predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid intake before, during, and after exercise is important. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 133 & 518-520

Answer 79

Explain that 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein is recommended per kilogram of body weight for strength-trained athletes, and that it is best if this protein comes from a healthful diet Why? This response is correct because it meets the protein guidelines of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, which state that strength-trained athletes can consume up to 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein per kilogram of body weight each day. It also directs the client to try to get his protein sources from a healthful diet, which meets the USDA Dietary Guidelines. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179

Answer 80

1.2-1.7g protein/ kg of body weight/ day strength-trained athletes can consume up to 1.2 to 1.7 g of protein per kilogram of body weight each day

Answer 81

Teres minor and infraspinatus Why? Limited ROM in shoulder internal rotation is generally due to tightness in the muscles that externally rotate the shoulder, as these muscles must be lengthened to allow the shoulder to internally rotate. The teres minor and infraspinatus are two primary external rotators of the shoulder joint and would be important to stretch in a client who is limited in internal shoulder rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 183-184

Answer 82

Determine HR at VT1 using the submaximal talk test and progress exercise through interval work above VT1 Why? This is the best response. This client is consistently performing 30 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold. This meets the criteria for aerobic-efficiency training, which involves training below VT1 with intervals above VT1. To determine this client’s HR at VT1, the trainer should conduct the submaximal talk test, and then use this information in progressing his or her cardiorespiratory program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 399-408

Answer 83

Discussing any apprehensions and allowing for questions about exercise Why? This is the correct response. Discussing any apprehensions a potential client has about exercise and allowing the chance for questions will help him or her gain a better understanding of the costs and benefits of adopting exercise as a lifestyle modification. By providing this individual with a better understanding of the benefits of exercise and addressing his or her apprehensions, the personal trainer can help him or her move from the contemplation stage to the preparation stage of change. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

Answer 84

Fat: 9 cal/ g Carb, Protein: 4 cal/ g Fat and saturated fat have 9 kcal of energy per gram, while carbohydrates and proteins have 4 kcal of energy per gram.

Answer 85

45–65% carbohydrates, 10–35% protein, and 20–35% fat Why? This is the correct response, as it matches the Institute of Medicine’s 2005 DRI for active adults to maintain optimal performance and health. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 176

Answer 86

Decline push-up Why? This response is correct. In closed-chain exercises, the distal end of the chain is fixed and the rest of the kinetic chain moves about this fixed point. Closed-chain exercises also emphasize joint compression and co-contraction of the muscles on either side of the joint to enhance stability. During a decline push-up, the hands are the distal end of the kinetic chain. They are placed on the floor and stay in contact with the floor throughout the exercise. There is joint compression at the wrists, elbows, and shoulders, with the pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, and triceps brachii acting as the prime movers at the shoulders and elbows to create and control the decline push-up movement, and the antagonists to these muscles contracting to enhance joint stability. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 114

Answer 87

Weak right gluteus medius and maximus Why? This response is correct, as weakness in the right gluteus medius and maximus would result in the pelvis dropping to the left when lifting the left leg. This is due to the right gluteus medius and maximus being unable to hold the pelvis level when standing on the right leg. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 171-173

Answer 88

Tightness in the rectus femoris (one of the quads muscles) Why? This is the correct response. When the rectus femoris is tight, it will prevent the knee from flexing. In situations where the hip flexors have adequate length, this will result in a Thomas test where the client can touch the back of his or her thigh to the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 179-180

Answer 89

Tight cervical spine extensors (back of the neck) Why? This is the correct response, as tight cervical spine extensors result from many hours spent in a position with the neck projected forward and head tilted backward, as is seen in many individuals when sitting at the computer. With forward-head position, the head must be tilted posteriorly with the neck extended for the individual to look forward vs. looking down. This can result in, or be caused by, tight cervical spine extensors. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 162-163

Answer 90

Standing bilateral cable press Why? This is the correct response. Once a client can successfully perform the desired number of sets and repetitions, as set by the personal trainer, with good form on the seated bilateral cable press exercise, the next appropriate progression would be to perform the same exercise in a standing position. This advances the challenge by requiring balance and full-body bracing to prevent movement of the legs and torso, while still providing a chest press challenge for the upper-body muscles that produce this pushing motion. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 315

Answer 91

Unable to keep the heels in contact with the floor Why? This is the correct response. Tightness in the plantarflexors will limit range of motion (ROM) in dorsiflexion. Good ROM in dorsiflexion is required to allow the tibia to tilt forward far enough for an individual to perform a full squat. If the plantarflexors are tight, the individual will have to either stop squatting once maximal dorsiflexion is reached, or raise his or her heels off the ground to squat lower. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169

