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Pharmacology > 101-150 > Flashcards

101-150 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following are hormones EXCEPT
A. Bromocriptine
B. Somatotropin
C. Thyrotropin
D. Vasopressin
E. Somatomedin

A

Bromocriptine

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2
Q

Important drugs used in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis include all of the following EXCEPT

A. PTU
B. KI
C. Thyroglobulin
D. Radioactive iodine
E. Methimazole

A

Thyroglobulin

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3
Q

All of the following act by a similar mechanism EXCEPT
A. Tolbutamide
B. Tolazamide
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Glipizide
E. Metformin

A

Metformin

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4
Q

All of the following antimicrobial agents are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT
A. Clindamycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Vancomycin
D. Stretomycin
E. Chloramphenicol

A

Vancomycin

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5
Q

The mechanism of antibacterial action of cephalosporins involves
A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis
B. Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol
C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes
D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases
E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase

A

Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes

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6
Q

The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves
A. Inhibition of the conversion of
lanosterol to ergosterol
B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyltransferases
E. None of the above

A

Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes

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7
Q

All of the following statements about aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT

A. They exert synergistic effects with
beta-lactam antibiotics against
selected organisms
B. They are bactericidal
C. Their antibacterial action involves binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent inhibition of peptidyltransferase
D. Clinical resistance occurs through plasmid-mediated formation of group transferase inactivating enzymes
E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin are usually resistant to aminoglycosides

A

Their antibacterial action involves binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent inhibition of
peptidyltransferase

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8
Q

The primary reason for the use of drug combinations in the treatment of TB is to
A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each drug
B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects
C. Enhance the activity against metabolically inactive mycobacteria
D. Delay the emergence of resistance
E. All of the above

A

Delay the emergence of resistance

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9
Q

Which ONE of the following anticancer drugs is cell cycle nonspecific?
A. Vinblastine
B. Etoposide
C. Cytarabine
D. Daunorubucin
E. All of the above

A

Daunorubucin

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a proton-pump inhibitor?
A. Omeprazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Pantoprazole
D. Lansoprazole
E. None of the above

A

Metronidazole

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11
Q

Filariasis, an infection which can lead to lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. Eradication of the microfilaria can be accomplished by the use of which of the following agents?
A. Praziquantel
B. Diethylcarbamazine
C. Niclosamide
D. Albendazole
E. Metronidazole

A

Diethylcarbamazine

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12
Q

Which of the following antineosplastic agents is considered as cell cycle phasespecific agent in terms of its action on cancer cells?
A. Dactinomycin
B. Daunorubucin
C. Vincristine
D. Cisplastin
E. Mechlorethamine

A

Vincristine

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13
Q

Which of the following is (are) important adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent urotoxicity?
A. MESNA
B. Acrolein
C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

MESNA and Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate

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14
Q

Which of the following is true about the drug Pritor®?
A. It is of the same therapeutic class and indication as Hypace® and Diovan ®
B. It is used to treat essential hypertension
C. It is associated with tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, and edema
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

It is used to treat essential hypertension

It is associated with tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, and edema

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15
Q

Which of the following is not present in Cluviscol® tablets?
A. Vitamin D2 400 IU
B. Calcium 120mg
C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg
D. Vitamin C 150mg
E. Cobalt 3mg

A

Cobalt 3mg

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16
Q

Which of the following is true regarding N-acetylcysteine?
A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment of paracetamol poisoning
B. It is used as a mucolytic agent
C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil® and Hidonac®
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

A

A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment of paracetamol poisoning

B. It is used as a mucolytic agent

C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil® and Hidonac®

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17
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Cellcept®?
A. It contains a prodrug that is converted
to the active drug in the liver.
B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
C. It decreases B cell proliferation
D. A and B only

A

A. It contains a prodrug that is converted to the active drug in the liver.

B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

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18
Q

Xalatan® can best be described as a(n)
A. Cholinesterase inhibitor
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent
D. Prodrug
E. Prostaglandin agonist

A

Prostaglandin agonist

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19
Q

As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is most similar in mechanism of action to which one of the following agents?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Flecainide
D. Verapamil
E. Mexiletine

A

Mexiletine

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20
Q

Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs is (are) associated with an adverse effect of cinchonism?
A. Acebutolol
B. Moricizine
C. Quinidine
D. Lidocaine
E. Disopyramide

A

Quinidine

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21
Q

Colestipol can be classified as a(n)
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. Vasopressor
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. ACE inhibitor
E. Bile acid sequestrant

A

Potassium-sparing diuretic

22
Q

Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by
A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS
B. Potentiating the effects of GABA
C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D. Interfering with amine pump
E. Inhibiting the action of MAO

