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Pharmacology > 51-100 > Flashcards

51-100 Flashcards

1
Q

Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate postprandial glucose levels and is approved for preprandial use in individuals with type I and type II DM

A. Sitagliptin
B. Pramlintide
C. Exenatide
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

Pramlintide

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2
Q

Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of an overdose of B-blocking agents because ability to increase cAMP production in the hear

A. Amylin
B. Exenatide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Glucagon
E. All of the above

A

Glucagon

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3
Q

Vitamin D is
I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural form
II. A secosteroid
III. Produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol

A
  • Has vitamin D2 as a natural form
  • Produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol
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4
Q

Calcitonon

A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate
B. Increase serum calcium and
phosphate
C. Increase serum phosphate only
D. Both A and B
E. Neither A nor B

A

Lower serum calcuim and phosphate

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5
Q

What is the oral form of penicillin?

A. Pen G
B. Pen V
C. Pen C
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

A

Pen V

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6
Q

What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL cephalosporin still in general use?

A. Cefalexin
B. Cephadrine
C. Cefadoxole
D. Cefazolin
E. All of the above

A

Cefazolin

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7
Q

Vancomycin is from

A. Streptococcus orientalis
B. Streptomyces orientalis
C. Streptococcus orchidaceus
D. Streptomyces orchidaceus
E. None of the above

A

Streptococcus orientalis

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8
Q

Which of the following is derived from erythromycin by addition of methyl group and has an improved acid stability and oral absorption

A. Azithromycin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Streptomycin
E. None of the above

A

Clarithromycin

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9
Q

Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with loop diuretics may result to:

A. Ototoxicity
B. Neprhrotoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

A

Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity (Both A and B)

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10
Q

The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are:

A. Neomycin and kanamycin
B. Streptomycin and gentamicin
C. Neomycin and gentamicin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

Neomycin and kanamycin

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11
Q

Trimethoprim acts on

A. Dihydropteroate synthase
B. Dihydrofolate reductase
C. DNA gyrase
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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12
Q

This anti-fungal drugs absorption is improved when taken with fatty foods:

A. Ketoconazole
B. 5-flucytosine
C. Nystatin
D. Griseofulvin
E. All of the above

A

Griseofulvin

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13
Q

This drug is the treatment of choice for giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis.

A. Iodoquinol
B. Diloxanide furoate
C. Metronidazole
D. paramomycin
E. none of the above

A

Metronidazole

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14
Q

Prussian blue is used to chelate
A. Thallium
B. Cesium
C. Cyanide
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

Thallium and Cesium (Both A and B)

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15
Q

Treatment for iron poisoning

A. Deferoxamine
B. Methylene blue
C. Ferroin
D. Penicillamine
E. None of the above

A

Deferoxamine

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16
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen overdose

A. NAC
B. Atropine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Fomepizole
E. All of the above

A

NAC

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17
Q

Acetylated morphine

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone

A

Heroin

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18
Q

Methylated morphine

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone
E. all of the above

A

Codeine

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19
Q

Which of the following H2- antagonist has the highest bioavailability?

A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
E. None of the above

A

Nizatidine

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20
Q

Which is the most potent H2- antagonist?

A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
E. All of the above

A

Famotidine

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21
Q

Plasil® is

A. Metoclopramide
B. Chlopropamide
C. Enalapril
D. Furosemide
E. All of the above

A

Metoclopramide

22
Q

Silymarin is for the

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Brain
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

Liver

23
Q

Gingko should not be given with

A. Aspirin
B. Vancomycin
C. Caffeine
D. Juice
E. All of the above

A

Aspirin

24
Q

Royal jelly is used as

A. Diet aid
B. Analgesic
C. Tonic
D. Digestive aid
E. All of the above

A

Tonic

25
Q

What is the mechanism of action of a chloramphenicol?

A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
B. Protein synthesis inhibitor
C. DNA gyrase inhibitor
D. Antimetabolite
E. None of the above

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor

26
Q

Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are 80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What maintenance dosage must be administered intravenously every 6 hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma
concentrations of 4 mg/L?

A. 0.32 mg
B. 115 mg
C. 160 mg
D. 230 mg
E. None of the above

A

115 mg

27
Q

If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question 101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, how much should you give?

