8. Evidence Flashcards

1
Q

What is evidence?

A

The whole body of material which a court may take into account in reaching their decision. Evidence may be written, oral or visual

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2
Q

What is admissible evidence?

A

Evidence is admissible if it is legally able to be received by the court.

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3
Q

Who is the fact-finder?

A

Judge or jury.

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4
Q

What is relevant evidence?

A

Evidence is relevant “if it has a tendency to prove or disprove anything that is of consequence to the determination of a proceeding” (section 7(3) Evidence Act 2006).

The threshold for relevance is actually very low. Evidence must simply have some probative value.

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5
Q

What does prejudicial mean in the context of evidence?

A

It refers to evidence adverse to a party’s case; the drawing of an inference against a party.

Evidence is only excluded by a judge when it is deemed to be unfairly prejudicial such as when the jury may be misled by the evidence or attribute to it too much weight.

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6
Q

What is a witness?

A

A person who gives evidence and is able to be cross examined.

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7
Q

What is the age of a child complainant according the the Evidence Act 2006?

A

Under 18 years when the proceeding commences (when the charging document is filed NOT at the beginning of the trial).

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8
Q

Concept - What is the definition of a statement?

A

A spoken or written assertion or non verbal conduct intended by that person as an assertion of any matter.

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9
Q

What is a hearsay statement?

A

A statement made by a person other than a witness and is offered in evidence in the proceeding to prove the truth of it’s contents.

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10
Q

Define veracity.

A

The disposition of a person to refrain from lying.

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11
Q

Define propensity.

A

A person’s tendency to act in a particular way or have a particular state of mind.

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12
Q

What is direct evidence?

A

Evidence a witness has seen, heard or otherwise experienced (eye witness).

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13
Q

What is circumstantial evidence?

A

Evidence of circumstances that do not directly prove any facts in issue, but which allow inferences about the existence of those facts to be drawn (eg the defendant was seen in the vicinity of a crime).

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14
Q

Section 7 - If a judge decides that evidence is relevant…

A

Then subject to any other legal rules, the party will be entitled to present the evidence. Relevance is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of admissibility under the act.

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15
Q

Section 8 - In a proceeding, a judge must exclude evidence if….

A

Its probative value is outweighed by the risk that the evidence will

a) have an unfairly prejudicial effect on the proceeding or
b) needlessly prolongs the proceeding

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16
Q

Concept - Explain the section 8 test under the Evidence Act 2006.

A

The section 8 test involves balancing the probative value of evidence against the risk that it will have an “unfairly prejudicial effect on the proceeding” or “needlessly prolong the proceeding.”

Evidence will be admitted if its probative value outweighs this risk.

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17
Q

What is the ‘Woolmington Principle’?

A

The fundamental principle in criminal law is the presumption of innocence.

The burden of proof lies clearly with the prosecution in relation to all of the elements of the offence.

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18
Q

What is the prosecutions burden of proof?

A

Beyond reasonable doubt.

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19
Q

Define reasonable doubt…

A

An honest and reasonable uncertainty left in your mind about the guilt of the accused after you have given careful and impartial consideration to all of the evidence.

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20
Q

Burden for defence is….

A

On the balance of probabilities.

e.g more probable than not.

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21
Q

What age does a person have to be to take an oath or affirmation before giving evidence?

A

12 years or older.

Witnesses who are under the age of 12 must be informed of the importance of telling the truth and promise to tell the truth.

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22
Q

What is a hostile witness?

A
  • A witness who exhibits or appears to exhibit a lack of veracity when giving evidence unfavourable to the party who called the witness on a topic that the witness may reasonably be supposed to have knowledge or
  • Gives evidence that is inconsistent with a statement made by that witness in a manner that exhibits or appears to exhibit an intention to be unhelpful to the party who called the witness or
  • Refuses to answer question or deliberately withholds evidence.
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23
Q

Sec 8 - Define relevant evidence…

A

In relation to any information or exhibit, means information or an exhibit, as the case may be, that tends to support or rebut, or has a material bearing on, the case against the defendant.

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24
Q

At any point when a person has been charged, if they request information about an identification witness, what three things must the prosecutor supply?

A
  1. The name of the witness (and address if permitted under Sec17) whether or not the prosecutor intends on calling the witness
  2. A statement of any description of the offender given by each witness to the prosecutor or Police and
    3) A copy of an identikit picture or other drawing.
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25
Q

A judge may direct that a witness is to give evidence in chief and be cross-examined in an alternative way. What type of witness does this apply to?

A

All witnesses, including the defendant.

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26
Q

What are the alternate ways of giving evidence (3)?

