51-100 Flashcards by Hana Nafuar

Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate postprandial glucose levels and is approved for preprandial use in individuals with type I and type II DM

A. Sitagliptin
B. Pramlintide
C. Exenatide
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Pramlintide

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Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of an overdose of B-blocking agents because ability to increase cAMP production in the hear

A. Amylin
B. Exenatide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Glucagon
E. All of the above

Glucagon

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Vitamin D is
I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural form
II. A secosteroid
III. Produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol

Has vitamin D2 as a natural form
Produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol

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Calcitonon

A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate
B. Increase serum calcium and
phosphate
C. Increase serum phosphate only
D. Both A and B
E. Neither A nor B

Lower serum calcuim and phosphate

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What is the oral form of penicillin?

A. Pen G
B. Pen V
C. Pen C
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

Pen V

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What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL cephalosporin still in general use?

A. Cefalexin
B. Cephadrine
C. Cefadoxole
D. Cefazolin
E. All of the above

Cefazolin

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Vancomycin is from

A. Streptococcus orientalis
B. Streptomyces orientalis
C. Streptococcus orchidaceus
D. Streptomyces orchidaceus
E. None of the above

Streptococcus orientalis

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Which of the following is derived from erythromycin by addition of methyl group and has an improved acid stability and oral absorption

A. Azithromycin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Streptomycin
E. None of the above

Clarithromycin

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Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with loop diuretics may result to:

A. Ototoxicity
B. Neprhrotoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity (Both A and B)

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The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are:

A. Neomycin and kanamycin
B. Streptomycin and gentamicin
C. Neomycin and gentamicin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Neomycin and kanamycin

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Trimethoprim acts on

A. Dihydropteroate synthase
B. Dihydrofolate reductase
C. DNA gyrase
D. A and B
E. A and C

Dihydrofolate reductase

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This anti-fungal drugs absorption is improved when taken with fatty foods:

A. Ketoconazole
B. 5-flucytosine
C. Nystatin
D. Griseofulvin
E. All of the above

Griseofulvin

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This drug is the treatment of choice for giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis.

A. Iodoquinol
B. Diloxanide furoate
C. Metronidazole
D. paramomycin
E. none of the above

Metronidazole

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Prussian blue is used to chelate
A. Thallium
B. Cesium
C. Cyanide
D. A and B
E. B and C

Thallium and Cesium (Both A and B)

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Treatment for iron poisoning

A. Deferoxamine
B. Methylene blue
C. Ferroin
D. Penicillamine
E. None of the above

Deferoxamine

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Antidote for acetaminophen overdose

A. NAC
B. Atropine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Fomepizole
E. All of the above

NAC

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Acetylated morphine

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone

Heroin

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Methylated morphine

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone
E. all of the above

Codeine

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Which of the following H2- antagonist has the highest bioavailability?

A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
E. None of the above

Nizatidine

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Which is the most potent H2- antagonist?

A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
E. All of the above

Famotidine

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Plasil® is

A. Metoclopramide
B. Chlopropamide
C. Enalapril
D. Furosemide
E. All of the above

Metoclopramide

Silymarin is for the

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Brain
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Liver

Gingko should not be given with

A. Aspirin
B. Vancomycin
C. Caffeine
D. Juice
E. All of the above

Aspirin

Royal jelly is used as

A. Diet aid
B. Analgesic
C. Tonic
D. Digestive aid
E. All of the above

Tonic

What is the mechanism of action of a chloramphenicol? A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor B. Protein synthesis inhibitor C. DNA gyrase inhibitor D. Antimetabolite E. None of the above

Protein synthesis inhibitor

Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are 80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What maintenance dosage must be administered intravenously every 6 hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma concentrations of 4 mg/L? A. 0.32 mg B. 115 mg C. 160 mg D. 230 mg E. None of the above

115 mg

If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question 101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, how much should you give? A. 0.1 mg B. 10 mg C. 115.2 mg D. 160 mg E. None of the above

