ACE 03 Program Design 33% Flashcards
1
Q
A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?
A
Longitudinal
Why?
Penniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement allows for speed of contraction.
2
Q
Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position?
A
Opposition of the thumb
Why?
Opposition of the thumb is a movement unique to primates and humans that follows a semicircle toward the little finger. Each of the other movements is uniplanar.
3
Q
Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance?
A
Levator scapulae and trapezius
Why?
These two muscles that act at the shoulder girdle to elevate the scapula are effectively targeted by shoulder shrugs.
4
Q
The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk?
A
Multifidi
Why?
The multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are effectively targeted by the birddog.
5
Q
Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?
A
Medial muscles
Why?
The medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction.
6
Q
What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg?
A
Adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and ecentrically in the downward phase.
Why?
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 121
7
Q
The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?
A
Superficial posterior compartment
Why?
The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are all located in the superficial posterior compartment of the lower leg and serve as primary plantarflexors of the ankle joint.
8
Q
When evaluating a new client’s posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with a decreased anterior lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural deviation does this client have?
A
Sway back
Why?
Sway-back posture is a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with a decreased anterior lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. It is often accompanied by rounded shoulders, a sunken chest, and a forward-tilted head. If an individual has this postural abnormality and cannot actively assume a neutral-spine posture, the fitness professional should refer him or her to a physician.
9
Q
Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the multifidi) in providing feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine?
A
Transverse abdominis
Why?
Coactivation of the transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles occur before any movements of the limbs. Specifically, these two muscles are activated an average of 30 milliseconds before shoulder movement and 110 milliseconds before leg movement. What is the importance of this temporal pattern of trunk muscle recruitment? The transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles are thought to play a vital role in providing feedback about spinal joint position, and thus forewarn the central nervous system about impending dynamic forces to be created in the extremities that may destabilize the spine.
10
Q
“Shoulder girdle” is the informal term for the _______________.
A
Scapulothoracic articulation
Why?
Shoulder girdle is the informal term for scapulothoracic (S/T) articulation, which consists of the muscles and fascia connecting the scapula to the thorax.
11
Q
The _______________ joint allows inversion and eversion of the foot.
A
Subtalar
Why?
The articulation of the talus and the calcaneus is referred to as the subtalar joint, which allows inversion and eversion of the foot.
12
Q
There are _______________ compartments in the lower leg.
A
Three
Why?
Like the thigh, the lower leg has three separate compartments that are divided by connective tissue: anterior, posterior, and lateral compartments.
13
Q
The _______________ compartment extends the toes and dorsiflexes/inverts the foot.
A
The anterior compartment of the lower leg contains muscles that extend the toes and dorsiflex and/or invert the foot.
14
Q
The _______________ and _______________ are powerful plantar flexors that share an insertion on the Achilles tendon.
A
Gastrocnemius; soleus
Why?
The gastrocnemius and soleus are powerful plantar flexors that make up the bulk of the calf and share a common insertion on the Achilles tendon.
15
Q
If an individual has tight hip flexors, what condition can occur in the lumbar spine?
A
Lordosis
Why?
Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, tight hip flexors can result in passive hyperextension of the lumbar spine, which is known as lordosis.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 118
16
Q
The _______________ muscle group is the prime mover during a prone leg curl. As the knee flexes, a(n) _______________ contraction occurs. As the knee extends, a(n) _______________ contraction occurs.
A
Hamstring; concentric; eccentric
Why?
The primary knee flexors are the hamstrings; they are the prime mover during a prone leg curl. As the knee flexes, a concentric contraction occurs, and as the knee extends, an eccentric contraction occurs.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 123
17
Q
The _______________ muscle group is the prime mover during a squat. As the knee flexes, a(n) _______________ contraction occurs. As the knee extends, _______________ contraction occurs.
A
Quadriceps; eccentric; concentric
Why?
The quadriceps femoris is the prime mover for knee extension when acting concentrically. As the knee flexes during the downward motion of a squat, the quadriceps act eccentrically to allow knee flexion. On the upward motion of the squat, the quadriceps muscles act concentrically as prime movers to extend the knee.
18
Q
You notice when a client or class participant bends down that his heels cannot maintain contact with the floor. What muscles can you suspect to be tight?
A
Plantar flexors
Why?
