A cultural approach to human development week 1-2 chapt 1-4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

For most of history The human population was under?

A

10 Million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With the development of agriculture and domestication of animals, the population began to increase around?

A

10,000 years ago.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the projected population in 2090?

A

10 billion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Developed countries make up what % of the worlds population?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nearly all the population growth in the decades to come will take place in the economically
developing countries. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name given to countries that have lower levels of income and education than developed countries but are
experiencing rapid economic
growth

A

Developing countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name given to world’s most economically developed and affluent
countries, with the highest
median levels of income and
education

A

Developing countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Current population of developing contries.

A

6 billion, about 82% of the world’s population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Current population of developed countries.

A

1.3 billion, about 18% of the total world population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

With respect to income, what percentage of the world’s population live on less than $2 a day?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What percent of the world population live on a family income of less than $6000 per year?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do you call the increasing connections between
different parts of the world in
trade, travel, migration and
communication

A

Globalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definintion: within a country, the cultural
group that sets most of the
norms and standards and holds
most of the positions of political,
economic, intellectual and
media power

A

Majority culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Settings and circumstances that contribute to variations in pathways of human development are called?

A

Contexts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Between now and 2050, the increase in the population of the United States will be nearly entirely caused by what?
a increased life expectancy
b Higher majority fertility
c Higher minority fertility
d immigration

A

d immigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S. is a young girl who lives in a rural area of a developing country. Her family adheres strongly to
the historical traditions of their culture. S. lives in a(n) ______________ culture.
a conservative
b traditional
c archaic
d conventional

A

b traditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Definition: cultural values such as
independence and self
expression

A

Individualistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cultural values such as
obedience and group harmony

A

Collectivistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in developing countries, a rural
culture that adheres more
closely to cultural traditions than
people in urban areas do is called what?

A

Traditional culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A. and W. are brothers. A. owns a cleaning business, and W. helps when the jobs are too big for A. to do alone. These brothers most likely live in a(n)
______________ culture.
a collectivistic
b individualistic
c conventional
d caste

A

a collectivistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dr Wu is conducting research and plans to measure the socioeconomic status (SeS) of his participants. His measure of SeS will most likely include which of
the following?
a income level, education level and occupational status
b income level, area of education or specialised training, and race
c income level and reputation
d income level and ethnicit

A

a income level, education level and occupational status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phoebe is very proud of her ability to speak Japanese, her parents’ native language, and she has taught herself a number of traditional Japanese
dances and songs. Phoebe is proud of her
______________.
a ethnicity
b majority culture
c socioeconomic status
d caste status

A

a ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

characteristic pattern of individual
development in a species

A

ontogenetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pertaining to the development of
a species

A

phylogenetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

evolutionary process in which
the offspring best adapted to
their environment survive to
produce offspring of their own

A

natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

According to evolutionary biologists, humans, chimpanzees and gorillas had a common primate ancestor until humans, chimpanzees and gorillas had a common primate ancestor until____ years ago

A

6-8 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The evolutionary line that eventually led to humans is known as the
_____.

A

hominid line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how many years ago did the early hominid species evolved into our species, Homo sapiens

A

200,000yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

evolutionary line that led to
modern humans

A

hominid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

species of modern humans

A

Homo sapiens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

social and economic system in
which economic life is based on
hunting (mostly by males) and
gathering edible plants (mostly
by females)

A

hunter–gatherer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

period of human history from
40 000 to 10 000 years ago,
when distinct human cultures
first developed

A

Upper Palaeolithic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

era of human history from
10 000 to 5000 years ago, when
animals and plants were first
domesticated

A

Neolithic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

form of human social life,
beginning about 5000 years
ago, that includes cities, writing,
occupational specialisation and
states

A

civilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

centralised political system that
is an essential feature of a
civilisation

A

state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

branch of psychology that
examines how patterns of human
functioning and behaviour have
resulted from adaptations to
evolutionary conditions

A

evolutionary psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Unlike earlier hominids, Homo sapiens had
______________.
a much heavier and thicker bones
b smaller teeth and jaws
c a slightly smaller brain
d a narrower pelvis among females and a larger pelvis among males

A

b smaller teeth and jaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the effects of natural selection?
a Species are eliminated, or ‘selected’, one-by-one over thousands of years, and no new species are developed.
b Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.
c New species are naturally developed only every 2000 years, and all previously existing species die out.
d Species change over short periods of time, and this change occurs roughly every 1000 years.