Answer 92

One of the quad muscles

Answer 93

eaching clients to perform efficient squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements in all three planes Why? This is the correct response. Human movement can be looked at as a combination of five primary movements performed independently and in multiple combinations. These primary movements include bend-and-lift (squatting), single-leg (lunging), pushing, pulling, and rotational (spiral) movements. By training clients to perform these movements more efficiently in all three planes, personal trainers will help clients improve their ability to perform activities of daily living, and will help ensure that the client has good movement patterns prior to loading them with weight. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 347-348

Answer 94

Scheduling maximal strength assessments every eight weeks to monitor progress Why? This is the correct response. Maximal strength assessments are generally one-repetition maximal lifts, which are not recommended for children. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 558-560

Answer 95

Undulating periodization models provide different training protocols during each 2–4 week microcycle. This program changes focus each workout, with the primary focus on muscular strength on Monday, muscular endurance on Wednesday, and muscular hypertrophy on Friday. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 344-346

Answer 96

If more than 2 risk factors, med risk Negative Risk Factors (1) 1. Age M45, F55 2. Family history 3. Cig 4. Sendarty 5. Obesity BMI \>=30 kg/m OR M: 102cm/40inchs; F: 88cm/35inches 6. Hypertension: Sysstolic \>= 140mmHg OR Distolic \>=90mmHg 7. Dyslipidemia: LDL \>=130 mg/dL OR HDL \< 40 mg/dL OR serum cholesterol \>=200 mg/dL 8. Prediabetes: Fasting glucose \>=100 mg/dL AND \<=125 mg/dL Positive risk factor (-1): HDL \>=60 mg/dL

Answer 97

1. Bending and lift 2. Single-leg 3. Pushing 4. Pulling 5. Rotational

Answer 98

Avg, F: 25-31%; M: 18-24%

Answer 99

Functional movement and resistance training: 1. Stability and Mobility 2. Movement 3. Load 4. Performance Cardio training: 1. Aerobic-based 2. Aerobic-efficiency 3. Anaerobic-endurance 4. anaerobic-power

Answer 100

10% incraese of duration, frequency, then intensity per weak is safe and appropriate. e. g. 3 days/ week at 25min/ session: 3x25 = 75 mins; increase (10%) to 82.5mins: e. g. 4 days/week x 20mins = 80 mins

Answer 101

Progress time, then intervals. Maintain work-to-rest ratio 1:3. e.g. current: 5 sets 1mins Zone 2 intervals, 3 mins recovery between sets. Progression: 3 sets 1.5 min Zone 2 intervials, 4.5 min recovery between sets. Progress to 4, then 5 sets.

Answer 102

2 hrs before exercise: 500-600ml During: every 10-20 mins drink 200 - 300ml

Answer 103

1. Phosphogen 2. Anaerobic Glycolysis 3. Aerobic

Answer 104

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/)

Answer 105

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/4831/physiological-assessments-cardiovascular-assessments](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/4831/physiological-assessments-cardiovascular-assessments)

Answer 106

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3771/posture-and-movement-assessments](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3771/posture-and-movement-assessments)

Answer 107

[Video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A_9mhL-_04c) McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery assesses the endurance of three torso muscle groups and is comprised of the following tests: Trunk Flexor Endurance Test: assesses muscular endurance of the deep core muscles. Trunk Lateral Endurance Test: also called the side bridge test, assesses muscular endurance of the lateral core muscles. Trunk Extensor Endurance Test: assesses muscular endurance of the torso extensor muscles.