The large muscles of the superficial posterior tibial compartment are the primary plantar flexors of the ankle joint. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are often inflexible, particularly among individuals who regularly wear high-heeled shoes.
19
Q
You notice a client or class participant is running “flat-footed.” You can hear her foot slap the treadmill with every step. What muscles can you suspect to be weak?
A
Dorsiflexors
Why?
When acting concentrically, the muscles of the lower leg produce dorsiflexion of the ankle, and work together during walking and running to eccentrically lower the foot to the ground with control. Without the eccentric action of the dorsiflexor muscles as dynamic shock absorbers, the foot would slap the ground with each stride or impact.
20
Q
The concentric contraction of the upper trapezius produces _______________ and _______________ of the scapula.
A
Elevation; upward rotation
Why?
The fibers of the upper trapezius are angled upward and obliquely. Therefore, if the upper fibers are activated concentrically, they will produce elevation and upward rotation of the scapula.
21
Q
If scapular adductors are weak, the postural deviation called _______________ is likely.
A
Kyphosis
Why?
Kyphosis is defined as an excessive posterior curvature of the spine, resulting in a rounded-shoulders posture. If the scapular adductors are weak, fatigued, or injured, the muscular tension created by the pectoralis minor will tilt the scapulae forward and down, resulting in kyphosis.
22
Q
Scapular protraction is also known as _______________.
A
Abduction
Why?
Scapular protraction is also known as abduction. Concentric activity of the pectoralis minor results in abduction of the scapula.
23
Q
Injury to the _______________ is common in baseball pitchers because of the repetitious pattern of abduction, flexion, and rotation of the shoulder.
A
Rotator cuff
Why?
The four musculotendinous attachments of the rotator cuff can become inflamed as a result of performing many repetitions of movements that involve abduction, flexion, and rotation, as seen in the throwing motion of baseball pitchers.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 143-144
24
Q
During the up-phase of a shoulder overhead press, the middle deltoid is _______________ contracting.
A
Concentrically
Why?
The fibers of the middle deltoid are aligned perfectly with the frontal plane, and thus this muscle is the primer mover in concentric abduction of the shoulder joint, as seen during the upward phase of a shoulder overhead press.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 142
25
The _______________ deltoid extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder.
Posterior
Why?
The posterior deltoid is located on the back side of the glenohumeral joint and has the exact opposite functions as the anterior deltoid: it extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder.
26
An individual is performing a seated leg press. What prime movers initiate this exercise?
Knee extensors and hip extensors
Why?
The knee extensors (quadriceps femoris) and hip extensors (hamstrings and gluteus maximus) are the prime movers that initiate the movement to straighten the legs at the beginning of a seated leg press.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 118, 122
27
Which of the following exercises would be MOST appropriate for an individual who needs to strengthen the hip adductors?
Side-lying leg lifts with the bottom leg lifting upward
Why?
Side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg lifting upward require the adductors to work concentrically in the upward phase and eccentrically in the downward phase.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 121
28
What muscle or muscle group is the prime mover during a prone hamstring curl?
Knee flexors
Why?
The prime movers during a prone hamstring curl are the knee flexors, which are comprised of the hamstrings muscle group.
29
Your client or class participant is experiencing some pain in her low back when performing abdominal exercises. Which of the following imbalances could potentially cause this condition?
Tightness in the iliopsoas
Why?
Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, iliopsoas tightness can result in lordosis, which can cause low-back pain, particularly during the second half of a sit-up and with prolonged periods of sitting. To correct the anterior pelvic tilt position associated with lumbar lordosis, focus on strengthening the abdominal and hip extensor muscles, while stretching the hip flexors and spine extensors.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 116, 128-129
30
What is the primary action of the gluteus medius?
Hip abduction
Why?
The three gluteal muscles—gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and the superior fibers of the gluteus maximus—are the primary hip abductors and are assisted by the tensor fasciae latae. The gluteus medius is the largest of the hip abductor muscles, two times larger than the gluteus minimus.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 119
31
What group of muscles works eccentrically during the down-phase of a squat?
Gluteus maximus and hamstrings
Why?
Eccentric action of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings controls the downward phase of the squat into hip flexion.
32
Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.
Protein
Why?
Of the three macronutrients, relatively little protein is used for energy production except in extreme cases of caloric restriction. Protein is principally used in the growth and repair of tissue or is excreted.
33
Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion?
