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NREMT® EMT > Component 1: Preliminary EMT > Flashcards

Component 1: Preliminary EMT Flashcards

This deck will cover EMS history, well-being, medical/legal/ethical, death/dying, communication/documentation, terminology, and anatomy/physiology.

1
Q

Define:

proximate causation

A

It is when you are negligent and your breach is the most direct cause of the damages to the patient.

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2
Q

List the four levels of NREMT certification.

A
  1. EMR (Emergency Medical Responder)
  2. EMT (Emergency Medical Technician)
  3. AEMT (Advanced Emergency Medical Technician)
  4. Paramedic
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3
Q

List three obvious signs of death.

A
  • dependent lividity
  • rigor mortis
  • putrefaction
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4
Q

Fill in the blank.

Advance Directives include __ ___ ___________.

A

Do Not Resuscitate

(DNR)

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5
Q

Fill in the blank.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act considers all patient information to be ______________ _________ ___________ .

(HIPAA)

A

Protected Health Information

(PHI)

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6
Q

What legal aspect needs to be intact for a patient to refuse any form of treatment or transport?

A

The patient must be determined as competent meaning their decision-making capacity is intact.

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7
Q

True or false.

The Federal Communications Commission created the first EMT curriculum in the early 1970s.

(FCC)

A

False

The Department of Transportation (DOT) created the first EMT curriculum.

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8
Q

What was the original published name of the “White Paper”?

A

Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society

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9
Q

What does the “White Paper” allow for?

A

The National Highway Transportation Act of the Department of Transportation created the EMS Development Act which allowed for funding and development of EMS services.

(NHTSA), (DOT)

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10
Q

List the three hierarchies of the National EMS Scope of Practice.

A
  1. Medical Direction
  2. State EMS Offices
  3. National EMS Scope of Practice Model
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11
Q

Which consent is applied when the patient is unconscious and unresponsive?

A

implied consent

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12
Q

Quality Control and Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) exist under which component of the EMS Agenda for the Future Components?

A

evaluation

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13
Q

List the six bars of the Star of Life.

A
  1. Detection
  2. Reporting
  3. Response
  4. On-scene care
  5. Care in transit
  6. Transfer to definitive care
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14
Q

What is the EMTs’ first and ongoing responsibility on every scene?

A

safety

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15
Q

Stressors from work, home, family, and finances are examples of which type of stress?

A

cumulative

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16
Q

What are the three types of stressors?

A
  1. acute
  2. delayed
  3. cumulative
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17
Q

True or false.

Correct handwashing is the best way to resist infectious diseases.

A

True

Wash hands with warm water and soap for a minimum of 20 seconds.

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18
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
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19
Q

The spouse of the patient has just been informed that the patient has died, and they respond by slamming furniture and punching the wall.

Which stage of grief is the spouse demonstrating?

A

anger

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20
Q

Where can I find key Brainscape advice on how to pass the NREMT Paramedic exam and overcome common test prep challenges?

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21
Q

True or false.

Bargaining is the first stage experienced when someone is going through the five stages of grief.

A

False

When a person processes death, there is no specific order. For instance: Someone that dies from a long-term illness and in extensive pain, the loved one(s) may respond with acceptance. Another person may respond with anger and be angry for a considerable time.

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22
Q

Whose signatures must be on a Do Not Resuscitate form?

(DNR)

A
  • doctor
  • power of attorney for the patient
  • patient
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23
Q

Fill in the blank.

A Patient Care Report (PCR) is protected by ______ ________ _______ ___ _____________ ___.

(HIPAA)

A

Health Insurance Privacy and Accountability Act

A Patient Care Report is also considered to be PHI (Protected Health Information).

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24
Q

Which seems to be the problem today, open or closed communication?

A

open communication

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25
Q

List five special populations that would require additional considerations during communication.

A
  • elderly
  • pediatric
  • hearing impaired
  • visually impaired
  • language barriers
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26
Q

Why does the National Emergency Medical Services Information System collect information from prehospital or patient care report (PCR)?

(NEMSIS)

A

research

Go to EMS Gov for additional research information.

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27
Q

List the five components of documentation using the CHART Method.

A
  • Chief Complaint/Complaining of
  • History of event/pertinent medical
  • Assessment
  • R (RX) treatment plan
  • Transport
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28
Q

True or false.

Documentation of patient care provides for continuity of patient care and is a legal document.

A

True

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29
Q

The following is a list of information that is documented in what section of a patient care report?

  • Times of procedures
  • Physical and patient historical findings
  • Care provided
  • Patient responses or changes
  • Scene observations
  • Patient disposition
  • Refusal considerations
  • Staff person(s) name that received patient
A

narrative

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30
Q

You have written incorrect information on a paper patient care report. What should you do?

A

Draw a single line through the error and write your initials next to it.

31
Q

Fill in the blank.

If information was accidentally not recorded on the patient care report, the EMT should submit a(n) _________.

32
Q

True or false.

When providing patient care and documenting, it is acceptable to estimate vital signs after a baseline set has been taken.

33
Q

Define:

base station

A

It is any radio equipment containing a receiver and transmitter that is located in a fixed space, typically placed in the cab of an ambulance.

34
Q

True or false.

A repeater-based system will both repeat any information you speak into it and intensify a signal on a second frequency.

35
Q

Which agency is responsible for licensing base stations and assigning appropriate call signs for those stations?

A

Federal Communications Commission

(FCC)

36
Q

List the six contacts with dispatch when responding to a call.

A
  1. Receiving call information
  2. En route to the call
  3. On scene
  4. Transport
  5. Arrival at the hospital or receiving facility
  6. Return to service
37
Q

True or false.

