abdominal pathology midterm Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following is a type of aneurysm?
A. pseudoaneurysm  
B. balloon  
C. annular  
D. saccular
A

D. saccular

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2
Q

What is one of the symptoms for a ruptured aneurysm?
A. increased hematocrit

B. hypertension

C. low back pain

D. all of the above are symptoms of a ruptured aneurysm

A

C

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3
Q

What measurement indicates an abdominal aneurysm?
A. 1 cm

B. > 3cm

C. < 3 cm

D. 3 cm

A

B

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4
Q

A pulsatile hematoma which results from the leakage of blood into the soft tissue adjacent to a punctured artery is a ______?
A. saccular aneurysm

B. fusiform aneurysm

C. aortic dissection

D. pseudoaneurysm

A

D

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of an aneurysm?
A. smoking

B. alcohol abuse

C. genetics

D. atherosclerosis

A

D

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6
Q

What are the acceptable treatment option for abdominal aneurysm that measures 6cm?
A. nothing this is normal

B. evaluate it every 6 months using ultrsound

C. surgery

D. this size is considered to high risk for surgery

A

C

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7
Q

What is the primary function of the aorta?

A. pump unoxygenated blood to the body

B. pump oxygenated blood to the heart

C. pump unoxygenated blood to the heart

D. pump oxygenated blood to the body

A

D

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8
Q

A 55 year old man is seen for a routine physical examination. During the examination, the physicians feels a pulsatile mass at the level of the umbilicus. An ultrasound is ordered for which of the following indications?
A. to rule out rupture

B. to rule out dissection

C. to rule out abdominal aortic aneurysm

D. to rule out atherosclerotic disease

A

C

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9
Q

The first branch off the abdominal aorta is:
A. Celiac axis

B. Superior mesenteric artery

C. Inferior mesenteric vein

D. Superior mesenteric vein

A

A

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10
Q

A 40 year old man with a history of Marfan syndrome is seen with intense chest pain in the emergency department. Which of the following diagnoses should should be the primary consideration?
A. aortic rupture

B. aortic aneurysm

C. aortic dissection

D. heart attack

A

C

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11
Q

What are two vessels that are nonresistive? A. splenic artery
B. Aorta
C. renal artery
D. femoral artery

A

A & C

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12
Q

What is used to prevent thrombi from traveling to the lungs and becoming pulmonary emboli?
A. surgica removal of thrombus

B. filter

C. blood thinner

D. bed rest

A

B

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13
Q

Enlargement of the IVC, with subsequent enlargement of the hepatic veins, is seen in cases of:
A. right sided heart failure

B. Budd-Chiari syndrome

C. Marfan syndrome

D. left sided heart failure

A

A

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14
Q

What veins join to form the IVC?

A. Iliac Veins

B. Iliac Arteries

C. Renal Veins

D. Renal Arteries

A

A

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15
Q

What are the largest tributaries to the IVC?

A. Superior Mesenteric Vein

B. Renal Veins

C. Iliac Veins

D. Hepatic Veins

A

D

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16
Q

Which of the following statements about the IVC is not true?
A. respirations can affect the size of the IVC

B. the diameter of the IVC is variable

C. the IVC is located to the left of the abdominal aorta

D. the IVC is considered retroperitoneal in location

A

C

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17
Q

The most common tumor to invade the IVC is
A. islet cell carcinoma

B. renal cell carcinoma

C. venous angioma

D. nephroma

A

B

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18
Q

Question 19 of 25 1.0 Points

What is an example of a high resistive vessel.
A. aorta

B. hepatic artery

C. renal artery

D. splenic artery

A

A

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19
Q

The most common origin of pulmonary embolism arives from the:
A. lower extremities

B. upper extremities

C. lungs

D. heart

A

A

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20
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of complete IVC thrombosis?
A. hypotension

B. hypertension

C. elevated hematocrit

D. back pain

A

D

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21
Q

What is the most common intraluminal pathology of the IVC?
A. plaque

B. enlargment of the IVC

C. thrombus

D. renal cell carcinoma

A

C

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22
Q

What is a difference in nonresitive and resisitive blood vessels?
A. nonresistive vessels have little or no diastolic flow

B. resistive vessels provide constant profusion to organs

C. nonresistive vessels provide constant profusion to organs

D. resistive vessels have high diastolic flow

23
Q

What is the normal gallbladder wall measurement?
A. > 6mm

B. < 6mm

C. < 3mm

D. > 3mm

24
Q

What is the most common disease of the gallbladder?
A. cholelithiasis

B. gallbladder carcinoma

C. cholecystitis

D. porcelain GB

25
Q

Courvoisier’s gallbladder is associated with which of the following:
A. cholecystitis

B. chronic diverticulitis

C. a pancreatic head mass

D. galbladder carcinoma

26
Q

What structures join to form the common bile duct?