Phosphagen system
Why?
The total amount of ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) stored in muscle is very small, and thus the amount of energy available for muscular contraction is extremely limited. There is probably enough energy available from the phosphagens for only about 10 seconds of all-out exertion, if there were not continual resynthesis of ATP.
34
What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) anaerobically?
Carbohydrate
Why?
Carbohydrate serves as the major food fuel for the metabolic production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is a chemical compound required for all cellular work. Importantly, carbohydrate is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates ATP anaerobically. This is crucial during maximal exercise that requires rapid energy release above levels supplied by aerobic metabolism.
35
During high-intensity workouts, when there is inadequate oxygen, pyruvate converts into _______________.
The Correct Answer is:
Lactate
Why?
If exercise intensity is very high and adequate amounts of oxygen are not available, pyruvate can be converted into lactate, which may be transported out of the active cell and used for energy by other cells in the body. This allows for the continued production of pyruvate via anaerobic glycolysis, resulting in a steady supply of ATP.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 74
36
Beta oxidation is a result of _______________.
The breakdown of fatty acids to produce ATP
Why?
Beta oxidation, also called fatty acid oxidation, occurs within the mitochondria and is an aerobic pathway that breaks down fatty acids to produce ATP.
37
The primary energy system used during a plyometric jump squat is the _______________.
Phosphogen system
Why?
The phasphagen system is instantaneously available for muscular contraction and is essential during short-term, high-intensity activities such as sprinting or strength-training exercises like a plyometric jump squat.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 73
38
Aerobic glycolysis occurs in the cells’ _______________, and anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the cells’ _______________.
Mitochondria; cytoplasm
Why?
Aerobic glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that occurs within highly specialized cell structures called the mitochondria, which are often called the powerhouses of the cell. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs within the cytoplasm of the cell and involves the incomplete breakdown of glucose to a simpler substance called pyruvate.
39
_______________ is the primary nutrient utilized during high-intensity exercise.
Carbohydrate
Why?
Compared to fatty-acid metabolism, glucose metabolism requires less oxygen, so the body will use more glucose and less fat for energy production as exercise intensity increases. The respiratory exchange ratio is a marker of the proportion of fat or carbohydrate that is being used for fuel at different exercise intensities. At higher intensities, carbohydrate becomes the primary source of fuel.
40
Oxidative glycolysis occurs as a result of sufficient _______________ in the mitochondria.
Oxygen
Why?
Oxidative glycolysis, which occurs within the mitochondria, is limited mainly by the capacity of the cardiorespiratory system to deliver oxygen to the active cells.
41
Blood glucose is efficient in fueling _______________ exercise, whereas muscle glycogen is more efficient in fueling _______________ exercise.
Low-intensity; high-intensity
Why?
Blood glucose plays a greater role in energy metabolism during low-intensity exercise, as the body's ability to deliver glucose is comparable to the rate of glucose utilization. However, muscle glycogen is the primary source of carbohydrate during high-intensity exercise, as the rate of glucose utilization far exceeds the rate of glucose delivery.
42
When lactic acid accumulates in the body during exercise, the liver converts it to _______________ as a way to continue fueling the muscle.
Glucose
Why?
During exercise, some of the lactate that is produced by skeletal muscles is transported to the liver via the blood. The liver then converts the lactate back to glucose and releases it into the bloodstream to be transported back to the skeletal muscles to be used as an energy source. The cycle of lactate-to-glucose between the muscle and the liver is called the Cori cycle. This process works to preserve the body's glucose levels and to ensure that the muscles have adequate fuel to perform work.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 222-223
43
During the first hour of a half-marathon, carbohydrate metabolism is fueled by _______________.
Muscle glycogen
Why?
During the first hour of submaximal endurance exercise, such as a half-marathon, much of the carbohydrate metabolized by muscle comes from muscle glycogen.
44
During low-intensity exercise, _______________ is/are the primary source of fat energy.
Plasma free fatty acids
Why?
During low-intensity exercise, plasma free fatty acids are the primary source of fat energy. Furthermore, as the duration of the exercise increases, there is a progressive rise in the role of plasma free fatty acids as a fuel source.
45
What are the 3 primary energy pathways?