A

Potentiating the effects of GABA

23
Q

Clavunalic acid in Timentin®
A. Inhibits beta-lactamases
B. Prevents the urinary excretion of ticarcillin
C. Prevents first pass metabolism of ticarcillin
D. Is a buffer
E. Is an antiprotozoal agent

A

Inhibits beta-lactamases

24
Q

Propylthiouracil is used for the same indication as
A. Fluororacil
B. Danazol
C. Omeprazole
D. Pramipexole
E. Methimazole

A

Methimazole

25
Q

Which of the following is an indication of Ergotamine?
A. Partial seizures
B. Arthritic pain
C. Tachycardia
D. Psoriasis
E. Migraine headaches

A

Migraine headaches

26
Q

At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s Disease Eldepryl® is a (n):
A. MAO-A inhibitor
B. MAO-B inhibitor
C. COMT
D. Anticholinergic
E. All of the above

A

MAO-B inhibitor

27
Q

Which hypoglycemic agent is most similar in pharmacological action in miglitol?
A. Glipizide
B. Lispro insulin
C. Proglitazone
D. Replaganide
E. Acarbose

A

Acarbose

28
Q

Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the symptomatic relief of hyperacidity and flatulence.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. All of the above

A

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

29
Q

Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to the same generation of cephalosporins as cephalexin.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

30
Q

Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by the posterior pituitary.

Statement 2: Alphahypophamine is secreted by the posterior pituitary.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

31
Q

Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual changes and vascular congestion of the eye.

Statement 2: The active component in cannabis is 9 -tetrahydocannabinol.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

32
Q

Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR.

Statement 2: It is important to maintain the INR between 2 to 3.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

33
Q

Statement 1: Ridaura® is a goldcointaining DMARD.

Statement 2: It is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect

34
Q

Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA
reductase.

Statement 2: Lescol® is contraindicated for use in patients who are pregnant

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

35
Q

Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in a transdermal form for the prevention of
motion sickness.

Statement 2: It acts by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

36
Q

Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic used clinically.

Statement 2:
Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal
effects in contrast to chlorpromazine.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

37
Q

Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is characterized by marked hypotension on taking the first few doses of medication.

Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use of doxazosin.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

38
Q

Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltagegated Ca ion channel in the neuron.

Statement 2: Its use is associated with adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism and ataxia

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

39
Q

Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A derivative that is under pregnancy category X.

Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of patients Psoriasis and alopecia.

A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. None of the above

A

If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect

40
Q

Which of the following is(are) dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents

I. Ropinerole
II. Pergolide
III. Procyclidine

A

Ropinerole and Pergolide

41
Q

Which of the following is protease inhibitors
I. Cidofovir
II. Acyclovir
III. Nelfinavir

A

Nelfinavir

42
Q

Which of the following are aminopenicillins
I. Bacampicillin
II. Amoxicillin
III. Ampicillin

A

Bacampicillin, Amoxicillin, and Ampicillin

43
Q

Which of the following is (are) used as an anti-fungal agent?

I. Cycloserine
II. Mafenide
III. Terbinafine

A

Terbinafine

44
Q

Which of the following is (are) blockers of H1 receptors?
I. Diphenhydramine
II. Hydroxyzine
III. Ranitidine

A

Diphenhydramine and Hydroxyzine

45
Q

Which of the following is (are) false about
milrinone lactate?
A. It may be administered Orally or parenterally
B. It produces positive inotropic action
C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, thereby increasing cAMP levels
E. Both A and D

A

It may be administered Orally or parenterally

46
Q

The following statements about alteplase are true except:
A. It is produce by recombinant DNA technology
B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator
C. It is administered parenterally
D. It stimulate RBC production
E. NOTA

A

It stimulate RBC production

47
Q

The following statements about Zocor® are true except:
A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase.
B. It is an antiviral drug
C. It is contraindicated to pregnant patient
D. It requires to be taken at right
E. NOTA

A

It is an antiviral drug

48
Q

Which of the following is (are) true about dobutamine?
A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant and antihypertensive agent.
B. It is only given parentally
C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

(Both B and C)
B. It is only given parentally
C. It is stimulate beta-1 receptor

49
Q

Which of the following is true about fentanyl?
A. It is available as a transdermal system
B. It may be use as a cough suppressant
C. It is use as local anesthetic
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B

A

It is available as a transdermal system

50
Q

Reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can lower blood pressure and depress the CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring about these effect?
A. DOPA decarboxylase
B. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicle
C. Release of norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals
D. MAO enzyme
E. Uptake- 1 mechanism

A

Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicle

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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