A

1) In the courtroom but unable to see the defendant (behind a screen)
2) From an appropriate place outside the courtroom either NZ or elsewhere (AVL audio visual link)
3) By a video record made before the hearing of the proceeding

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27
Q

What is eligibility and compellability in terms of witnesses?

A

As a general rule, all persons are eligible to give evidence whether for the prosecution or defence. And all persons who are eligible are compellable to give evidence (they can be required to testify against their will).

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28
Q

When would an associated defendant be compellable to give evidence for or against a defendant (2)?

A

An associated defendant is not compellable to give evidence for or against a defendant in a criminal proceeding unless

a) The defendant is being tried separately or
b) The proceeding against the associated defendant has been determined

A proceeding has been determined if:

  • The charge is withdrawn or dismissed
  • The defendant was acquitted
  • The defendant either pleaded guilty or was found guilty and had been sentenced or otherwise dealt with
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29
Q

What is the basic rule in regards to the non-compellability of a defendant?

A

A defendant is an eligible but not compellable witness for either the prosecution or defence.

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30
Q

What is an associated defendant?

A

A person against whom prosecution has been instituted for

1) an offence that arose in relation to the same events as did the offence for which the defendant is being prosecuted
2) an offence that relates to, or is connected with, the offence for which the defendant is being prosecuted

A person charged with burglary, both an accomplice who committed the burglary and the person who received the stolen goods would be an associated defendant under Sec 73.

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31
Q

When will propensity evidence evidence about a defendant be admissible?

A

It will be admissible where the evidence has a probative value in relation to an issue in the proceeding which outweighs the risk that the evidence may have an unfairly prejudicial effect on the defendant.

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32
Q

What is the general rule about propensity evidence?

A

The general position is that a party may offer propensity evidence about any person. This is, however, subject to some restrictions.

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33
Q

Section 18 - When is a hearsay statement admissible?

A

If the circumstances relating to the statement provide reasonable assurance that the statement is reliable and

  • The maker of the statement is unavailable as a witness or
  • The Judge considers that undue expense or delay would be caused if the maker of the statement were required to be a witness

(reliability and unavailability or undue expense or delay)

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34
Q

What are the circumstances relating to a hearsay statement that provide reasonable assurance that the statement is reliable (5)?

A

a) The nature of the statement and
b) The content of the statement and
c) The circumstances that relate to the making of the statement and
d) Any circumstances that related to the veracity of the person
e) Any circumstances that relate to the accuracy of the observation of the person

35
Q

What would be deemed unavailable as a witness or undue expense and delay (5)?

A

1) If the witness is dead
2) If the witness is outside NZ and it is not reasonably practicable for him or her to be a witness.
3) If the witness is unfit due to age or physical/mental condition.
4) If the witness cannot be found.
5) If the witness is not compellable to give evidence.

36
Q

Define visual identification evidence…

A

An assertion by a person, based wholly or partly on what that person saw to the effect that a defendant was present at or near a place where an act constituting direct or circumstantial evidence of the commission of an offence was done at, or about the time the act was done or

An account (whether or in writing) of an assertion of the kind described above.

37
Q

When is Visual Identification Evidence admissible?

A

If formal procedure is followed (eg photo board procedure) by an enforcement officer or there is good reason for it not to be followed in regards to a person alleged to have committed an offence, that evidence is admissible unless the defendant proves on the balance of probabilities that it is unreliable.

38
Q

BLANK

A

BLANK

39
Q

What is voice identification evidence?

A

Evidence that is an assertion by a person to the effect that a voice, whether heard first-hand or through a mechanical or electronic transmission or recording, is the voice of the defendant or any other person who was connected with an act constituting direct or circumstantial evidence of the commission of an offence.

40
Q

Is voice identification evidence admissible?

A

Voice Identification evidence is inadmissible unless the prosecution proves on the

BALANCE OF PROBABILITIES

that the circumstances in which the identification was made have produced a reliable identification.

41
Q

Define probative value of evidence..

A

How strongly the evidence points to the inference it is said to support and how important the evidence is to the issues in trial will determine the level of probative value that the evidence will hold.

In this sense, the probative value of evidence is how strongly and centrally the evidence assists in proving or disproving issues in a case

42
Q

When a witness needs to refresh their memory from a statement they have made, what must the prosecutor do?

A

Seek the leave of the judge to grant the request

43
Q

What is an exception to the ‘Woolmington Principle’?

A

Where the legal burden is unequivocally place on the Defendant e.g when they wish to rely on the defence of insanity (s23 Crimes Act 1961) and where there exists specific statutory exceptions

44
Q

What are the facts in issue?

A

Facts in issue are those which the prosecution must prove in order to establish the elements of the offence; or those which the defendant must prove in order to succeed with a defence in respect of which he or she carries the burden of proof.

45
Q

Concept- What is a proceeding?