A

b Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The dramatic change in the development of the human
species that took place during the Upper Palaeolithic period was that, for the first time, ______________.
a brains got larger
b tools were created
c art appeared
d jaws got larger to eat a wider variety of plants

A

c art appeared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dr Jenks is interested in how mate selection is shaped by our evolutionary history. She most likely considers herself a(n) ______________.
a biopsychologist
b developmental psychologist
c evolutionary psychologist
d social archaeologist

A

c evolutionary psychologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is TRUe?
a The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.
b Biologically, humans have changed drastically since the origin of Homo sapiens.
c There are fewer than 10 cultures around the world today.
d We are a species that originated in South Asia

A

a The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Earliest scientific theory of human development was devised by

A

Sigmund Freud (1856-1939)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fist method of Psychotherapy developed by freud.

A

Psychoanalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Purpose of psychoanalysis

A

To bring patients repressed memories from the unconscious into consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Human Development : A Cultural Approach, Australian and New Zealand Edition

A

psychosexual theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Main feature of Frueds Infancy (oral) stage

A

Human Development : A Cultural Approach, Australian and New Zealand Edition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Childs desire to displace their same-sex parent and enjoy sexual access to the other-sex parent

A

Oedipus complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Main feature of Frueds Toddler (anal) stage.

A

Sexual sensations centered around the anus; High interest in faeces; pleasure derived from elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Main feature of Frued’s early childhood (phallic) stage

A

sexual sensations move to the genitals; sexual desire for other sex parent and fear of same sex parent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Main features of the middle childhood (latency) stage

A

sexual desires repressed; focus on developing social and cognitive skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Main feature of Adolescence (Genital) stage

A

Re-emergence of sexual desire, now directed outside the family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Erikson’s theory that human development is driven by the need to become integrated into the social and cultural environment

A

Psychosocial theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what were the two main differences in eriksons theory from freuds theory

A

First, it was a psychosocial theory, in which the driving force behind development was not sexuality but the need to become integrated into the social and cultural environment. Second, Erikson viewed development as continuing throughout the life span, not as determined solely by the early years as in Freud’s theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Erikson proposed how many stages of development

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Eriksons stage 1

A

Infancy- Trust vs mistrust: Main developmental challange is to establish a bond with a trusted caregiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Erikson’s stage 2

A

Toddlerhood - Autonomy vs shame and doubt: Main developmental challenge is to develop a healthy sense of self as distinct from others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Eriksons stage 3

A

Early childhood- initiative vs guilt:
Main developmental challenge is to initiate activities in a purposeful way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Eriksons stage 4

A

Middle childhood- Industry vs inferiority:
Main developmental challenge is to begin to learn knowledge and skills of one’s culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Eriksons stage 5

A

Adolescence - Identity vs role confusion:
Main developmental challenge is to develop a secure and coherent identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Erikson stage 6

A

Early adulthood- intimacy vs isolation:
Main developmental challenge is to establish a committed long-term love relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Erikson stage 7

A

Middle adulthood- generativity vs stagnation: Main developmental challenge is to care for others and contribute to the wellbeing of the young.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Eriksons stage 8

A

Late adulthood- Ego integrity vs despair:
Main developmental challenge is to evaluate one’s lifetime and accept it as it is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s theory that human development is shaped by five interrelated systems in the social environment

A

Ecological theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s theory was intended to what?

