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Cpt Exam 23 > 500s - EMS > Flashcards

500s - EMS Flashcards

1
Q

Who is our EMS director and what are their responsibilities?

A

Pam Martinez
- Oversees delivery of EMS.
- Representative to outside committees

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2
Q

EMS coordinator responsibilities

A

Admin. Captain
OFD rep to ICEMA.
Responsible for operations of OFD EMS Program

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3
Q

When is a PM unit considered in service

A

when it has 2 OFD PMs and ICEMA approved drug/equip. May be deviated from by BC during local emergency/disaster

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4
Q

When 1st due Capt requests resources, what should follow

A

response mode

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5
Q

OFD should follow up on the following patients requiring PM care

A
  • unstable trauma, cardiac, resp
  • STEMI, MLAPSS +
  • Active/post birth
  • critical patient being transported in ATV
  • potential for deterioration
  • requests by ambulance
  • Captain discretion
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6
Q

Medic engine status during patient follow up

A

1 PM- out of PM service
2 PM- OOS

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7
Q

If injury permits, employees can attend attend CE courses if authorized by ________. Can you make OT? Why?

A

yes, if authorized by risk management. Workers comp laws prohibit paying OT during this time

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8
Q

What must be met for a “No Pt care requested (non Pt)”

A
  • competent, 18 or older/emancipated and all of:
  • no CC/injury/illness
  • no MOI
  • denies medical attn
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9
Q

O1A is approved for:

A
  • in county when ePCR unavailable or OOS
  • out of county medical response
  • fireline EMT/P response
  • SWAT medic response
  • must be attached to ImageTrend fire report
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10
Q

Requirements for Mutual Aid/Hard coverage Incidents

A
  • single fire report
  • narrative will include summary of all activities
  • copy of fire report and O1As forwarded to EMS
  • all documentation scanned and attached to image trend fire report
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11
Q

If patient is in PD custody, requesting AMA (IPad)

A

Signature: leave blank
Type of person signing: “patient” Status : “not signed- law enforcement custody”

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12
Q

APS w/in

A

48 hrs

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13
Q

CPS w/in

A

36 hrs

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14
Q

Cal OSHA w/in & requirements

A

As soon as practical for:
- known/suspected serious work injury/illness/death resulting in lost time for employee

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15
Q

BC/EMS may QI items needing correction, what is the time frame to make corrections

A

10 days

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16
Q

Where are primary narc safes located

A

Bat 1, Bat 2, EMS office

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17
Q

Max narc PAR levels

A
  • 600 mcg fet, 40 mg versed, 600 mg ket.
  • Should be restocked no later than 1200 the next day
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18
Q

Min narc PAR levels

A
  • 300 mcg fet, 20 mg versed, 200 mg ket
  • can only be in service below min levels w/ BC approval
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19
Q

When do narc PAR level requirements not apply

A

When on mutual aid outside of zone 1 or assigned hard coverage within zone 1

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20
Q

If a crew is being deployed on a specialty unit and narcs on primary unit are below PAR, who is notified and by who?

A
  • Responsible PMs shall notify recall crew directly or advise BC
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21
Q

When should a discrepancy memo be completed for narc inspection?

A

If not completed by 0900 unless assigned/engaged in emergency actives

22
Q

Narc discrepancy report with no loss of substance, what is required?

A

“Documentation of a Reporting Discrepancy” memo. Completed as soon as it becomes known, signed by both PMs and Capt

23
Q

Known narc theft case, actions:

A
  • OPD stolen property report
  • Request OPD response
  • PM shall complete a DEA 106 form “Report of Theft Loss of Controlled Substances”
  • Control #s of vials stolen logged in comments section for “alert for controlled substances”
  • Complete report sent to EMS captain or nurse and BC
  • All forms to DEA and medical director w/in 48 hrs
24
Q

Advanced health care directive must include:

A
  • Signitire of patient
  • date
  • notarized or signed by 2 adult witnesses
25
Q

If PD requests movement of deceases patient, what are your actions?

A
  • comply w/ request and document following:
  • PD agency, name and badge # of officer, pictures of body prior to movement
26
Q

Transporting city employees on duty, what notifications?

A
  • notify their supervisor of incident/destination
27
Q

Transporting city employees off duty, what notifications?

A
  • none, treated the same as general public
28
Q

Requesting air resources, request through dispatch and advise of the following:

A
  • frequency and call sign for IC
  • landing site location
  • # and severity of patients
  • special circumstances for destination (trauma, burn)
29
Q

If possible, communicate the following to helo en route, not on final approach

A
  • Incident name
  • description of incident/landing site
  • adverse conditions
  • patient information
  • Lat/long, if known
30
Q

MCI definition

A

any incident that IC determines personnel and equipment are not adequate to care for the number of victims

31
Q

Class 1 MCI

A

Expanded medical emergency, 1-5 casualties

32
Q

Class 2 MCI

A

Major medical emergency,
6-20 casualties

33
Q

Class 3 MCI

A

Medical disaster, 21-75 casualties

34
Q

Class 4 MCI

A

Medical catastrophe, 75+ casualties

35
Q

Who does Med Comm work under

A

Transport Group Sup

36
Q

Comm Center initial report:

A
  • Incident location, name
  • type of emergency
  • est # of patients
  • request for bed availability
  • time med comm will recontact
37
Q

Comm Center secondary report:

A
  • specific location
  • total number of patients with category
  • radio frequency
  • medical contact point
38
Q

MCI pt’s of most importance:

A

resp, neuro, vascular specialties, or needs for decon

39
Q

Ideally, no more than how many immediates per transport unit

A

2

40
Q

Effort should be made to retrieve med equipment w/in?

A

24 hrs
48 hrs for trauma center (coordinate w/ EMS/BC)
Capt will notify EMS if not returned w/in 72 hrs

41
Q

If an exposure occurs, notify who?

A

BC who will contact DICO
(Designated infection control officer)

42
Q

Safe surrender site

A

Any OFD station/emergency scene. Less than 72 hrs

43
Q

Safe surrender notifications:

A
  • BC and EMS coordinator ASAP
  • CPS ASAP, no later than 48 hrs
  • If greater than 72 hrs, request OPD, transport infant, notify CPS, complete child abuse investigation report
44
Q

Who is responsible for bio clean up on public property? Private?

A
  • Public, OFD
  • Private, business owner
45
Q

RTSMP

A

Registered Trauma Scene Management Practitioner

46
Q

Who can request a RTSMP?

A

BC, when FD cleanup/disposal capabilities are not adequate

47
Q

Crime scene decon responsibility?

A

OFD, following release of scene by OPD and coroner

48
Q

If bio hazard on private property caused by OPD, who’s responsible for clean up?

A

OPD, watch commander will make decision to call a RTSMP

49
Q

Rehab group established by IC when conditions dictate, considerations:

A
  • length of op, 2 SCBA bottles = rehab
  • Amount of exertion
  • Adverse climate conditions, temps over 90, consider humidity
50
Q

What is the priority for monitoring in rehab?

A

Pulse, BP, Temp

51
Q

Whos responsibility is it to monitor FFs for signs of heat stress/fatigue?

A

Captains responsibility, shall request rehab through IC if observed

52
Q

Regarding rehab air monitoring, when will safety officer be notified?

A

If CO level is 6 or higher

Cpt Exam 23 (16 decks)

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