A

A proceeding conducted by a court, and any interlocutory or other application to a court connected with a proceeding.

46
Q

Concept - What is the “weight” of evidence?

A

The “weight” of evidence is its value in relation to the facts in issue. This will depend upon a wide range of factors, such as the extent to which, if accepted, it is directly relevant to or conclusive of those facts; the extent to which it is supported or contradicted by other evidence produced; and the veracity of the witness. The “weight” is the degree of probative value that can be accorded to the evidence.

47
Q

Concept - What is probative value?

A

How strongly evidence points to the inference it is said to support, and how important the evidence is to the issues in the trial, will determine the level of probative value that a piece of evidence holds.

In this sense, the probative value of evidence is how strongly and centrally the evidence assists in proving or disproving issues in a case.

48
Q

Section 73 of the Evidence Act 2006 concerns the compellability of defendants and associated defendants in criminal proceedings. Is a defendant compellable for the prosecution or defence?

A

No. A defendant in a criminal proceeding is not a compellable witness for the prosecution or defence in that proceeding.

49
Q

Section 73 of the Evidence Act 2006 concerns the compellability of defendants and associated defendants in criminal proceedings. Are defendants eligible witnesses?

A

Yes. They are eligible but not compellable. A defendant can give evidence but they do not have to.

50
Q

When is an assoicated defendant a compellable witness (2)?

A

1) When the assoicated defendant is being tried separately from the defendant
2) The proceeding against the defendant has been determined

51
Q

According to section 74 of the Evidence Act 2006, who else is not a compellable witness?

A

The judge (along with the Sovereign, Governor-General, and Sovereign or head of State of a foreign country).

52
Q

According to section 75 of the Evidence Act 2006, when would a bank officer not be compellable to produce banking records?

A

When the bank is not party to the proceeding and the contents of the bank records can be proven under the “business records” exception to the hearsay rule (s19). They are also not compellable to appear as a witness to prove the matters recorded in the bank records.

53
Q

What is the difference between offering evidence and giving evidence?

A

It is a party that offers evidence whereas it is an individual who gives evidence.

54
Q

Can the Evidence Act 2006 be overridden by common law decisions?

A

No. Common law cases can be used to help decide which evidence might be admitted, but only in so far as they are consistent with the provisions of the Act and the promotion of its purposes and principles. The common law cannot override explicit exclusionary wording in the Act itself.

55
Q

How does section 9 of the Evidence Act allow for admission of evidence that would not usually be allowed?

A

Where the parties agree that evidence can be admitted, the judge may permit that evidence to be admitted in situations where it would usually be excluded.

56
Q

How does section 9 of the Evidence Act 2006 create a situation where facts need not be proven?

A

Section 9 allows prosecution and defence to admit facts so that they do not need to be proved. This can be useful, for example, where there is expert evidence that is not in dispute.

57
Q

What is the evidential burden?

A

In cases where the defendant wishes to present a defence, rather than simply stating they didn’t do it, they accept an evidential burden for proving the defence. Once the defence is made a live issue, it is then up to the prosecution to destroy the defence, as they retain the burden of proof.

58
Q

Name an example of an exception to the Woolmington principle in which the legal burden is unequivocally placed on the defendant.

A

Where the defendant wishes to rely on the defence of insanity.

59
Q

Name the type of offences where the Woolmington principles are seen simply to not apply?

A

Public welfare regulatory offences. In these cases, the courts have developed a no-fault defence, with the burden of proof on the defendant.

60
Q

In general, where the legal burden is on the prosecution it must be discharged “beyond reasonable doubt”. In contrast, to what extent must it be discharged by the defence?

A

Any element which the defence bears the burden of proving need only be proved on the “balance of probabilities”.

61
Q

What is meant by beyond reasonable doubt?

A

As per the instructions given to a jury by the judge “Crown will have met only, if at the end of the case, you are sure the accused is guilty. It is not enough for the Crown to persuade you that the accused is probably guilty or even that he or she is very likely guilty.”

62
Q

What is a reasonable doubt?

A

A reasonable doubt is an honest and reasonable uncertainty left in your mind about the guilty of the accused after you have given careful and impartial consideration to all of the evidence.

63
Q

How is the balance of probabilities defined?

A

Where the defence is required to prove a particular element, such as insanity, on the balance of probabilities, it must simply that it is more probably than not.

64
Q

How much corroboration is required to support a witness statement?

A

In general, one witnesses’ testimony, unsupported by any other evidence, will suffice to prove a case where the court is satisfied that it is reliable and accurate and provide proof to the required standard. It does not always follow that the court will act upon the evidence of one witness; it simply means that it may do so when sufficiently satisfied as to its cogency.

