9. Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What is intermittent bacteraemia?

A

Infection spilling into the blood from another source (e.g. pneumonia, pyelonephritis, meningitis, abscess) which results in bacteria levels rising and falling periodically when the immune system kicks in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is bacteraemia?

A

Presence of bacteria in the blood

bacteraemia + signs/symptoms of infection = bloodstream infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Positive bacteria blood culture whenever bloods are taken. Associated with endocarditis, mycotic aneurysm, pacing lead infection.

A

Continuous bacteraemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a DTP of >2 diagnose?

differential time to positivity

A

CRBSI (catheter related blood stream infection)

DTP = time taken for blood culture from through-line catheter to become positive Vs. from peripheral vein.

if the time is much quicker at the catheter, then the catheter is the source of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common bacterial cause of catheter infections?

A

Coagulase negative Staphylococcus

+ staphylococcus Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common bacterial cause of infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
+ Streptococci viridans
+ Coagulase negative staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a mycotic aneurysm?

A

Dilation of the vessel wall due to infection

staph. aureus, strep. spp, salmonella, E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A medical emergency involving inflammation of the leptomeninges and CSF.

A

Meningitis

leptomeninges = inner layers i.e. arachnoid + pia matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is meningoencephalitis?

A

Inflammation of meninges AND brain parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of meningitis that is usually caused by bacteria and develops rapidly.

  1. Acute pyogenic
  2. Aseptic
  3. Bacterial
  4. Chronic
A
  1. Acute pyogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are chronic causes of meningitis?

A
  1. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  2. Neurosyphilis
  3. Cryptococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type of meningitis that is usually caused by virus.

  1. Acute pyogenic
  2. Aseptic
  3. Bacterial
  4. Chronic
A

Aseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Headache, photophobia, fever, neck stiffness are clinical features of what?

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in neonates?

A

Streptococcus Agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults?

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

+ Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses: Coxsackie + Echovirus

+ HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute inflammation of the brain parenchyma usually caused by virus?

A

Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common causes of viral encephalitis?

A
Herpes viruses (HSV1/2/VZV)
Rabies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute progressive viral encephalitis that is almost always fatal unless vaccine is given quickly.

A

Rabies

from dog bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 4 stages of rabies?

A
  1. Prodromal phase - fever, nausea, fatigue
  2. Furious phase - seizures, twitching, hydrophobia
  3. Dumb phase - paralysed, disorientated, stuporous
  4. Coma/death

Please Fight Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tabes dorsalis is a symptom of what?

slow degeneration of nerve cells

A

Neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Brain abscess = pus in the brain parenchyma

What is the most common bacterial cause?

A

Streptococci

Staph Aureus most common after surgery/trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Surgical drainage is the main treatment method for brain abscess’.
Which antibiotic is given in addition?
1. Penicillin
2. Gentamicin

A

Penicillin

gentamicin cant cross blood/brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes ischaemic heart disease?

A

Myocardial ischaemia due to coronary atherosclerosis and ventricular hypertrophy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does angina pectoris cause myocardial death?

A

No

MI causes myocardial death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What makes up acute coronary syndrome?

A
  1. MI
  2. Unstable angina (constant angina due to poor blood flow to heart muscle)
  3. Sudden cardiac death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Myocardial infarction affecting the inner 1/3rd of heart muscle.

A

Subendocardial

most susceptible to MI due to having less perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Myocardial infarction affecting full thickness of heart muscle.

A

Transmural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Build up of fluid in the pericardial space.

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Blood markers of ischaemic heart disease (IHD).

A

Troponins T + I

+ Creatine kinase MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does the artery of a patient with hypertension differ to a normal artery?

A
  1. Narrow lumen
  2. More smooth muscle
  3. very elongated nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Outline the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

The reactions?
Where the hormones come from?
Their effect?