1. Phosphagen (immediate source)
2. Anaerobic (somewhat slow, uses carbohydrates)
3. Aerobic (slow, uses either carbohydrate or fat)
https://www.acefitness.org/fitness-certifications/resource-center/exam-preparation-blog/3256/the-three-primary-energy-pathways-explained
46
The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT® Model in their proper order:
Stability and mobility training
Movement training
Load training
Performance training
47
During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT® Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?
Load training
Why?
The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client's particular goals.
48
True or False? A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training.
FALSE
Why?
While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels.
49
True or False? It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program.
FALSE
Why?
No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p.98
50
True or False? No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training.
TRUE
Why?
No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase, since many of the clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 102-103
51
What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client's cardiorespiratory training program?
The Correct Answer is:
To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
Why?
The goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1, and to improve the client's ability to utilize fat as a fuel source.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 103-104
52
A client who is in phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT® Model is beginning to utilize the three-zone training model based on ventilatory threshold. Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1 and VT2?
< 10%
Why?
The full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:
Zone 1 (at or below VT1): 70-80% of training timeZone 2 (between VT1 and VT2): <10% of training timeZone 3 (at or above VT2): 10-20% of training timeACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 104
53
Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT® Model generally have goals related to _____________.
Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events
Why?
Clients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 105-106
54
What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?
To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes
Why?
The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes.
55
```
What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model build upon?
a. Health improvement
b. Functional fitness
C. Developing rapport
D. cardiorespiratory fitness
```
Developing rapport
56
In what phase of the functional movement and resistance traing component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week?
Phase 1: Stability and mobility training
57
A regular group exercise participant with no competitive goals wold be classified in which phase of the cardio training component of the ACE IFT Model?
Phase 1: Aerobic-base training
Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training
Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training
Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training
Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training
58
Mobility and stability of the kinetic chain
```
Mobility:
Glenohumeral (Shoulder joint)
Thoracic Spine (Upper back)
Hip
Ankle
```
```
Stability:
Scapulothoracic
Lumbar spine (Lower back)
Knee
Foot
```
59
5 movements of ADL
1. Bend and lift
2. Single leg
3. Pushing
4. Pulling
5. Rotational
60
Benefits of resistance training
Increase strength in tendons, ligaments and bone mineral density
Avg for previously untrained adults: RMR +7% increase, increase 1.4kg muscle, reduce fat by 1.8kg in 10 weeks
61
Physical capacity decrease with age. Non- training adults lose ____kg of muscle tissue per decade
2.3kg
62
After 3 days of intense strength training, untrained individuals will increase ___% increase in resting metabolism, trained individuals will increase ___% in RMR
8%
| 9%
63
Which of the following joints is classified as favoring stability over mobility?
a. scapulothoracic
b. ankle
c. thoracic spine
d. glenohumeral
a scapulothoracic
p.264
64
a lack of hip joint mobility is most likely to lead to which of the following?
a. hypermobility in the scapulothoracic joints and thoracic spine
b. compromised stability in the knees and the lumbar spine
c. hypermobility in the knee, ankle, and foot joints
d. compromised mobility in the knees and lubar spine
b. compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
| p. 264
65
limited movement over an extended period of time, such as is seens with injury and postural deviations, can result in muscle shortening on one side of a joint and muscle lengthening on the other side of the joint. How do these length changes affect the force-generating capacity of these muscles?
They will have great force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths.
p.266
66
which force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt?
hamstrings and rectus abdominis
p.267
67
THe middle layer of torso muscles that are commonly referred to as 'the core' consists of the ....
multifidi, quadratus lumborum, transverse abdominis, deep fibers of the internal oblique, diaphragm, and pelvic floor musculature
p.275
68
Once a client can perform two sets of 10 reps of glute bridges, which exercise would privde the most appropriate progression?
single- leg glute bridge with opposit knee to chest
| p. 286
69
which progression follows the part-to-whole teaching strategy in helping a client learn proper technique for the bend-and-lift squatting movement?