65
Q

What two offences require, as a matter of law, corroboration (which is some independent evidence which implicates the defendant in the crime charged)?

A

Perjury and related offences and treason. One witness statement is insufficient.

66
Q

In the case of a jury trial, what may the judge do if they are of the opinion that uncorroborated evidence may be unreliable?

A

The judge may choose to warn the jury under section 122 about whether to accept the evidence and the amount of weight given to the evidence. This also applies to hearsay evidence under 122(2).

67
Q

In what cases is a corroboration warning prohibited under section 125(1) of the Evidence Act 2006?

A

This applies in cases involving child complainants where the warning would not have been given had the complainant been an adult. (Sexual assault example).

68
Q

Typically, the prosecution calls their witnesses before the defence. However, section 107 of the Criminal Procedure Act 2011 allows the defence to seek leave to call a witness after a prosecution witness. Why is this?

A

This provision is designed to assist the jury in building up a “story” about what happened and how the evidence fits together.

69
Q

If a witness wishes to consult a document whilst giving evidence, there are four conditions imposed to ensure so far as possible the accuracy of the document. What are these?

A

1) The leave of the judge must be obtained
2) The document must be shown to every other party in the proceeding
3) The document must have been “made or adapted” by a witness “at time when this or her memory was fresh” (could be up to six weeks depending on the circumstances
4) The document must have been made by the witnesses, or by another person acting on the witness’s behalf

70
Q

What type of evidence is presented when a witness refers to a document to refresh memory?

A

Because the courts are acting on the fiction that the document is merely reviving the witness’s own memory, the evidence remains oral testimony.

71
Q

How are witnesses permitted to refresh their memory outside of court (2 examples)?

A

1) Referring to briefs of evidence prepared on the basis of statements
2) By checking their recollection of events with the officer who interviewed them (a good habit to build with witnesses)

72
Q

What should happen if a prosecution witness has refreshed his or her memory prior to trial from a written statement (2)?

A

1) The defence should be advised of this and

2) if requested, a copy of the statement should be made available

73
Q

Witnesses are free to use whatever means they choose to refresh their memories prior to trial. What effect might the means have, however?

A

It may affect the weight that is given to their evidence.

74
Q

If an application is granted to treat a witness as hostile, how may the manner of the questions subsequently be asked?

A

The witness may be asked questions in the manner of cross-examination to the extent that the judge considers it necessary for the purposes of doing justice. This may include leading questions, questions designed to probe the accuracy of memory and perception, questions as to prior inconsistent statements, and other challenges to veracity.

75
Q

Witness hostility is not demonstrated by the mere fact that the witness has given evidence that is inconsistent with another statement he or she has made previously. What else is required?

A

There must be some additional indications to demonstrate that the witness may not wish to tell the truth, deliberately withhold evidence etc., such as demeanour, behaviour, or any other relevant issues.

76
Q

When must full disclosure be made by the prosecution (2 instances)?

A

As soon as reasonably practicable after a defendant has pleaded not guilty OR the first appearance of a child or young person.

77
Q

What must also be included to constitute full disclosure?

A

A list of relevant information that is not disclosed and the reason for the refusal.

78
Q

What should be considered by prosecutors when trying to decide what should be disclosed to defence?

A

They should consider whether the information or exhibit:

1) will help or hinder the defendant’s ability to defend the charges
2) would or might detract from the prosecution case, or assist the defence, or incriminate another person

79
Q

What must police retain material or information on during the course of disclosure (3)?

A

That which

1) points towards a fact or an individual,
2) casts doubt on the suspect’s guilt, or
3) implicates another person.

80
Q

The prosecutor must allow inspection of exhibits when requested by the defence after full disclosure occurs. What conditions is this inspection subject to (2)?

A

Any conditions that the prosecutor consider necessary for the purpose of:

1) ensuring the security and integrity of the exhibit or otherwise maintaining its evidential value; and
2) in the case of an exhibit needed for use on an on-going basis for law enforcement purposes, ensuring that the exhibit can continue to be used as such.

81
Q

Besides the provisions of section 15-18 of the Evidence Act 2006, generally speaking, under what two circumstances can information be withheld following a request by the defence?

A

Those requests which appear frivolous or vexatious. Requests must be for particular information, not a general request.

82
Q

During a prosecution, what should happen with information which has been previously withheld (2)?

A

1) It should be regularly reviewed to determine whether circumstances have changed
2) If a change in circumstances means that the information should now be disclosed, that should be done as soon as is practicable

83
Q

When do obligations under the Criminal Disclosure Act begin and end?

A

They begin with the commencement of proceedings and continue for as long as information related to the proceedings is held.

84
Q

When should initial disclosure take place?

A

Generally not later than 15 days after commencement of proceedings.