A&P 4 Flashcards

1
Q

are active in high light conditions

A

cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When light passes into a slower medium it is bend toward an angle ______________________ to the interface between the media.

A

perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For near vision

A

the ciliary muscles contract and the lens gets fatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Photopigment is found in the ________________________________ of a photoreceptor.

A

outer segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The phosphodiesterase in the photoreceptor that is involved in light signal transduction

A

converts cGMP into GMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

There are no photoreceptors in the

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Humans can only detect a very small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wavelengths of light that are ___________ by an object can be detected by our photoreceptors when we look at the object.

A

reflected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The most refraction of light occurs when light passes through the

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The image that focuses on our retina is upside-down and backwards.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contraction of the ciliary muscles in the eye causes the suspensory ligaments to

A

pull less on the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ciliary muscle of the eye is primarily innervated by which branch of the nervous system?

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The stress response leads to enhanced

A

far-vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which cells in the retina would light hit first?

A

the ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The fovea centralis is a pit in the retina.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At the optic chiasm

A

All axons from ganglion cells on the medial side of the retina cross to the contralateral side of
the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The cochlear ducts is filled with _____________________, which is high in

A

Endolymph, potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the
lowest action potential frequency in an off-center ganglion cell.
a. Light hits only the receptive field center
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

bca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the
lowest action potential frequency in an on-center ganglion cell.
a. Light hits only the receptive field center
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

acb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An on-center ganglion cell has a red cone center and a blue cone surround. Put the following in order
from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential
frequency.
a. No light in shone on the receptive field
b. Red light is shone over the entire receptive field
c. Violet light is shone over the entire receptive field
d. White light is shone over the entire receptive field

A

badc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The scala vestibuli and the scala tympani are connected at the ___________________________, which
is at the apex of the cochlea.

A

helicotrema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is produced by the ceruminous glands?

A

ear wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ganglion cells synapse in which thalamic nucleus?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on on-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor is
it?

A

mGlu R6
Gi protein coupled receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on off-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor
is it?

A

AMPA
non spec cation channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the scientific name for the eardrum used in the videos?

A

tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name of the membrane separating the middle and inner ear that is in contact with one of
the auditory ossicles?

A

oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two terms used in the lecture for the part of the external ear that is visible when looking at
a person?

A

pinna
auricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List the auditory ossicles in order from most external to the most internal.

A

malleous
incus
stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are two names for the tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharnynx? What is the
purpose of this tube?

A

eustachian tube
auditory tube
equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the environment/external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are two names for the tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharnynx? What is the
purpose of this tube?

A

eustachian tube
auditory tube
equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the environment/external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the purpose of the auditory ossicles?

A

amplifies vibrations in tympanic membrane onto the oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In the light, on-center bipolar cells are

A

depolarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

On-center bipolar cells have

A

mGluR6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The scala tympani is filled with ____________________, which is high in

A

perilymph, sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is true?

A

all the information from the left visual field is processed on the right side of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

You would see the highest frequency of action potentials in a off-center ganglion cell when there is

A

light in the surround and dark in the center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Glutamate causes on-center bipolar cells to

A

hyperpolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Glutamate causes on-center ganglion cells to

A

fire more action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Glutamate causes off-center bipolar cells to

A

depolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

All ganglion cells have AMPA receptors.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The center-surround relationship in the retina gives us a greater ability to see a lion hiding in the grass.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The visual cortex is in the

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The Organ of Corti sits on the

A

basilar membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The basilar membrane is

A

Wide near the apex and narrow near the base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sound waves are waves of compressed and rarefied air.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The stapedius and tensor tympani can protect your auditory hair cells from sudden, loud noises.

A

False
reacts to loud noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stopping a constant forward motion feels the same to the vestibular system as starting a backward motion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Opening a potassium channel in a hair cell cause the cell to

A

depolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The vestibular cortex is in the

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hair cells can be replaced if they are damaged.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hair cells release neurotransmitter/paracrine agent in bursts in time with the vibrations in the basilar membrane.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If you are moving at a constant velocity, your ears give you the sensation that you are not moving.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the utricle, all the hair cells are oriented with their kinocilium toward one side of the body.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sound waves are waves of more pressurized and less pressurized air.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Sound waves are caused by vibrations.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The faster something vibrates, the _____________________ the perceived sound

A

higher pitched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The larger the pressure difference between the compressed and rarified air in a sound wave, the ___ the perceived sound.

A

louder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Vestibular information is used in reflexes to control

A

both eye muscles and postural muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Horizontal acceleration is detected in the

A

utricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Activation of odorant receptors leads to activation of protein kinase A and phosphorylation of a non-specific
cation channel.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Most of our sense of taste comes from activation of olfactory receptors.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Olfactory hairs are normally covered in mucus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

One neuron will innervate several skeletal muscle fibers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

One skeletal muscle fiber will be innervated by several neurons

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

One type of odorant receptor will bind more than one type of odorant.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

One type of odorant will bind to more than one type of odorant receptor.