A
  1. Renin (from kidneys) converts angiotensinogen (from liver) = angiotensin I
  2. ACE (from lungs) converts angiotensin I = angiotensin II
    angiotensin II stimulates vasoconstriction, aldosterone release, vasopressin (ADH) release, cardiac/vascular hypertrophy
  3. Angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone release (from adrenal glands) which stimulates salt + water reabsorption in kidneys.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give 3 causes of secondary hypertension.

A
  1. Cushing’s syndrome
  2. Conn’s disease
  3. Pheochromocytoma (tumour of adrenal glands)
  4. Correction (narrowing of aorta)
  5. Renal artery stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What BP is classed as malignant hypertension?

A

BP > 190/120 mmHg

sudden increase in BP, medical emergency, irreversible organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy is seen in what?

A

Systemic left sided hypertensive heart disease (HHD)

36
Q

What is Cor pulmonale?

A

Pulmonary right sided hypertensive heart disease (HHD)

with Right ventricular hypertrophy

37
Q

Abnormal dilation of vessel/heart wall due to weakened wall.

A

Aneurysm

38
Q

What is a false aneurysm (pseudo aneurysm)?

A

Damage to vessel wall, blood leaks out and form a ‘pulsating’ haematoma

39
Q

What is an arterial dissection?

A

Blood enters the wall of artery, haematoma between its layers.

40
Q

Heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic demands of the body.

A

Heart failure

41
Q

Dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and fluid in the airways is associated with which sided heart failure?

A

Left sided failure

Left ventricle cannot pump enough blood to tissues.

(increased hydrostatic pressure in pulmonary circulation due to pulmonary congestion results in fluid entering airways)

42
Q

Nutmeg liver, congestive splenomegaly, oedema of arms + legs, cor pulmonale are associated with which sided heart failure?

A

Right sided failure

Right ventricle cannot pump enough blood to lungs.
Congestion of blood in the venous systems due to left sided failure.

43
Q

Type of valvular heart disease where the valves do not close completely, resulting in volume overload of heart.

A

Regurgitation

44
Q

Type of valvular heart disease where the valves do not open completely, resulting in pressure overload of the heart.

A

Stenosis

45
Q

Most common valvular abnormality?

A

Calcific Aortic stenosis

(due to wear and tear over lifespan, occurs earlier if you have congenital abnormality i.e. bicuspid valve instead of tricuspid)

46
Q

What are the risk factors for heart failure?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Obesity/Diabetes
  3. Hypertension
  4. Hypercholesterolaemia
  5. age
  6. sex (men)
47
Q

Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve results in what?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)

‘floppy valve’ - some blood regurgitates back into left atrium.

48
Q

What valvular heart defects can Rheumatic heart disease cause?

A

Aortic stenosis
Mitral stenosis

(these are also the most common vhd)

49
Q

What causes rheumatic heart disease?

A

Follows on from a group A streptococcus infection.

sore throat

50
Q

Which of these congenital malformations are Left > Right shunts?

  1. Transposition of great arteries
  2. Ventricular septal defect
  3. Tetralogy of Fallot
  4. Atrial septal defect
  5. Patent ductus arteriosus
  6. Truncus arteriosus
  7. Atrioventricular septal defect
  8. Tricuspid atresia
  9. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
A

2, 4, 5, 7
Anything with a ‘D’ = left > right shunt

Everything else with a ‘T’ at the start = right > left shunt
‘righT’

51
Q

Which gene abnormalities are associated with congenital heart defects?

A
  1. Trisomy 21 Down’s syndrome
  2. XO Turner’s syndrome
  3. Chr 22q11.2 deletion - DiGeorge syndrome
52
Q

Cyanosis is associated with which congenital shunt direction?

A

Right > Left

deoxygenated blood bypasses lungs

53
Q

What is the biggest concern with a Right > Left shunt?