A

Draw attention to the broader cultural environment that people experience as they develop, and to the ways the different levels of a persons environment interact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

According to brofenbrenner, how many key levels or systems play a part in human development?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s term for the immediate environment, the settings where people experience There daily lives.

A
  1. The microsystem.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

c network of interconnections between the various microsystems.

A
  1. The mesosystem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s term for the societal institutions that have indirect but potentially important influences on development.

A
  1. The exosystem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s term for the broad system of cultural beliefs and values, and the economic and governmental systems that are built on those beliefs and values.

A
  1. Macrosystem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s term for the changes that occur in developmental circumstances over time, both with respect to individual development and to historical changes.

A
  1. The chronosystem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

a model for understanding human development that includes three principles: (1) humans always develop within a culture; (2) it is necessary to study people in diverse cultures for a full understanding of human development; and (3) today, cultural identities are becoming more complex around the world

A

Cultural-developmental aproach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

new life stage in developed countries, lasting from the late teens through the 20s, in which people are gradually making their way towards taking on adult responsibilities in love and work

A

Emerging adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

nearly all cells in the human body contain how many chromosomes?

A

46 chromosomes in 23 pairs with one chromosome in each pair inherited from each parent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as

A

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

DNA in the chromosomes is organised into segments called what?

A

Genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Basic units of hereditary information

A

Genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Genes contain paired sequenced of chemicals called?

A

Nucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

approximately how many genes in our 46 chromosomes?

A

23,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

sausage-shaped structure in the nucleus of cells, containing genes, which are paired, except in
reproductive cells

A

chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

long strand of cell material that stores and transfers genetic information in all life forms
gene

A

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

segment of DNA containing coded instructions for the growth and functioning of the organism

A

gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

entire store of an organism’s hereditary information

A

genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The totality of an individual’s genes is
the?

A

genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

person’s actual characteristics are called the?

A

phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In part, the difference
between genotype and phenotype is a consequence of?

A

the person’s environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

organism’s unique genetic inheritance

A

genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

organism’s actual characteristics, derived from its genotype

A

phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Another aspect of genetic functioning that influences the relation between genotype and phenotype is?

A

dominant–recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

pattern of inheritance in which a pair of chromosomes contains one dominant and one recessive
gene, but only the dominant gene is expressed in the phenotype?

A

dominant–recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

on a pair of chromosomes, each of two forms of a gene

A

allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

form of dominant–recessive inheritance in which the phenotype is influenced primarily by thedominant gene but also to some extent by the recessive gene?

A

incomplete dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In a female the pair of sex chromosomes is called

A

XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In a male the pair of sex chromosomes is called.

A

XY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Its the mother who determines what the sex of a child will be T or F

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

chromosomes that determine whether an organism is male (XY) or female (XX)

A

sex chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Males are at a greater risk of developing a wide variety of gentically based conditions, including learing and intellectual disabilities.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Identical or monozygotic twins have what % of their genes in common?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

fraternal or dizygotic twins and siblings have ____ of their genes in common.

A

40-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

field in the study of human development that aims to identify the extent to which genes influence behaviour, primarily by comparing people who share different amounts of their genes

A

behaviour genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

twins that result when two ova are released by a female instead of one, and both are fertilised by different sperm; also called fraternal twins

A

dizygotic (DZ) twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

degree of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members, expressed as a percentage

A

concordance rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

statistical estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among people within a specific population, with values ranging from 0 to 1.00

A

Heritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

in development, the continuous bidirectional interactions between genes and environment

A

epigenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

range of possible developmental paths established by genes; environment determines where development takes place within that range

A

reaction range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the three forms of genotype -> environment effects?