Hip hinge, lower extremity alignment, figure-4 position
p.308-309
70
Once a client demo good form while performing kneeling wood-chop spiral patterns with short and long moment arms, what exercise would provide the most appropriate progression?
standing wood-shop spiral patterns with short moment arms
p.320
71
muscles have been shown to shorten when held passively in shortened psition in as few as _____
two to four weeks
p.266
72
which of the following neuromuscular principles occurs when the activation of a muslce on one side of a joint coincides with neural inhibition of the opposing muslce on the other side of the joint?
reciprocal inhibition
p.272
73
which muscle group is primarily responsible for the hoop tension effect during core stabilization techniques?
transverse abdominis
The transverse abdominis (TVA) is the key muscle that
works reflexively with the neural system to produces what
is known as the “hoop tension” effect. This action is
similar to tightening a belt around the waist. By efficiently
activating the TVA, intra-abdominal pressure around the
spine is increased. This increase in pressure helps stabilize
and protect the spine against various loading forces.
p.276
74
Standard resistance training consists of how many sets and exercise and reps
3 sets of 8 exercise, 10 repseach
75
How much more RMR is increased with a challenging resistance workout?
8-9% RMR 3 days after workout. Probably for muscle building process
76
General training frequency training guideline
Beginners 2-3/ week
Intermediate 3-4/ week
Advance 4-7/ week
77
Double-progressive training protocol to via reps and and load. How much weight and how many reps to increase?
1. 10 reps at X kg
2. Train until one can do 15 reps at X kg
3. Then train at 12 rep at 1.05x of X kg (0.5% increase)
4. Go back to step 2 at 1.05x of X kg
First progression add reps
Second progression add resistance
Resistance is increased only when the end range number of rep can be completed with proper form
78
How much weight/ what is the rate of adults lose due to lack of exercise?
Adults lose about 3 pounds/ 1.4kg of muscle every 6 years
79
How much muscle an adult can gain in 3 months with basic strength training program?
3 pounds/ 1.4kg muscle
80
Rate of losing strength
One half of the rate it was gained.
E.g. gained 50% leg press strength over 10 weeks training. Lose half of the strength gained by 10weeks. Lose all leg press strength gained in 20 weeks
81
Period ised training is divided into 3 time segments
Macrocycles - e.g. 6 months (program timeframe)
Mesocycles - e.g 3 months (specific training goals)
Microcycles -e.g 2 - 4 weeks (progressive training segments for each mesocycle)
82
Periodised programs may be performed in either a ____ linear manner or an ______ undulating approach
linear periodization - provides consistent training protocol within each microcycle and changes the training variables after each microcycle.
undulating approach - different training protocols during the microcycle in addition to changing the training variables after each microcycle.
83
ACE Integrated Fitness Training model
```
Phase 1: Stability and mobility training
Phase 2: Movement Training - 5 primary movements effectively in all 3 planes. improve client's ability to perform daily activities.
2.1 Bend-and-lift
2.2 Single-leg
2.3 Pushing
2.4 Pulling
2.5 rotational
timeframe: 2weeks to 2 months
Phase 3: Load Training
obj: increase muscular endurance, strength, hypertrophy, body composition, movement, function and health.
Phase 4: Performance training
```
84
Traditional training for muscular endurance
total-body workout
3 sets of 12 to 16 reps performance for 10 exercise. , 1-2 mins rest between successive sets.
around 90 mins for completion
more time-efficient is circuit strength training.
10 station strength-training circuit, 10s transition between exercise, 90s to perform each. one circuit will take around 17mins, 2 circuits around 33 mins, 3 circuits around 50 mins to complete (around half the time to complete for traditional training).
major disadvantage is use of lower weight loads (typically 40-60% of max) due to fatigue from nearly continuous resistance exercise.
85
Standard split routine
1. chest, shoulders, triceps (pushing) on Mon, Thu
2. upper back and biceps (pulling) on Tue and Fri
3. Leg muscles and trunk (squats, lunges) on Wed and Sat
86
FIRST Guidelines for muscle hypertrophy (body building)
Frequency - high vol, several sets of many exercises for each major muscle group. typically split routines are employed (6 days split)
Intensity - 70-80% of max resistance (higher than muscular endurance training) and lower than muscular-strength training. mod weight loads, mod number of reps with little rest between sets.
Repetitions - 6-12 rep for muscle hypertrophy training.
Sets - 3 to 6 sets of each exercise is recommended for muscle hypertrophy. 30-90s between training sets.
Type - use combo of free weights and machines to target all music groups
at higher levels of competitive bodybuilding, each body part is trained with very high vol workouts just one day a week.
87
Body builders of train with 2 approaches: supersets and compound sets.
1. superset - alt exercise for opposing muscle groups with little rest between sets. E.g. 4 sets of leg extensions with 4 sets of leg curls, moving quickly between the leg extension machine and leg curl machine.