A. common bile duct and hepatic ducts

B. right and left hepatic ducts

C. common hepatic duct and cystic duct

D. common bile duct and cystic duct

27
Q

The yellowish staining of the whites of the eyes and the skin secondary to a liver disorder or biliary obstruction is referred to as:
A. Jaundice

B. AIDS cholangitis

C. bilirubinemia

D. puritus

28
Q

You have been asked to rule out the presence of choledocholithiasis. What are you looking for?
A. inflammation with thickening of the gallbladder wall

B. stones within the common bile duct

C. calcified gallbladder wall

D. contracted gallbladder filled with stones

29
Q

A 74 year old woman is seen with RUQ pain, jaundice, and nausea and vomiting. Ultrasound of the gallbladder reveals cholelithiasis. In addition, a 3 cm, cauliflower shaped mass is seen arising from a stalk within the gallbladder fundus. This is most suggestive of which of the following?
A. abscess

B. cholecystitis

C. gallbladder carcinoma

D. gallbladder perforation

30
Q

Hartmann pouch involves which part of the gallbladder:
A. fundus

B. body

C. neck

D. phrygian cap

31
Q

You suspect intrahepatic bile duct dilatation in a patient with right upper quadrant pain and tenderness. How can you differentiate the dilated bile ducts from intrahepatic veins?
A. dilated bile ducts demonstrate irregular, tortuous walls

B. bile ducts will not demonstrate flow with color Doppler

C. intrahepatic portal veins show increased through transmission compared to the dilated bile ducts

D. A and B

32
Q

The primary role of the biliary system is
A. to aid in digestion by storing bile

B. to secrete hormones

C. to produce bile

D. to form gallstones

33
Q

The most common sign for carcinoma of the gallbladder is:
A. mass changing with position changes

B. gallbladder wall thickening

C. shadowing posterior to the gallbladder

D. irregular immobile mass that contains low-intensity echoes within the gallbladder

34
Q

Normal diameter for the common bile duct is _________________.

A. 1 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 3 mm

D. 10 mm

35
Q

WES sign denotes:
A. a gallbaldder filled with cholelithiasis

B. multiple biliary stones and biliary dilatation

C. the presence of a gallstone lodged in the cystic duct

D. the sonographic sign of a porcelain gallbladder

36
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?
A. hepatitis

B. pancreatitits

C. calculus obstruction of the gallbladder neck or cystic duct

D. gallstone lodged in the fundus of the gallbladder

37
Q

A renal ultrasound is ordered for a patient in ICU with renal failure, TPN and a long history of hospitalization. During imaging of the right kidney, the sonographer notices that the gallbladder contains low-level echoes that layer and are gravity dependent. This is most consistent with which of the following?
A. sludge

B. abscess

C. cholelithiasis

D. cholecystitis

38
Q

Focal tenderness over the gallbladder with probe pressure describes:
A. murphy sign

B. strawberry sign

C. hydrops sign

D. courvoisier sign

39
Q

This liver function test can be elevated due to a blockage of the ducts.
A. Alkaline Phosphatase

B. biliruben

C. AST

D. ALT

40
Q

What is one of the common causes of fatty infiltrate of the liver?
A. cirrhosis

B. intravenous drug use

C. over usage of tylenol

D. pregnancy

41
Q

Which of the following is a sonographic finding of fatty infiltrate of the liver?
A. atrophy of affected lobes

B. prominent portal vein

C. increase echogenicity

D. posterior enhancement

42
Q

Inflammatory or infectious disease of the liver can also be called________________.
A. fatty infiltrate

B. cirrhosis

C. Budd-Chiari syndrome

D. hepatitis

43
Q

Hepatitis B can be spread:
A. sputum

B. uninfected blood or plasma

C. tatoos

D. through sexual contact

44
Q

Sonographic appearance of acute hepatitis:
A. attenuation

B. normal GB wall

C. atrophy of the liver

D. extreme increase in echogencity

45
Q

When is hepatitis considered chronic?
A. 3-6 months with acute hepatitis

B. 6-9 months with acute hepatitis

C. 12 months with acute hepatitis

D. 18 with acute hepatitis

46
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?
A. drug abuse

B. hepatitis

C. diabetes

D. alcohol abuse

47
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of chronic cirrhosis?
A. increase hematocrit

B. jaundice

C. weight gain

D. fever

48
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the liver?
A. cavernous hemangioma

B. adenoma

C. focal nodular hyperplasia

D. liver cysts

49
Q

A 70-year old woman is seen for malaise and wasting. The clinician orders an abdominal ultrasound because of the patient’s history of colon cancer and elevated liver function tests. The sonographer notes multiple hyperechoic lesions within the liver and hepatomegaly. This is suggestive of:
A. hemangioma

B. metastatic disease

C. hepatocellular carcinoma

D. angiosarcome

50
Q

A 45-year old man with a history of hepatitis is seen for ultrasound examintation of the abdomen. The sonographer identifies a 6 cm complex mass in the liver. This would be suspicious for which of the following tumors?
A. hepatocellular carcinoma

B. hemangioma

C. cystademoma

D. metastasis

51
Q

Which hepatic mass is closely associated with oral contraceptive use?
A. hamartoma

B. adenoma

C. hemangioma

D. hypernephroma

52
Q

Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in which cavity?

A. Peritoneal cavity

B. Perirenal Space

C. Morison’s pouch

D. Subphrenic space

53
Q

The smallest lobe of the liver that lies anterior to the inferior vena cava; superior border is the ligamentum venosum is the:
A. caudate lobe

B. middle lobe

C. left lobe

D. right lobe

54
Q

Echinococcal cysts have the highest incidence in countries in which:
A. rock climbing is prevalent

B. sheep grazing is common

C. poultry is abundant

D. fishing is common