A

Passive, evocative and active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

in the theory of genotype -> environment effects, the type that results from the fact that in a biological family, parents provide both genes and environment to their children

A

passive genotype → environment effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

in the theory of genotype → environment effects, the type that results when a person’s inherited characteristics evoke responses from others in the environment

A

evocative genotype → environment effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

in the theory of genotype → environment effects, the type that results when people seek out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics

A

active genotype → environment effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

cells, distinctive to each sex, that are involved in reproduction (egg cells in the ovaries of the
female and sperm in the testes of the male)

A

gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

mature egg that develops in ovaries, about every 28 days in human females

A

ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

process by which gametes are generated, through separation and duplication of chromosome pairs, ending in four new gametes from the original cell, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell

A

meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

process of cell replication in which the chromosomes duplicate themselves and the cell divides into two cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell

A

mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

in an ovum, fluid that provides nutrients for the first 2 weeks of growth if the ovum is fertilised, until the fertilised ovum reaches the uterus and begins drawing nutrients from the mother

A

cytoplasm

114
Q

at the outset of meiosis, the exchange of genetic material between paired chromosomes

A

crossing over

115
Q

during the female reproductive cycle, the ovum plus other cells that surround the ovum and provide nutrients

A

follicle

116
Q

Sperm can live up to _ days after entering the woman’s body, but most do
not last more than _ days

A

5,2

117
Q

fertilisation is most likely to take place if intercourse occurs in the ____ leading up to and including the day of ovulation

A

6 days

118
Q

It is only during the first ___after the ovum enters the fallopian tube that fertilisation can occur

A

24 hrs

119
Q

When the sperm head reaches the nucleus of the ovum, the final phase of ____ is triggered in the ovum

A

meiosis

120
Q

Ova and sperm are called ___, and each has 23 single chromosomes.

A

gametes

121
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about ova?
1. Females are born with about 1 million ova.
2. Most women run out of ova some time in their 40s.
3. About 400 ova mature during adult child-bearing years.
4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
122
Q

The first cell division does not occur until ____ after conception, but after that, cell division takes place at a faster rate

A

30 hours

123
Q

first 2 weeks after conception

A

germinal period

124
Q

ball of about 100 cells formed by about 1 week following conception

A

blastocyst

125
Q

in the blastocyst, the outer layer of cells, which will go on to form structures that provide protection and nourishment to the embryo

A

trophoblast

126
Q

in the blastocyst, the inner layer of cells, which will go on to form the embryo

A

embryonic disk

127
Q

fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the developing organism in the womb

A

amnion

128
Q

in the womb, gatekeeper between mother and fetus, protecting the fetus from bacteria and wastesin the mother’s blood, and producing hormones that maintain the blood in the uterine lining and cause the mother’s breasts to produce milk

A

placenta

129
Q

structure connecting the placenta to the mother’s uterus

A

umbilical cord

130
Q

weeks 3–8 of prenatal development

A

embryonic period

131
Q

in prenatal development, elapsed time since conception

A

gestation

132
Q

in the embryonic period, the outer layer of cells, which will eventually become the skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system (brain and spinal cord)

A

ectoderm

133
Q

in the embryonic period, the middle of the three cell layers, which will become the muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system

A

mesoderm

134
Q

in the embryonic period, the inner layer of cells, which will become the digestive system and the respiratory system

A

endoderm

135
Q

in the embryonic period, the part of the ectoderm that will become the spinal cord and brain

A

neural tube

136
Q

cell of the nervous system

A

neuron

137
Q

in prenatal development, the period from week 9 until birth

A

fetal period

138
Q

one of the three 3-month periods of prenatal development

A

trimester

139
Q

at birth, babies are covered with this oily, cheesy substance, which protects their skin fromchapping in the womb

A

vernix

140
Q

behaviour, environment or bodily condition that can have damaging influence on prenatal
development

A

teratogen

141
Q

involving a combination of genetic and environmental factors

A

multifactorial

142
Q

a permanent alteration of a DNA sequence that makes up a gene

A

genetic mutation

143
Q

machine that uses sound waves to produce images of the fetus during pregnancy

A

ultrasound

144
Q

prenatal technique for diagnosing genetic problems, involving taking a sample of cells at 5–10 weeks gestation by inserting a tube into the uterus

A

chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

145
Q

Maternal mortality has decreased in developing countries over the last 30 years due to ?