2. compound sets: 2 or more exercises for same muscles in rapid succession. e.g. alt 3 sets of triceps press-downs and 3 sets of bench dips to push the triceps to a high level of fatigue and muscle pump.
88
breakdown training
train to muscle fatigue, then immediately reduce the resistance by 10-20% and perform as many additional rest as possible to attain a deeper level of muscle fatigue.
89
assisted training
trying to muscle fatigue, then receive manual assistance from a training on the lifting phase (concentric) for 3 to 5 post fatigue reps. Because ppl are about 40% stronger on eccentric muscle actions on concentric muscle actions. The exercise does not receive assistance on the lowering phase. When exerciser has difficult controlling the lowering action, the post-fatigue reps are terminated.
90
Frequency of speed and agility training workouts
Range between 1-3 non consecutive days per week
91
Sarcopenia
Lose muscle mass
92
Training variables for speed and agility drills
Beginner - 15-30s <70% max intensity/ effort
Intermediate - <10s, >90% max effort
Advance - 10-60s, >75-90% max effort
93
Youth strength training benefits
P374
Boys and girls who performed 5 basic resistance exercise twice a week for 8 weeks experienced 5x strength development as matched control students
Enhance skeletal dev - 4x BMD who did 10 months of resistance training
94
Cardio training phase
1. Aerobic base training
2. Aerobic efficiency training
3. Anaerobic endurance training
4. Anaerobic power training
95
Which of the following physiological states would most likely occur as a result of one resistance training session?
A. Increased strength
B. Transient hypertrophy
C. Bone remodeling
D. increased lean body mass
B. transient hypertrophy
96
You are working a new client who wants to begin resistance training in prep for a 1 month backpacking trip he will be taking through the Rocky mountain. Which of the following training sets and reps ranges would be BEST for helping him prepare for the rigors of this multiday trip?
A. 1-2 sets of 8-10 reps
B. 2-4 sets of 4-6 reps
C. 2-3 sets of 12-16 reps
D. 3-5 sets of 6-12 reps
C. 2-3 sets of 12-16 reps
97
What work to recovery ratio would be MOST appropriate to include in a resistance-training circuit for small-group personal training sessions with clients who have primary goals that require enhanced muscular endurance?
A. 75 sec work interval: 15s recovery interval
B. 90s work interview: 2-3 min recovery interval
C. 90s work interval: 60s recover interval
D. 75 s work interval; 3-5 min recovery interval
A. 75 sec work interval: 15s recovery interval
Muscular endurance training parameters: >= 12 reps, <=30s rest
98
The resistance-training program you have designed for a client has her performing 8-12 reps during each set, using a double-progressive training protocol for advancing workload. During her most recent personal trianing sessions, she wa able to perform 2 sets of 12 reps on leg press machine with 200 lb. Based on this info, what would be the MOST appropriate progresion for her on the leg press exercise?
A. Increase weight to 220 lb and work toward 12 reps at this new weight
B. Continue ith current weight until reaching 15 reps per set, then incrase weight by 10%
C. Increase weight to 210 lb and work toward 12 rep at this new weight
D. Raise the weight to 240 lb and perform 8 reps
C. Increase weight to 210 lb and work toward 12 rep at this new weight
In the double -progressive strength-training protocol, the first progression is adding reps, then 2nd progression is adding resistance in approx 5% increments.
99
Which of the following programs would be MOST appropriate for a client who has a primary focus on improving muscular strength?
A. 2 sets of 4-6 reps for each major muscle group or movement patters, utilizaing a split routie that allows 72-96 hrs recovery time before working the same muscle group again.
B. 2 sets of 8012 rep for each major movement pattering, 3 day undulating periodization mode for full-body training with 48 hrs recovering time between workouts
C. 3 sets of 8-10 reps for each major muscle group or movement pattern, utilizing a split routine that allows 48-72 hrs recovery time before working the same muslce grup again
A. 2 sets of 4-6 reps for each major muscle group or movement patters, utilizaing a split routie that allows 72-96 hrs recovery time before working the same muscle group again.
For muscular stength optimization, clients should train at an intensity (load) that fatigues the targeted muscle groups at 4-8 reps per set and allow at least 72 hrs of recovery between working the same muscle group subsequently.