A

Irreversible pulmonary hypertension

54
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

Ventricular septal defect

55
Q

What makes up the Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Ventricular septal defect (large)
  2. Pulmonary stenosis
  3. Aorta overrides the VSD - takes oxygen poor blood to the body
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy - RV needs to work harder so hypertrophies, pumping even more blood to LV
56
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta?

A

Congenital narrowing of the aorta causing obstruction to blood flow.

frequently seen in females with Turners syndrome

57
Q

What is peripheral vascular disease?

A

Atherosclerosis of arteries supplying arms and legs, leading to narrow vessels and restricted blood flow.

58
Q

What are the risk factors for Peripheral vascular disease?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Obesity/Diabetes
  3. Hypertension
  4. Hypercholesterolaemia
  5. Age
  6. Sex (men)
59
Q

Hormone which has a protective effect against peripheral vascular disease.

A

Oestrogen

60
Q

How do chronic and acute peripheral vascular disease present differently?

A

Acute = 6 P’s
Pale, Pulseless, Painful, Paralysed, Paraesthetic (pins + needles), Perishing cold

Chronic = NO P's as collateral vessels form
Intermittent claudication (pain when walking), tissue loss eventually
61
Q

A type of vasculitis affecting the large arteries in the head. Considered a medical emergency as it can lead to blindness.

A

Giant cell arteritis / Temporal arteritis

62
Q

Inflammation of the endocardium mainly involving the valves.

A

Endocarditis

63
Q

What are the main causes of endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
Streptococcus viridans

Vegetations of these bacteria form on the damaged valves.

64
Q

What are the key clinical features of infective endocarditis?

A

FROM JANE

Fever
Roth spots
Osler’s nodes
Murmurs

Janeway lesions
Anaemia
Nail splinter hemorrhages
Emboli

65
Q

What is pericarditis?

What is a common cause?

A

Inflammation of pericardial sac.

Coxsackie B

(acute = less than 6 months)
(chronic = more than 6 months)
66
Q

Dressler’s syndrome is a common cause of what?

A

Pericarditis

fluid build up in the pericardium post MI

67
Q

Inflammation of myocardium.

A

Myocarditis

68
Q

What is myocarditis caused by?

A

Adenovirus ‘common cold’

69
Q

What is the main cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

valve looks like ‘fishes mouth’

70
Q

Aschoff bodies are associated with what?

A

Rheumatic fever

71
Q

What are the 4 cardiomyopathies?

A
  1. Hypertrophic
  2. Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
  3. Restrictive
  4. Dilated

‘HARD’

72
Q

Which cardiomyopathes are completely genetic?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (autosomal dominant)

73
Q

What happens to stroke volume in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Decreased stroke volume

74
Q

Cardiomyopathy with impaired ventricular pumping and is caused by alcohol + autosomal dominant inheritance.

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

75
Q

A type of cardiomyopathy that is due to mutations in the sarcomere gene?

A

Hypertrophic

76
Q

The biomarker commonly used to identify myocardial damage?

A

Troponin

77
Q

A common organism in infective endocarditis?

A

Streptococcus Viridans

78
Q

A type of meningitis in which there are increased polymorphs in the CSF?

A

Bacterial

79
Q

A common cause of aneurysms?

A

Atherosclerosis

80
Q

Gram positive cocci that grown in pairs and is a common cause of meningitis?

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

81
Q

Clinical syndrome resulting from pressure on the heart due to a build-up of fluid in the pericardial space?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

82
Q

Tabes dorsalis is a neurological manifestation due to infection with this organism?

A

Treponema Pallidum

neurosyphilis

83
Q

The inflammation of large-to-medium sized arteries that can lead to permanent blindness if untreated?

A

Giant cell arteritis

84
Q

An adrenal tumour that may be associated with secondary hypertension?

A

Pheochromocytoma

85
Q

Right-sided heart failure due to lung disease is called….?

A

Cor pulmonale

86
Q

A hormone that acts on the kidneys to stimulate reabsorption of salt and water?

A

Aldosterone