A

improvements in nutrition and acess to health care.

146
Q

While Australia has one of the lowest rates of maternal mortality (6.6 per 100,000), mortality for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples is more
than ____

A

double (14 per 100,000)

147
Q

Infant mortality is 1.8 times higher for ____ newborns

A

Indigenous

148
Q

A newborn baby may be covered with fine, fuzzy hair called
_____

A

lanugo

149
Q

Newborn skin may also be coated all over with an oily, cheesy substance called ____ which protected the skin from chapping while in the womb.

A

vernix

150
Q

soft spots on the skull between loosely joined pieces of the skull that shift during the birth process to assist passage through the birth canal

A

fontanels

151
Q

How long will it take for a newborns scull to firmly join?

A

about 18 months

152
Q

by birth the newborn
baby has ___ cells!

A

10 trillion

153
Q

The typical newborn child, or
neonate , is about _____ long and weighs about___ kilograms.

A

50 centimetres, 3.4

154
Q

yellowish pallor common in the first few days of life due to immaturity of the liver

A

neonatal jaundice

155
Q

deprivation of oxygen during the birth process and soon after that can result in serious neurological damage within minutes

A

anoxia

156
Q

Who is the apgar scale named after?

A

VirginiaApgar (1953).

157
Q

The letters APGAR also correspond to the five subtests that comprise the scale:

A

Appearance (colour), Pulse (heart rate),
Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone) and Respiration (breathing)

158
Q

neonatal assessment scale with five subtests: Appearance (colour), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone) and Respiration (breathing)

A

Apgar scale

159
Q

In addition to their usefulness
immediately after birth, Apgar scores predict the neonate’s what?

A

risk of death in the first month of life

160
Q

over ___% of Australian and American babies receive a score of 7-10 on the apgar

A

98%

161
Q

Neonates are considered to have
low birth weight than ____

A

2500 grams

162
Q

Small-for-date neonates are especially
at risk, with an infant death rate ___ times higher than that of preterm infants

A

four

163
Q

babies born at 37 weeks gestation or less

A

preterm

164
Q

term applied to neonates who weigh less than 90% of other neonates who were born at the same gestational age

A

small for date

165
Q

Asia and Africa have the highest rates, and Europe the lowest.

A

low birth weight neonates

166
Q

In developed countries, the primary risks for low birth weight are

A

mother’s older age, smoking or
having twins or multiples

167
Q

low birth weight is the second most common cause of death in infancy, next
to genetic birth defects T or false

A

true

168
Q

term for neonates who weigh 1,000–1,500 grams at birth

A

very low birth weight

169
Q

term for neonates who weigh less than 1,000 grams at birth

A

extremely low birth weight

170
Q

substance in lungs that promotes breathing and keeps the air sacs in the lungs from collapsing

A

surfactant

171
Q

recommended care for preterm and low-birth-weight neonates, in which mothers or fathers are
advised to place the baby skin-to-skin on their chests for 2–3 hours a day for the early weeks of life

A

kangaroo care

172
Q

In childhood, low birth weight predicts physical problems such as

A

asthma and cognitive problems that include language delays and poor school performance

173
Q

In adolescence, low birth weight predicts relatively low
intelligence-test scores and greater likelihood of repeating a grade

A

relatively low intelligence-test scores and greater likelihood of repeating a grade

174
Q

In adulthood, low
birth weight predicts brain abnormalities, attention deficits and low educational attainment, as well as
obesity and diabetes

A

brain abnormalities, attention deficits and low educational attainment, as well as obesity and diabetes