A

True

67
Q

Some second order olfactory neurons project directly to the cerebral cortex without synapsing in the thalamus.

A

True

68
Q

The mechanism of release of paracrine agent by taste cells is very similar to the mechanism of neurotransmitter
release from neurons.

A

True

69
Q

The primary odorant in bananas and the primary odorant in beaver musk can actives some of the same
receptors.

A

True

70
Q

Receptors for somatic sensation are important to our sense of taste.

A

True

71
Q

First order olfactory neurons _______________________ onto second order neurons.

A

converge

72
Q

The fluid in the T-tubules is high in

A

Sodium

73
Q

The GOLF protein in most similar to

A

Gs proteins

74
Q

Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in umami taste cells.

A

Calcium

75
Q

Phosphorylation of the above channel in the umami taste cell causes the channel to

A

close

76
Q

Activation of the umami receptor causes the above channel to be

A

dephosphorylated

77
Q

Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in sweet taste cells.

A

potassium

78
Q

Phosphorylation of the above channel in the sweet taste cell causes the channel to

A

close

79
Q

Activation of the sweet receptor causes the above channel to be

A

phosphorylated

80
Q

glutamate binds to umami receptors
decrease activity of PKA
dephosphorylation of calcium channel
calcium channels opens

A

.

81
Q

Children have a natural aversion to _________________. Many toxins activate taste receptors for this taste.

A

bitter

82
Q

There are the most different type of receptors for

A

bitter

83
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the inferior surface of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

84
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the soft palate and pharynx?

A

vagus nerve

85
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the superior surface of the tongue?

A

facial nerve

86
Q

Taste cells are found on/in

A

palate
pharnyx
tongue

87
Q

What is the scientific name for taste used in the video?

A

gustation

88
Q

What is the scientific name for smell used in the video?

A

olfaction

89
Q

What is the proposed paracrine agent that is released by taste cells onto their sensory afferent?

A

ATP

90
Q

What is the purpose of lingual papillae in humans according to the video?

A

increase surface area for more taste cells

91
Q

What is the purpose of the taste hairs?

A

increase surface area for more taste receptor proteins

92
Q

First order taste afferents synapse in which nucleus in the brain?

A

nucleus of the solitary tract

93
Q

Second order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in which thalamic nucleus?

A

ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus

94
Q

First order olfactory neurons synapse in which area of the brain?

A

olfactory bulb

95
Q

What are the two names for the second order neurons in the olfactory pathway?

A

mitral cells
tufted cells

96
Q

Besides projecting to the cerebral cortex and thalamus, what three other brain regions can second order
olfactory neurons project to? What role does olfactory information play in each of these regions?

A

hippocampus- odor memory
hypothalamus- hunger, sexual arousal in animals
amygdala- emotional aspects of smell, primarily fear in animals

97
Q

What six factors affect our olfactory discrimination as mentioned in the video?

A

biological sex
attentiveness
hunger
smoking
age
state of olfactory mucosa

98
Q

What are the four properties of all muscle as mentioned in the video?

A

contract
elastic
extensible
excitable

99
Q

What are the three proteins found in the thin myofilament?

A

actin
tropomyosin
troponin

100
Q

What are the two proteins found in the thick myofilament?

A

heavy and light myosin chains

101
Q

The myosin head has binding sites for which three molecules?

A

ATP/ADP
actin
myosin light chains

102
Q

The bumps you see on your tongue are the taste buds.

A

False

103
Q

Actin is found in the

A

thin

104
Q

The best understood receptors for bitter taste are

A

Gq protein coupled receptor

105
Q

The sweet receptor is

A

Gs protein coupled receptor

106
Q

Farmed fruit is much sweeter than wild fruit.

A

True

107
Q

Taste cells can be replaced.

A

True

108
Q

Olfactory neurons can be replaced.

A

True

109
Q

Taste cells are

A

epithelial cells

110
Q

There are several scientific studies to show that monosodium glutamate (MSG) has negative effects in the body

A

False

111
Q

The sour receptor is

A

an ion channel

112
Q

The best characterized receptor for umami is

A

a Gi protein coupled receptor

113
Q

Third order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in the

A

parietal lobe

114
Q

The olfactory epithelium is

A

nervous tissue

115
Q

We have about 10,000 different odorant receptors.

A

False

116
Q

During the contraction phase of a skeletal muscle twitch, all the active sites on actin are exposed
in the cells.

A

True

117
Q

L-type calcium channels are present throughout the plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell.