A. 0.1 mg
B. 10 mg
C. 115.2 mg
D. 160 mg
E. None of the above

A

160 mg

28
Q

Biotransformation (metabolism) usually results in a product that is

A. More likely to distribute intracellularly
B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original
drug
C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney
tubules
D. More lipid-soluble than the original
drug
E. All of the above

A

Less lipid-soluble than the the original drug

29
Q

Physostigimine and bethanechol in small doses have similar effects on all of the following EXCEPT

A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle)
B. Salivary glands
C. Ureteral tone
D. Sweat glands
E. Gastric secretion

A

Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle)

30
Q

Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause all of the following EXCEPT

A. Reversible inhibition of
acetylcholinesterase
B. Spasm of accomodation
C. Constipation
D. Bronchoconstriction
E. Weakness of skeletal muscle

A

Constipation

31
Q

Typical symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
B. Salivation
C. Miosis
D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle
E. Paralysis of accommodation

A

Paralysis of accommodation

32
Q

Atropine overdosage may cause all of thefollowing EXCEPT
A. Mental aberrations
B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
C. Decrease in gastric secretion
D. Papillary constriction
E. Increase in cardiac rate

A

Papillary constriction

33
Q

A college friend consults you regarding the suitability of the theraphy his doctor has prescribed for hypertension. He complains of postural and exercise hypotension (“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems with ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is most likely to produce these effects?
A. Propranol
B. Guanethedine
C. Prazosin
D. Hydralizine
E. Captopril

A

Guanethedine

34
Q

Captopril and Enalapril do all of the following EXCEPT
A. Increase renin concentration in the
blood
B. Inhibit an enzyme
C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its receptor
D. Decrease the angiotensin II concentration in the blood
E. Increase sodium and decrease potassium levels in the urine

A

Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its receptor

35
Q

The primary mechanism of action of digitalis involves
A. An increase of the action potential amplitude
B. An increase in ATP synthesis
C. A modification of the actin molecule
D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels
E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange

A

An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels

36
Q

Which of the following is (are) frequently associated with increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea
A. Timolol
B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2
C. Corticosteroids
D. Leukotriene B4
E. None of the above

A

Prostaglandins E1 and E2

37
Q

The major action of cromolyn
A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in the bronchi
B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
C. Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes
D. Block of mediator release from mast cells
E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils

A

Block of mediator release from mast cells

38
Q

Each of the following is recognized as a central neurotransmitter EXCEPT
A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT)
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. cAMP
E. Acetylcholine

A

cAMP

39
Q

Which ONE of the following best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of glutamic acid
B. inhibition of GABA transaminase leading to increased levels of GABA
C. Activation of glycine receptors in the spinal cord
D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in chloride conductance

A

Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in chloride conductance

40
Q

Which of the following statements about carbidopa is accurate?
A. It crosses the blood brain barrier
B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A
C. It is converted to the false transmitter, carbidopamine
D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase

A

It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase

41
Q

This drug is a hydrazide derivative that binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of amine metabolism.
A. Amoxapine
B. Amitriptyline
C. Isocarboxazid
D. Maprotiline
E. Fluoxetine

A

Isocarboxazid

42
Q

This drug has analgesic efficacy equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at mu receptors.
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Nalbuphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
E. Naltrexone

A

Nalbuphine

43
Q

This antagonist drug has been proposed as a maintenance drug for addicts in treatment programs. A single oral dose will block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours.
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Nalbuphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
E. Naltrexone

A

Naltrexone

44
Q

This drug is free of analgesic and addictive properties and only rarely causes constipation. It is an effective antitussive.
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Nalbuphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
E. Naltrexone

A

Dextromethorphan

45
Q

This drug is a full antagonist at opioid receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent to that of morphine, but its actions are more prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt discontinuance are milder than those with morphine.
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Nalbuphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
E. Naltrexone

A

Methadone

46
Q

Activation of plasminogen to plasmin
A. Is brought about by heparin
B. Is brought about by warfarin
C. Is brought about by anistreplase
D. Is used preoperatively and during surgery in patients at risk of deep vein thromboses
E. Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin K1 oxide

A

Is brought about by anistreplase

47
Q

Aspirin should be used cautiously in a patient receiving heparin because aspirin
A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption
B. Has antithrombin activity
C. Inhibits heparin metabolism
D. Inhibits platelet aggregation
E. All of the above

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

48
Q

Increased levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. IDL
D. HDL
E. Cholesterol

A

HDL

49
Q

Which of the following causes a reduction in absorption of bile acids from the GIT
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
B. Colestipol
C. Niacin
D. Probucol
E. All of the above

A

Colestipol

50
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of gout include the following EXCEPT
A. Indomethacin
B. Allopurinol
C. Colchicines
D. Probenecid
E. Aspirin

A

Aspirin

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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