175
Q

The average for neonates is___hours of sleep a day

A

16-17

176
Q

Another way that neonates’ sleep is distinctive is that they spend an especially high proportion of their
sleep in _____ sleep

A

rapid eye movement (REM)

177
Q

A total of _ reflexes are present at birth or shortly after

A

27

178
Q

reflex that causes the neonate to turn its head and open its mouth when it is touched on the cheek or the side of the mouth; helps the neonate find the breast

A

rooting reflex

179
Q

reflex in response to a sensation of falling backwards or to a loud sound in which the neonate arches its back, flings out its arms and then brings its arms quickly together in an embrace

A

Moro reflex

180
Q

What is the earliest sense to develp

A

touch

181
Q

like touch, what senses are well developed even in the womb.

A

Taste and hearing.

182
Q

which sense is the lease developed of the neonates

A

sight

183
Q

Neonates can distinguish between ___and white but not between white and other colours,

A

red

184
Q

By _ months gestation, the breasts are ready to produce milk

A

4

185
Q

in females, the glands that produce milk to nourish babies

A

mammary glands

186
Q

in females, a reflex that causes milk to be released to the tip of the nipples in response to the sound of an infant’s cry, seeing its open mouth or even thinking about breastfeeding

A

let-down reflex

187
Q

this is a kind of warm-up cry, when babies are mildly distressed. If no response comes soon, it develops into full-blown crying. It is fairly soft in volume, an unsteady whimper
punctuated by pauses and long intakes of breath

A

fussing

188
Q

a cry that expels a large volume of air through the vocal cords

A

anger cry

189
Q

sudden onset, with no fussing to herald it. Baby takes a large intake of breath and holds it, then lets loose

A

Pain cry

190
Q

Crying peaks around age 2 months and then declines

A

peak pattern

191
Q

infant crying pattern in which the crying goes on for more than 3 hours a day over more than 3 days at a time for more than 3 weeks

A

colic

192
Q

Babies grow at a faster rate in their first __ than at any later time of life

A

year

193
Q

principle of biological
development that growth tends to
begin at the top, with the head,
and then proceeds downwards to
the rest of the body

A

cephalocaudal principle

194
Q

principle of biological
development that growth
proceeds from the middle of the
body outwards

A

proximodistal principle

195
Q

during the second trimester of prenatal development neurons are produced at the astonishing rate of 250 000 per ___

A

minute

196
Q

At birth, the brain is ____the size of the adult brain

A

one-third

197
Q

The brain growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life involves production of more and more neurons. t or f

A

False

198
Q

chemical that enables neurons
to communicate across synapses

A

neurotransmitter

199
Q

part of a neuron that transmits
electrical impulses and releases
neurotransmitters

A

axon

200
Q

part of the neuron that receives
neurotransmitters

A

dendrite

201
Q

burst in the production of dendritic
connections between neurons

A

overproduction/exuberance

202
Q

process of the growth of the
myelin sheath around the axon
of a neuron

A

myelination

203
Q

process in brain development in
which dendritic connections that
are used become stronger and
faster and those that are unused
whither away

A

synaptic pruning

204
Q

the brain is divided into what three major regions?

A

the hindbrain, the
midbrain and the forebrain.

205
Q

The____ (part of the hindbrain) coordinates muscles and movement,
and is the fastest growing part of the brain after birth, doubling its size in the infant’s first
90 days

A

cerebellum

206
Q

The ____ and ____ mature earliest and perform the basic biological
functions necessary to life.

A

hindbrain/ midbrain

207
Q

The forebrain is divided into two main parts, the ___ system and the ___ cortex.

A

limbic/ cerebral

208
Q

The structures of the____system include the hypothalamus, the thalamus and the hippocampus

A

limbic

209
Q

The _____ is small, about the size of a peanut, but plays a key role in monitoring and regulating our basic animal functions, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, sexual
desire and hormonal levels.