A

False

118
Q

More calcium enters the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum than from the extracellular
fluid in response to an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell.

A

True

119
Q

There are voltage-gated sodium channels in the T-tubules.

A

True

120
Q

The lag phase is longer in a

A

Isotonic contraction

121
Q

Which phase is longer in an isometric skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Relaxation

122
Q

During contraction

A

Both the I band and the H zone get shorter

123
Q

Each thick myofilament is in contact with how many thin myofilaments?

A

6

124
Q

Each thin myofilament is in contact with how many thick myofilaments?

A

3

125
Q

Put the steps of the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle in order starting from the first exposure
of the actin active sites.
a. ATP binds to the myosin head
b. Conformational change in myosin head causes the myosin head to dephosphorylate
c. Conformational change in the myosin head causes the myosin head loses affinity for and
dissociate from actin
d. Myosin head autophosphorylates
e. Myosin head binds to actin
f. Myosin head moves to the cocked position
g. Powerstroke

A

ebgacdf

126
Q

A single alpha motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers it innervates is called a

A

motor unit

127
Q

Nerve gas blocks

A

acetylcholinesterase

128
Q

The time between when you get an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell or alpha motor
neuron to the start of contraction is called the

A

lag phase

129
Q

Paralytic drugs are usually ___________________________________ receptor

A

nicotinic
antagonist

130
Q

Botulinum toxin cause the breakdown of what proteins?

A

SNARE proteins

131
Q

What is the post-synaptic density called in a skeletal muscle cell?

A

motor end plate

132
Q

What is the segment of a skeletal muscle cell that goes from one Z disk to the next Z disk called?

A

sarcomere

133
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by alpha motor neurons?

A

acetylcholine

134
Q

What protein was mentioned as contributing to the extensibility and elasticity of skeletal
muscle, as well as helping to keep myosin in register in the myofibril.
What is the name of the large protein that attaches myosin to the Z disk?

A

titin

135
Q

What receptor for neurotransmitter is present on skeletal muscle cells?

A

nicotinic receptors

136
Q

What is the name of the two calcium binding proteins in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what is
their purpose?

A

calreticulin
calsequestrin
they decrease the conc gradient between the sarcoplasmic reticulum for calcium allowing much more calcium to be stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

137
Q

What are the three subunits of troponin and what do each of the subunits bind to?

A

I - actin
T - tropomyosin
C - calcium

138
Q

In population coding, if I want to increase the tension developed in a muscle, what does the
body do?

A

recruit more motor units

139
Q

The actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction.

A

False

140
Q

The myosin head binds to actin when it is

A

phosphorylated

141
Q

A lack of ATP in a skeletal muscle cell will cause which of the following? (select all that apply)

A

Calcium levels to rise in the cell
The myosin head to stay bound to actin

142
Q

Which of the following is connected to the Z disk in skeletal muscle? (select all that apply)

A

Actin
Titin

143
Q

Which of the following can you find in the I band?

A

Actin
The Z disk

144
Q

Which of the following can you find in the A band?

A

Actin
Myosin
The H zone
The M line

145
Q

You are more likely to injure a muscle with ____________________ contractions.

A

Eccentric

146
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle is less than the tension developed by that muscle, you get _________ contraction.

A

A concentration

147
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle is greater than the tension developed by that muscle, you get __________ contraction.

A

An eccentric

148
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle is the same as the tension developed by that muscle, you get __________ contraction.

A

An isometric

149
Q

A single action potential in an alpha motor neuron is sufficient to cause an action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber

A

True

150
Q

Calcium must come through L-type calcium channels in order for ryanodine receptos to open in skeletal muscle cells.

A

False

151
Q

It is normal for muscles to go into tetanus.

A

True

152
Q

The shorter the muscle is when it contracts, the more force it will generate.

A

False

153
Q

The velocity of muscle shortening decreases as the load increases.

A

True

154
Q

In general, white meat should be slightly sweeter than dark meat.

A

True

155
Q

The thin myofilament in smooth muscle does NOT contain

A

troponin

156
Q

The action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber is over before the muscle starts to contract.

A

True

157
Q

Frequency coding is based on

A

Higher calcium levels in the skeletal muscle cell

158
Q

The level of calcium in the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell is constant when the cell is in fused tetanus.

A

False

159
Q

The heavier the load, the more myosin heads involved in cross-bridge cycling

A

False

160
Q

The use of fatty acids to generate ATP always requires oxygen.

A

True

161
Q

Fast-glycolytic fibers are also called

A

type IIb fibers

162
Q

Fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers are also called

A

type IIa fibers

163
Q

Slow-oxidative fibers are also called

A

type I fibers

164
Q

Increasing the concentration of potassium in the T-tubule would cause the action potentials in the T-tubules to

A

repolarize slower