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PHARMA > 6th Assessment Renal > Flashcards

6th Assessment Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Finasteride and dutasteride act by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Treatment usually requires 6-12 months before prostate size is sufficiently reduced to improve symptoms. The major side effects of these medications are:

  • Nausea and flatulence
  • Alopecia and gynecomastia
  • Decreased libido and erectile dysfunction
  • Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness
A

Decreased libido and erectile dysfunction

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2
Q

A 32-year-old male had a motor vehicular accident while driving his motorcycle under the influence of alcohol. He was thrown to the side of the road, hitting his head on the cement. He was rushed to the nearby hospital. Glasgow Coma Scale was 6 on arrival: opens eye to pain (2), incomprehensible speech (2), and has decerebrate posture (2). Pupils were mid-dilated and sluggishly react to light. CT scan showed intracranial
bleeding. To lower the patient’s intracranial pressure, which medication will be most effective?

A

Mannitol

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3
Q

The most efficient diuretics in mobilizing sodium and chloride from the body.

A

Loop diuretics

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4
Q

Which of the following is not used in the treatment of BPH?

  • Doxazosin
  • Finasteride
  • Tamsolusin
  • Sildenafil
A

Sildenafil

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5
Q

The most widely used diuretics. They act on the distal convoluted tubule and are sulfonamide derivatives. They are sometimes called “low-ceiling diuretics” because increasing the dose above normal therapeutic doses does not promote further diuretic response.

A

Thiazides

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6
Q 
Which of the following is not used in the treatment of BPH? 
• Finasteride
• Tamsolusin
• Doxazosin
• Sildenafil
A

Sildenafil

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7
Q

4th generation fluoroquinolone

  • Nalidixic acid
  • Moxifloxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
A

Moxifloxacin

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8
Q

Approximately 2/3s of sodium reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the:

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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9
Q

A 49-year-old woman recently diagnosed with urinary tract infection started treatment with combined trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following best explains the main reason for combining these two drugs?

  • To increase patient compliance by administering a single preparation
  • To retard the biotransformation of both drugs
  • To decrease the risk of allergic reactions
  • To obtain a bactericidal effect that is unlikely with either drug given alone
A

To increase patient compliance by administering a single preparation

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10
Q

Which of the following statements regarding erectile dysfunction is false?

  • It is the inability to maintain an erection sufficient for sexual performance
  • At the age of 65 years old, 15% will have complete ED and 50% will have moderate ED
  • At the age of 40 years old, 5% will have complete ED and 17% will have moderate ED
  • Risk factors are age, diabetes mellitus, and prostatic surgery
A

At the age of 65 years old, 15% will have complete ED and 50% will have moderate ED

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11
Q

The most effective therapy for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia:

A

Cotrimoxazole

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12
Q

A urinary tract antiseptic that is decomposed to formaldehyde which is toxic to bacteria.

A

Methenamine

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13
Q

The drug of choice for postexposure prophylaxis and treatment of anthrax:

A

Ciprofloxacin

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14
Q

The most common pathogen for urinary tract infections:

A

Escherichia coli

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15
Q

A 58-year-old man complained to his physician of weakness, drowsiness, dizziness, and palpitations. He was recently diagnosed with bladder obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia and had been taking a drug for 2 weeks. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient’s symptoms?

A

Tamsulosin

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16
Q

The parathyroid hormone regulates calcium excretion in this part of the tubule:

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

17
Q

Which of the following is the best description of the mechanism of action of terazosin?

  • Terazosin blocks 5-α reductase
  • Terazosin blocks PDE-5
  • Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors
  • Terazosin blocks α1A receptors
A

Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors

18
Q

Fluoroquinolones:

  • Are bacteriostatic and effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria
  • Interfere with the action of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV
  • Are bactericidal and effective primarily against atypical and anaerobic bacteria
  • Inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria by binding to the mRNA-ribosome complex
A

Interfere with the action of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

19
Q

2nd generation fluoroquinolone

  • Nalidixic Acid
  • Moxifloxacin
  • Norfloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
A

Norfloxacin

20
Q

Vasopressin receptors promote water reabsorption from the:

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

21
Q

First-line therapy for erectile dysfunction:

A

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor

22
Q

A patient has a history of severe anaphylactic reaction to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (a sulfonamide). Which diuretic should be avoided in this patient?

A

Triamterene

23
Q

An 83-year-old female resident in a nursing facility presented with fever (38oC), dry cough, and general malaise. Further exams led to the diagnosis of hospital-acquired pneumonia due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Treatment was started with a drug that is effective against most gram-negative bacteria, as well as against some mycobacteria, mycoplasmas, chlamydiae, and rickettsiae. Which of the following drugs was most likely given?

  • Piperacillin
  • Erythromycin
  • Ceftazidime
  • Ciprofloxacin
A

Ciprofloxacin

24
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia occurs primarily in the:

A

Transition zone

25
Q

Normal erection process involves:

  • Dilation of venules and relaxation of the smooth muscles of the corpora cavernosa
  • Compression of arteries in the corpora cavernosa by the engorging sinusoids
  • SNS stimulation of the cavernous nerve
  • Increased cAMP and cGMP production mediating smooth muscle relaxation
A

Increased cAMP and cGMP production mediating smooth muscle relaxation

26
Q

Which is not true of diuretic agents?

  • They can change the pH and ionic composition of the urine and blood
  • They are drugs that increase the volume of urine excreted
  • They increase the reabsorption of sodium at different sites of the nephron
  • They are most commonly used for management of edema and hypertension
A

They increase the reabsorption of sodium at different sites of the nephron

27
Q

1st generation fluoroquinolone

  • Nalidixic acid
  • Moxifloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
  • Norfloxacin
A

Nalidixic acid

28
Q

A 63-year-old woman complains of eye pain in both eyes but more prominent in the right. She sought consultation with an ophthalmologist who noted increased intraocular pressure on both eyes: left eye – 28 mmHg, right eye – 35 mmHg. In the right eye, optic disc changes were seen along with peripheral vision loss at the nasal area. The patient was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and was prescribed optic drops. Which was most likely given?

  • Amiloride
  • Brinzolamide
  • Urea
  • Ethacrynic acid
A

Brinzolamide

29
Q

3rd generation fluoroquinolone

  • Levofloxacin
  • Nalidixic acid
  • Norfloxacin
  • Moxifloxacin
A

Levofloxacin

30
Q

A 65-year-old man, recently diagnosed with prostatic hyperplasia, started treatment with doxazosin. Which of the following adverse effects would be most likely to occur during the first days of therapy?

  • Mydriasis
  • Postural hypotension
  • Impaired micturition
  • Bronchoconstriction
A

Postural hypotension

PHARMA (26 decks)

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