A

hypothalamus

210
Q

The ____ acts as a receiving and transfer centre for sensory information from the body to the rest of the brain.

A

thalamus

211
Q

The ___ is crucial in memory,
especially the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory

A

hippocampus

212
Q

what is the part of
the brain with the slowest growth initially, increasing only 47% in the first 90 days of life

A

hippocampus

213
Q

outer portion of the brain,
containing four regions with
distinct functions

A

cerebral cortex

214
Q

what accounts for 85% of the brain’s total weight

A

cerebral cortex

215
Q

The____ is the basis of our distinctively human abilities, including the ability to speak and understand language, to solve complex problems and to think in terms of concepts, ideas and symbols.

A

cerebral cortex

216
Q

In general, the _____ hemisphere is specialised for language
and for processing information in a sequential, step-by-step way

A

left

217
Q

The ___ hemisphere is specialised for spatial reasoning and for processing information in a holistic, integrative way

A

right

218
Q

specialisation of functions in the
two hemispheres of the brain

A

lateralisation

219
Q

part of the brain responsible highest processes, including planning
for the future,making decisions

A

Frontal lobe

220
Q

part of the brain that processes bodily
sensations

A

parietal lobe

221
Q

part of the brain that processes visual
information

A

Occipital lobe

222
Q

part of the brain that processes auditory information, including language

A

Temporal lobe

223
Q

degree to which development
can be influenced by
environmental circumstances

A

plasticity

224
Q

What age is the highest risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

A

2–4 months

225
Q

____ is the leading cause of death for infants 1–12 months of age in developed
countries

A

SIDS

226
Q

Indigenous Australian infants are at much greater risk of SIDS, with rates _ times higher than for non-Indigenous
infants

A

five

227
Q

disease in which the body wastes
away from lack of nutrients

A

marasmus

228
Q

Overall, the number-one cause of infant mortality beyond the first month but within the first year is ___

A

diarrhoea

229
Q

development of motor abilities
including balance and posture as well as whole-body movements such as crawling

A

gross motor development

230
Q

development of motor abilities
involving finely tuned movements
of the hands such as grasping
and manipulating objects

A

fine motor development

231
Q

ability to discern the relative
distance of objects in the
environment

A

depth perception

232
Q

ability to combine the images of
the two eyes into one image

A

binocular vision

233
Q

The key to depth perception is ___

A

binocular vision,

234
Q

classic experiment by Eleanor Gibson and James Walk

A

The visual cliff experiment

235
Q

integration and coordination of
information from the various
senses

A

intermodal perception

236
Q

in Piaget’s theory of cognitive
development, the cognitive systems that organise thinking into coherent patterns so that all thinking takes place on the same level of cognitive functioning

A

mental structure

237
Q

focus on how cognitive abilities
change with age in stage sequence of development, pioneered by Piaget and since taken up by other researchers

A

cognitive-developmental
approach

238
Q

Unquestionably, the most influential theory of cognitive development from infancy through adolescence is the one developed by the Swiss psychologist ____

A

Jean Piaget

239
Q

_____ was another psychologist Piaget collaborated with to
conduct research that was important to the development of this theory

A

Barbel Inhelder

240
Q

According to Piaget, the driving force behind development from one stage to the next is ___,

A

maturation

241
Q

concept that an innate, biologically based program is the driving force behind development

A

maturation

242
Q

cognitive structures for
processing, organising and
interpreting information.

A

schemes

243
Q

cognitive process of altering new
information to fit an existing
scheme

A

assimilation

244
Q

cognitive process of changing a
scheme to adapt to new
information

A

accommodation

245
Q

in Piaget’s theory, the first 2 years
of cognitive development, which
involves learning how to coordinate the activities of the senses with motor activities

A

sensorimotor stage

246
Q

According to Piaget, the sensorimotor stage can be divided into _ substages

A

6

247
Q

STAGES OF COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN PIAGET’S THEORY

A

sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations.

