5: Control of Worms Sustainably Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the intestine do Ostertagia, Haemochus and Trichostrongylus live in?

A

Abomasum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which part of the intestine do Cooperia, Trichostrongylus, Nematodirus and Toxocara live in?

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which part of the intestine does Trichuris live in?

A

LI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long after turnout do you get PGE in calves?

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When in the season does Ostertagia hypobiosis occur?

A

Late season infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do calves get infected with Toxocara?

A

Through milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What part of the larvae’s life cycle causes disease in Ostertagia?

A

Maturation of the larvae in the abomasum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What disease does Ostertagia cause in adult cattle?

A

Usually none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many exposures do you need for immunity in Ostertagia vs Cooperia?

A

Two in Ostertagia, one in Cooperia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the main contributor to faecal egg counts?

A

Cooperia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How badly does Cooperia affect calves?

A

Mild pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does high serum pepsinogen indicate?

A

Reduced abomasal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many samples should you take to perform an egg count?

A

At least 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which animals should you take egg counts from?

A

Healthy animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How soon should you transport faecal samples to the lab?

A

Cool and to the lab within 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens in faecal egg samples are too old?

A

Hatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What must you do if you are pooling faecal egg samples?

A

Equal amounts from each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What % calves have innate immunity to worm infection?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What % calves generate acquired immunity to worms?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What % calves have inadequate response to worms and therefore a high burden?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What % of animals carry the bulk of the parasite infection?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does resistance vs resilience to worms mean?

A

Resistance is lower burden, resilience in unaffected by a higher burden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why does protein supplementation reduce egg count and worm burdens?

A

Compensates for parasitism and improves immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a group 1 drug?

A

Benzimidazole (white)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a group 2 drug?

A

Levamisole (yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a group 3 drug?

A

Macrocyclic lactones (clear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do you use narrow spectrum anthelmintics for?

A

Liver fluke

28
Q

How do you administer doramectin, ivermectin and moxidectin?

A

Injectable and pour-on

29
Q

How do you administer eprinomectin?

A

Pour-on

30
Q

What weeks do you give ivermectin in the early season?

A

3-8-13

31
Q

What weeks do you give doramectin?

A

0-8

32
Q

How long can moxidectin last?

A

6 months

33
Q

When do you administer boluses?

A

Start of the season

34
Q

What are the two types of boluses?

A

Sustained or pulse-release

35
Q

Which drugs are effective against L4 and adult dictyocaulus?

A

All

36
Q

Which life cycle stages are refractory to treatment?

A

Larval

37
Q

Which kinds of lice are macrocyclic lactones effective against?

A

Sucking and chewing

38
Q

What parasite is macrocyclic lactones especially effective against?

A

Warble fly

39
Q

Below what % egg count reduction is a genotype considered resistant?

A

95%

40
Q

In which species is drug resistance more of a problem?

A

Sheep

41
Q

Which species show BZ resistance?

A

Cooperia, Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus

42
Q

Which species is usually resistant to MLs?

A

Cooperia, but resistance to these are less common

43
Q

Which life cycle stages are not considered to be in refugia?

A

Eggs, L1, L2, L3

44
Q

What size are in refugia populations in cattle compared to sheep?

A

Large

45
Q

What frequency treatments generate resistance faster?

A

More frequent

46
Q

How do you avoid introducing resistant worms?

A

Have a quarantine period

47
Q

How long do you keep new cattle off the pasture so they can pass all eggs?

A

24-48 hours

48
Q

Which calves are worm free so don’t need treatment?

A

Born and raised indoors

49
Q

What will happen if you give a product too soon (at turnout)?

A

Will wear off too soon

50
Q

Why should you not use dose and move?

A

Will contaminate the pasture with resistant worms

51
Q

What do you do instead of dose and move?

A

Delay the move after the dose so they can pick up susceptible worms

52
Q

What are the three types of grazing management you can use?

A

Preventiate, evasive or diluting

53
Q

What is an example of bioactive forage?

A

Chicory

54
Q

Which tests can you use to detect resistance?

A

Wormer test or FECRT

55
Q

Does the wormers test show efficacy or resistance?

A

Efficacy, but not necessarily resistance

56
Q

What does FECRT test anthelmintic against?

A

A control group

57
Q

At what two points do you perform a FECRT?

A

Prior to treatment, then later (reduce below 95%)

58
Q

How does mixed grazing (cattle and sheep) reduce contamination?

A

Reduces stocking density

59
Q

Which kind of summers precede a heavy worm burden?

A

Dry summer

60
Q

Which kind of parasite especially follows a dry summer?

A

Lung worm

61
Q

What are some clinical signs of type I ostertagiosis?

A

Loss of appetite, sudden profuse green diarrhoea, affects many animals, loss of BCS

62
Q

What is mortality like in type I ostertagiosis?

A

Mortality rare

63
Q

What is happening in type II ostertagiosis?

A

Hypobiosed larvae all emerge together in late winter

64
Q

What are the clinical signs of type II ostertgiosis?

A

Profuse unresponsive diarrhoea

65
Q

How fast is immunity to Cooperia?

A

Rapid

66
Q

How fast is immunity to Ostertagia?

A

Slower - two breeding seasons