The patient handoff report should be more detailed than the radio call-in when communicating patient care and transport information.

38
Q

Fill in the blank.

The act of providing care for a patient who is competently refusing care is called ________.

39
Q

You have stopped at a motor vehicle collision that you have witnessed while off duty. The occupant has been ejected and is found to be pulseless and apneic. You initiate CPR with gloves and a face shield. Upon EMS arrival, the patient is pronounced dead.

You and the care you provided is protected by what law?

A

Good Samaritan Law

40
Q

What two factors commonly define an EMT’s Scope of Practice?

A
  • The state the EMT is certified in
  • Medical Directors
41
Q

Define:

expressed consent

A

It is explaining the medical possibilities and potential treatment to a patient, and they allow you to provide care and transport.

42
Q

List three strategies that improve therapeutic communications.

A
  1. gentle eye contact
  2. body language including facial expressions
  3. voice tempo and volume
43
Q

True or false.

It is unnecessary to complete a patient care report including vital signs for a patient who is competent to refuse treatment and transport.

A

False

All patient contacts require a completed patient care report (PCR) including times and run (trip) numbers.

44
Q

What are written standards of care and allowable treatments called?

A

standing orders or protocols

45
Q

List three examples of administrative information found on a patient care report.

A
  • any information provided for billing
  • equipment and disposables used
  • run times and mileage
46
Q

:

List four components that make up medical terms.

A
  1. word root
  2. prefix
  3. suffix
  4. combining vowels
47
Q

True or false.

The most common combining vowel in medical terminology is the letter A (a).

A

False

The most common combining vowel in medical terminology is the letter O** (o).

48
Q

What is a concern when using abbreviations?

A

Using abbreviations correctly or incorrectly may cause confusion or errors leading to inaccurate patient care.

49
Q

Deconstruct

Hyperemesis

A

Hyper/emesis
hyper - (prefix meaning “excessive”)
emesis - (root word meaning “vomiting”)

hyperemesis = excessive vomiting

50
Q

Deconstruct

Asymptomatic

A

A/symptom/a/tic
a - (prefix meaning “absent” or “without”)
symptom - (word root meaning “occurrence” or “patient complaint”
a - connecting vowel
t(ic) -(suffix meaning “pertaining to”)

asymptomatic = the absence of symptoms or complaints of symptoms

51
Q

Deconstruct

Abdominopelvic cavity

A

Abdomin/o/pelvic cavity
abdomin - (root word meaning “abdomen”)
o - combining vowel
pelvic - (root word meaning “pelvis”)
cavity - “an unfilled space within a mass”

52
Q

What is the abbreviation for hypertension?

53
Q

Describe:

anatomical position

A

It is a person facing forward with arms at their side, palms forward.

54
Q

Describe:

coronal plane

A

It (frontal) is the imaginary line dividing the body into the front (anterior) and back (posterior) planes.

55
Q

At what anatomical landmark, does the transverse or axial plane separate the top from the bottom body portions?

A

The transverse or axial plane is an imaginary line horizontally through the umbilicus.

56
Q

Differentiate ligaments and tendons.

A
  • Ligaments connect bone(s) to bone(s)
  • Tendons connect muscle to bone(s)
57
Q

Refer to the attached picture and label the skeleton from top left down to top right down.

A
  • Cranium/Skull
  • Shoulder Girdle/Clavicle
  • Humerus
  • Pelvis
  • Femur
  • Patella
  • Tarsels
  • Cervical Vertebrae
  • Ribs/Intercostal Spaces
  • Sternum
  • Radius
  • Ulna
  • Tibia
  • Fibula
58
Q

List facial bones of the cranium.

A
  • Frontal
  • Nasal bone (cartilage)
  • Zygomatic (cheek bone)
  • Maxilla (upper jaw)
  • Mandible (lower jaw)
59
Q

From the top of the spine to the bottom, what are the vertebrae named and how many are there?

A
  • Cervical (C1 thru C7)
  • Thoracic (T1 thru T12)
  • Lumbar (L1 thru L5)
  • Sacral (S1 thru S5)
  • Coccyx (fused)
60
Q

True or false.

The Appendicular Skeleton includes joints and extremities.

61
Q

Differentiate flexion and extension.

A
  • Flexion is the movement of bending.
  • Extension in the movement of straightening.
62
Q

What are two examples of a ball and socket joint?

A

hip and shoulder girdle

63
Q

List three bones of the shoulder girdle.

A
  • clavicle
  • scapula
  • humerus
64
Q

True or false.

The greater trochanter and lesser trochanter are anchor points of the femur.

A

True

The greater and lesser trochanter are located at the proximal portion of the femur.

65
Q

True or false.

The index phalange is distal to the ulna.

66
Q

List three types of muscles and whether they are voluntary or involuntary.

A
  1. skeletal (voluntary)
  2. smooth (involuntary)
  3. cardiac (involuntary)
67
Q

What are common phrases when referring to the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A
  • Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: fight, flight or freeze
  • Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System: rest and digest
68
Q

What does the sagittal plane divide the body into?

A
  1. right/left
  2. medial/lateral
69
Q

What body plane divides the body into inferior/superior?

A

transverse plane

70
Q

List the organs the chyme passes through.

Following the path of digestion, starting at the mouth.

A
  • Mouth
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Large intestine
  • Rectum
71
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

It stores bile produced from the liver and delivers the bile into the small intestine to break down fatty food.

72
Q

What are the two components that make up the central nervous system?

(CNS)

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
73
Q

Differentiate Anatomy and Physiology.

A
  • Anatomy identifies structures of organs and tissues.
  • Physiology is the study of body functions.

NREMT® EMT (10 decks)

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