160 mg

Biotransformation (metabolism) usually results in a product that is A. More likely to distribute intracellularly B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original drug C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney tubules D. More lipid-soluble than the original drug E. All of the above

Less lipid-soluble than the the original drug

Physostigimine and bethanechol in small doses have similar effects on all of the following EXCEPT A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle) B. Salivary glands C. Ureteral tone D. Sweat glands E. Gastric secretion

Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle)

Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause all of the following EXCEPT A. Reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase B. Spasm of accomodation C. Constipation D. Bronchoconstriction E. Weakness of skeletal muscle

Constipation

Typical symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity include all of the following EXCEPT A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea B. Salivation C. Miosis D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle E. Paralysis of accommodation

Paralysis of accommodation

Atropine overdosage may cause all of thefollowing EXCEPT A. Mental aberrations B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle C. Decrease in gastric secretion D. Papillary constriction E. Increase in cardiac rate

Papillary constriction

A college friend consults you regarding the suitability of the theraphy his doctor has prescribed for hypertension. He complains of postural and exercise hypotension (“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems with ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is most likely to produce these effects? A. Propranol B. Guanethedine C. Prazosin D. Hydralizine E. Captopril

Guanethedine

Captopril and Enalapril do all of the following EXCEPT A. Increase renin concentration in the blood B. Inhibit an enzyme C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its receptor D. Decrease the angiotensin II concentration in the blood E. Increase sodium and decrease potassium levels in the urine

Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its receptor

The primary mechanism of action of digitalis involves A. An increase of the action potential amplitude B. An increase in ATP synthesis C. A modification of the actin molecule D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange

An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels

Which of the following is (are) frequently associated with increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea A. Timolol B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2 C. Corticosteroids D. Leukotriene B4 E. None of the above

Prostaglandins E1 and E2

The major action of cromolyn A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in the bronchi B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals C. Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes D. Block of mediator release from mast cells E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils

Block of mediator release from mast cells

Each of the following is recognized as a central neurotransmitter EXCEPT A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. cAMP E. Acetylcholine

cAMP

Which ONE of the following best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of glutamic acid B. inhibition of GABA transaminase leading to increased levels of GABA C. Activation of glycine receptors in the spinal cord D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in chloride conductance

Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in chloride conductance

Which of the following statements about carbidopa is accurate? A. It crosses the blood brain barrier B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A C. It is converted to the false transmitter, carbidopamine D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase

It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase

This drug is a hydrazide derivative that binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of amine metabolism. A. Amoxapine B. Amitriptyline C. Isocarboxazid D. Maprotiline E. Fluoxetine

Isocarboxazid

This drug has analgesic efficacy equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at mu receptors. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone

Nalbuphine

This antagonist drug has been proposed as a maintenance drug for addicts in treatment programs. A single oral dose will block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone

Naltrexone

This drug is free of analgesic and addictive properties and only rarely causes constipation. It is an effective antitussive. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone

Dextromethorphan

This drug is a full antagonist at opioid receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent to that of morphine, but its actions are more prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt discontinuance are milder than those with morphine. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone

Methadone

Activation of plasminogen to plasmin A. Is brought about by heparin B. Is brought about by warfarin C. Is brought about by anistreplase D. Is used preoperatively and during surgery in patients at risk of deep vein thromboses E. Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin K1 oxide

Is brought about by anistreplase

Aspirin should be used cautiously in a patient receiving heparin because aspirin A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption B. Has antithrombin activity C. Inhibits heparin metabolism D. Inhibits platelet aggregation E. All of the above

Inhibits platelet aggregation

Increased levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? A. VLDL B. LDL C. IDL D. HDL E. Cholesterol

HDL

Which of the following causes a reduction in absorption of bile acids from the GIT A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors B. Colestipol C. Niacin D. Probucol E. All of the above

Colestipol

Drugs used in the treatment of gout include the following EXCEPT A. Indomethacin B. Allopurinol C. Colchicines D. Probenecid E. Aspirin

Aspirin