Answer 108

Flexion: Extension For muscular balance between the front and back of the torso, the ratio should be less than 1.0 (ratio means dividing the two numbers). In this case, the ratio refers to the number of seconds held in each position, or flexion time/extension time. Right-side bridge (RSB): Left-side bridge (LSB) Right-side bridge time/left-side bridge time For muscular balance between the sides of the torso, the score should be no greater than 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0 (that is, an acceptable range would be a score somewhere between 0.95 to 1.05). Side bridge (SB) (either side): Extension One-side bridge time/extension time For muscular balance between one side and the back of the torso, the score should be less than 0.75. Let's work through an example. A client completed the three tests with the following results: Flexor Test: 120 seconds RS Bridge: 88 seconds Extension Test: 150 seconds LS Bridge: 92 seconds Scoring and Evaluation Flexion: Extension 120 seconds:150 seconds = 120/150 = 0.8 The score of 0.8 fits within the criteria of \<1.0 for muscular balance between the front and back of the torso. RSB: LSB 88 seconds:92 seconds = 88/92 = 0.96 (0.956 rounded up) This score fits within the 0.05 range from 1.0 (that is, it falls between 0.95 and 1.05), indicating muscular balance between the right and left sides of the torso. Side bridge (choose one side at a time, but remember to perform the ratio calculation for both sides): Extension RSB = 88 seconds:150 seconds = 88/150 = 0.59 (0.586 rounded up) This score fits within the criteria of \<0.75 for muscular balance between the right side and the back of the torso. Side bridge: Extension LSB = 92 seconds:150 seconds = 92/150 = 0.61 (0.613 rounded down) This score fits within the criteria of \<0.75 for muscular balance between the right side and the back of the torso. The results show that this client has well-balanced torso muscles. [https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A\_9mhL-\_04c&t=165s](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A_9mhL-_04c&t=165s)

Answer 109

A standing, relaxed postural assessment may be conducted to evaluate body-segment alignment. The information gathered in this type of static postural assessment may be used (in combination with movement screens) to evaluate how posture, both good and bad, impacts a client's ability to move. The important observation to make during a static postural assessment is how (if at all) a person's joints differ from what is considered "ideal" or "neutral." Deviations from a neutral posture could mean that muscles on each side of the joint are chronically tight or weak. When muscles are overused or in a chronically shortened position at rest (e.g., hip flexors when seated) they may become tight. When those opposing muscles are underused or in a chronically lengthened position (e.g., hip extensors when seated), they can become weak. What you'll notice in these compensations is that they're almost always paired muscles groups, meaning that the agonist (the one responsible for the action in the compensation) is tight and the antagonist (the opposing muscle group) is weak. In that case, you want to stretch the agonist muscles and strengthen the antagonist muscles. Start by looking at static postural analysis and then move on to the movement assessments.

Answer 110

Apley's scratch test [Video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GL6kBBMtWkY&list=PLxdf3t0LRHQu8-47F6pcv2FIx9WlrHIEf&index=6&t=215s) [Text](https://www.acefitness.org/certifiednewsarticle/2660/a-commonsense-approach-to-addressing-shoulder/)

Answer 111

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3815/physiological-assessments-anthropometric-measurements](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3815/physiological-assessments-anthropometric-measurements) [https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HtFC2AD2oPM&list=PLxdf3t0LRHQu8-47F6pcv2FIx9WlrHIEf&index=7](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HtFC2AD2oPM&list=PLxdf3t0LRHQu8-47F6pcv2FIx9WlrHIEf&index=7)

Answer 112

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3535/muscles-that-move-the-arm](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3535/muscles-that-move-the-arm)

Answer 113

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3594/muscles-that-move-the-leg](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3594/muscles-that-move-the-leg)

Answer 114

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3594/muscles-that-move-the-leg](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3594/muscles-that-move-the-leg)

Answer 115

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3562/core-anatomy-muscles-of-the-core](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3562/core-anatomy-muscles-of-the-core)

Answer 116

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching)

Answer 117

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) This type of stretching capitalizes on the use of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition, and includes three types of techniques: Hold-relax Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch. Hold and resist force applied by the fitness professional, causing an isometric contraction in the target muscle group, for six seconds. Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase range of motion (ROM). There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition. Contract-relax Perform a passive 10-second pre-stretch. The fitness professional applies resistance, counteracting the client’s force of concentric contraction of the target muscle group, without completely restricting the joint through its ROM. Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM. There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to autogenic inhibition. Hold-relax with agonist contraction This technique is similar to the Hold-relax technique, but differs for the final stretch. Relax the muscle group and allow a passive stretch. Concentrically contract the opposing muscle group of the target muscle group that is being stretched; hold for 30 seconds to increase ROM. There should be a greater stretch during this final phase due to reciprocal and autogenic inhibition. [https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/2966/types-of-stretching)

Answer 118

[https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3516/muscles-that-move-the-scapulae](https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/ace-answers/exam-preparation-blog/3516/muscles-that-move-the-scapulae)

Answer 119

Test for hip flexion/ Quardriceps ## Footnote 1. Lowered thigh not touch table, knee not flex to 80 degrees \> Tight: Primary hip flexor muscles 2. Lowered thigh not touch table, knee flex to 80 degress \> Tight: iliopsoas (hip) 3. Lowered thigh touch table, knee not flex to 80 degrees \> Tight: rectus femoris (quad)