248
Q

sensory motor substage 1?

A

Simple reflexes (0–1 month)

249
Q

sensory motor Substage 2?

A

First habits and primary circular reactions (1–4 months)

250
Q

sensory motor Substage 3

A

Secondary circular reactions (4–8 months)

251
Q

sensory motor stage 4?

A

Coordination of secondary schemes (8–12 months)

252
Q

awareness that objects (including
people) continue to exist even
when we are not in direct sensory
or motor contact with them

A

object permanence

253
Q

approach to understanding cognitive functioning that focuses
on cognitive processes that exist at all ages, rather than on viewing cognitive development in
terms of discontinuous stages

A

information-processing
approach

254
Q

gradual decrease in attention to
a stimulus after repeated
presentations

A

habituation

255
Q

following habituation, the revival of attention when a new stimulus is presented

A

dishabituation

256
Q

Speed of habituation predicts ___ ability on other tasks in infancy, as well as later performance on intelligence tests

A

memory

257
Q

Researchers have proposed that the immaturity of
the ______________ at birth is why humans show
infantile amnesia.

A

hippocampus

258
Q

in assessments of infant
development, the overall score indicating developmental progress

A

developmental quotient (DQ)

259
Q

widely used assessment of infant development from age 3 months to 3½ years

A

Bayley Scales of Infant
Development

260
Q

what are the three main scales on the Bayley-III?

A

cognitive, language, motor.

261
Q

This Bayley-III scale measures: mental abilities such as attention and exploration.

A

cognitive scale.

262
Q

this Bayley-III scale measures use and understanding of language

A

language scale.

263
Q

this Bayley-III scale measures fine and gross motor abilities, such as sitting alone for 30
seconds

A

motor scale.

264
Q

Bayley scales predict later IQ or school performance well. t or f

A

False.

265
Q

Longitudinal studies have found that short-lookers in infancy tend to have higher IQ scores later
in development than long-lookers do t or f

A

true

266
Q

By their first birthday, although infants can speak only a word or two, they understand about __words

A

50

267
Q

special form of speech that adults in many cultures direct towards infants, in which the pitch of the voice becomes higher than in normal speech, the intonation is exaggerated and words and phrases are repeated

A

infant-directed (ID) speech

268
Q

innate responses to the physical and social environment, including
qualities of activity level,
irritability, soothability, emotional reactivity and sociability

A

temperament

269
Q

what are the 7 dimensions of temperatment?

A

Activity level
Attention span
Emotionality
Soothability
Sociability
Adaptability
quality of mood

270
Q

theoretical principle that children develop best if there is a good fit
between the temperament of the
child and environmental demands

A

goodness-of-fit

271
Q

most basic emotions, such as anger, sadness, fear, disgust, surprise and happiness

A

primary emotions

272
Q

emotions that require social learning, such as
embarrassment, shame and guilt; also called sociomoral emotions

A

secondary emotions

273
Q

Secondary emotions are also called ____ emotions

A

sociomoral

274
Q

which Three primary emotions are evident in the early weeks of life:

A

distress, interest and pleasure

275
Q

in infants, crying in response to hearing another infant cry, evident
beginning at just a few days old

A

emotional contagion

276
Q

term for process of becoming more adept at observing others’ emotional responses to
ambiguous and uncertain
situations, and using that
information to shape one’s own emotional responses

A

social referencing

277
Q

in Erikson’s psychosocial theory, the first stage of development, during infancy, in which the
central crisis is the need to establish a stable attachment to a loving and nurturing caregiver

A

trust versus mistrust

278
Q

Bowlby’s theory of emotional and social development, focusing on the crucial importance of the infant’s relationship with the primary caregiver

A

attachment theory

279
Q

The two most influential theories of infants’ social development are by ____and

A

Erik Erikson, John Bowlby

280
Q
A