100
You are working with a cient who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Before progressing this client to peformance training (phase 4). what criterais should be meet to allow for a safe and effective trainsition to this type of training?
good postural stability, proper movement patterns, and relatively high level of strength.
101
Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility?
Knee
Why?
In terms of mobility and stability of joints along the kinetic chain, the knee favors stability over mobility, while the other three options favor mobility.
102
Two key hormones bond brain and body
CRH - corticotropin releasing hormone
| ACHT - adrenocorticotropin hormone
103
When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by targeting which region of the body?
Lumbar spine
Why?
The process begins by targeting an important proximal region of the body, the lumbar spine, which encompasses the body's center of mass and the core. As this region is primarily stable, programming should begin by first promoting stability of the lumbar region through the action and function of the core. Once an individual demonstrates the ability to stabilize this region, the program should then progress to the more distal segments.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 269-270
104
After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________.
Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
Why?
A programming sequence that promotes stability and mobility within the body will adhere to the basic principle that proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. With this in mind, the next step after establishing stability in the lumbar spine is to address mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 271
105
A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client?
Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching
Why?
Dynamic and ballistic stretches are appropriate during a pre-exercise stretching routine for athletes interested in improving their functional flexibility.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 271
106
Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?
Latissimus dorsi
Why?
The outermost layer consists of larger, more powerful muscles that span many vertebrae and are primarily responsible for generating gross movement and forces within the trunk. Muscles in this region include the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus dorsi.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 276
107
The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.
TRUE
Why?
The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 275
Close Answer & Details »
108
A key role of the serratus anterior during open kinetic chain movement is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.
FALSE
Why?
During open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to control movement of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 291-292
109
Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?
Lowering the center of mass
Why?
Lowering the center of mass will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise, while the other choices will all increase the balance challenge.
110
Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?
Rotational movements
Why?
The need for thoracic mobility is greater during rotational movements than with pushing and pulling movements, given the three-dimensional nature of the movement patterns. Performing these exercises without thoracic mobility or lumbar stability may compromise the shoulders and hips, and increase the likelihood for injury.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 319
111
Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the movement-training phase?
Wood-chop
Why?
The wood-chop is a rotational movement. The unilateral row is a pulling movement, the lunge is a single-leg movement, and the hip hinge is a bend-and-lift movement.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 319-321
112
Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed?
Muscular power
Why?
Muscular power is the product of muscular strength and movement speed. Assuming that an individual's movement speed remains the same, an increase in muscular strength is accompanied by a proportional increase in muscular power.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 334
113
A client's resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal?
Muscular strength
Why?
Muscular strength is addressed with any training regimen involving the performance of two to six sets of six or fewer repetitions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 338
114
According to the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about __________ that it was gained
One-half the rate
Why?
A client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about one-half the rate that it was gained. For example, if an individual increased his or her leg press strength by 50% over a 10-week training period, he or she would lose half of that strength gain after 10 weeks of no resistance exercise, and all of his or her strength gain after 20 weeks without training.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 343
115
What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the following regimen?
Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between exercises for the same muscle groupsIntensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70 secondsRepetitions: Eight to 12Three to four sets with 30 to 60 seconds rest between successive training setsType: A combination of multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including breakdown training and assisted training
Your Choice was:
Muscular hypertrophy
Why?
This workout program would best address muscular hypertrophy. Muscle hypertrophy training typically involves lower weightloads and higher repetitions than muscular-strength training, but higher weightloads and lower repetitions than muscular-endurance training. The recommended training intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (or a repetition range of eight to 12).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 355-357
116
plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?
Muscular power
Why?
To improve the production of muscular force and power, plyometric exercise can be implemented. Plyometric exercise incorporates quick, powerful movements and involves the stretch-shortening cycle [an active stretch (eccentric contraction) of a muscle followed by an immediate shortening (concentric contraction) of that same muscle].
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 361
117
Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?
Hops and bounds
Why?
Hops and bounds are the most intense of the options listed. Hops involve taking off and landing with the same foot, while bounds involve the process of alternating feet during the take-off and landing. Hops and bounds emphasize horizontal speed and are performed repeatedly with no rest between actions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 362-364
118
What plyometric drill would provide most appropriate progression for a client who can successfullly perform a predetermined nuber of vertical jumps and single linear jumps?
A. depth jumps
B. multidirectional jmps
C. Hops and bounds
D. Multiple linear jumps
D. Multiple linear jumps
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