5 Flashcards

1
Q

Capsules and tablets are generally used in farm animals due to their large size, the use of powders is more common in small animal practice

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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2
Q

Tropically applied procaine has fast onset of action

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Procaine is a local anaesthetic which causes numbness/loss of feeling on skin and mucous membrane. Injection only.

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3
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description:

Broad-spectrum AMEG C antibacterial agent with excellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacillosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogen

The alternatives:
1. Apramycin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Florfenicol
4. Lincomycin
5. Doxycycline

A

Florfenicol

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4
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description:

An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of enterococcosis in poultry

The alternatives:
1. Apramycin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Florfenicol
4. Lincomycin
5. Doxycycline

A

Amoxicillin

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5
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description:

An antibacterial agent for the treatment of diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteruella and mycoplasma

The alternatives:
1. Apramycin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Florfenicol
4. Lincomycin
5. Doxycycline

A

Doxycyline

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6
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description:

An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

The alternatives:
1. Apramycin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Florfenicol
4. Lincomycin
5. Doxycycline

A

Apramycin

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7
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description:

An antibacterial agent of AMEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal diseases in intestinal species

The alternatives:
1. Apramycin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Florfenicol
4. Lincomycin
5. Doxycycline

A

Lincomycin

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8
Q

Diazinon breaks down into diazoxone, which is a safer and more effective compound, so it is advisable to prepare ant-parasitic bath waters at least on day in advance

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Diazinon is metabolized(broken down) into diazoxon which contains oxygen. It is more toxic, with longer half life

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9
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

it is used in hyperthyroidism

The alternatives:
1. Acarbose
2. Insulin
3. Thiamazole
4. Liothyronine
5. Trilostane

A

Thiamazole

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10
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

it can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are non-responsive to glucose

The alternatives:
1. Acarbose
2. Insulin
3. Thiamazole
4. Liothyronine
5. Trilostane

A

insulin

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11
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

only indicated in hyperthyroidism if the first -choice therapy has failed

The alternatives:
1. Acarbose
2. Insulin
3. Thiamazole
4. Liothyronine
5. Trilostane

A

Liothyronine

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12
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing’s syndrome

The alternatives:
1. Acarbose
2. Insulin
3. Thiamazole
4. Liothyronine
5. Trilostane

A

Trilostane

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13
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

in inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract

The alternatives:
1. Acarbose
2. Insulin
3. Thiamazole
4. Liothyronine
5. Trilostane

A

Acarbose

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14
Q

What is the indication for fourth generation fluroquinolones?

A. UTI and gastrointestinal tract infection

B. respiratory infections, pyoderma, osteomyelitis, prostatitis, eye infection

C.Gingivitis, periodontitis, meningitis, meningoencephalis

D. All

A

D. All

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15
Q

Which agent would you use in the therapy of Bordetella bronchiseptica - associated distortive rhinitis in pigs?

A. Metronidazole
B. Oxytetracycline
C. Collistin
D. Chloramphenicol

A

B. Oxytetracycline

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16
Q

Local anaesthetics have decreased activity in inflamed or hypoxic tissues

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

Clindamycin can be used for the treatment of wound caused by streptococci and staphylococci, oral cavity infections and sinusitis

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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18
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

coumaphos

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19
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Glu-mediated Clorid-ion channel and GABA-agonist anti parasitic agent given also topically

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

Moxidektin

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20
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only againts fleas

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

Indoxacarb

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21
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor anti parasitic agent

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

Amitraz

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22
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

Deltamethrin

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23
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Glu-mediated clorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally

The alternatives:
1. Moxidektin
2. Lotilaner
3. Deltamethrin
4. Amitraz
5. Coumaphos
6. Indoxacarb

A

Lotilaner

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24
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!

Gamithromycin

The alternatives:
1. Gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis
2. darrhoea in calves
3. Respiratory infections
4. Gram-positive mastitis

A

respiratory infection

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25
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!

Apramycin

The alternatives:
1. Gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis
2. darrhoea in calves
3. Respiratory infections
4. Gram-positive mastitis

A

diarrhoea in calves

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26
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!

Cefoperazon

The alternatives:
1. Gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis
2. darrhoea in calves
3. Respiratory infections
4. Gram-positive mastitis

A

gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis

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27
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!

Colistin

The alternatives:
1. Gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis
2. darrhoea in calves
3. Respiratory infections
4. Gram-positive mastitis

A

diarrhoea in calves

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28
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!

Oxacillin

The alternatives:
1. Gram-positive and gram-negative mastitis
2. darrhoea in calves
3. Respiratory infections
4. Gram-positive mastitis

A

gram-positive mastitis

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29
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Ceftiofur

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

0 days on milk for WP

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30
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Cefalexin

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

primary active ingredient in skin infections

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31
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Cefotaxime

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis

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32
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Cefazolin

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

used preoperatively to prevent wound infections

33
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Ceftazidime

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

34
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property:

Cefovecin

The alternatives:
1. Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
2. 0 days on milk for WP
3. Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
4. Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
5. Primary active ingredient in skin infections
6. Effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action

35
Q

Rifamycin is not effective against Gram-positive bacteria

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Rifamycin is active mostly against Gram+, such as Rhodococcus equi, Neisseria spp. (meningococcus), Haemophylus spp., and mycobacteria, including M. tuberculosis.
Active against some non-enteric Gram-negatives

36
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

Microemulsion

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

can be administered intravenously

37
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

Suspension

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

should not be administered intravenously

38
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

Aqueous solution

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

can be administered intravenously

39
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

oily solution

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

should not be administered intravenously

40
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

Emulsion

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

should not be administered intravenously

41
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description

A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant

The alternatives:
1. Fentanyl
2. Buprenorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Tramadol
5. Morphine

A

Tramadol

42
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description

Long acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonist when used in combination with them

The alternatives:
1. Fentanyl
2. Buprenorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Tramadol
5. Morphine

A

Buprenorphine

43
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description

One of the most potent analgesic full agonist opioids, also used as transdermal patch in veterinary medicine

The alternatives:
1. Fentanyl
2. Buprenorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Tramadol
5. Morphine

A

Fentanyl

44
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description

Agonist- antagonist opioid with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect

The alternatives:
1. Fentanyl
2. Buprenorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Tramadol
5. Morphine

A

Butorphanol

45
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description

A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes from administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration

The alternatives:
1. Fentanyl
2. Buprenorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Tramadol
5. Morphine

A

Morphine

46
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible

Microsuspension

The alternatives:
1. Should not be administered IV
2. Can be administered IV

A

can be administered intravenously

47
Q

The main indication for penicillinase-stable penicillins include..

A. All of these

B. Infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Urinary tract infection, oral infection and bite wound

D. Tuberculosis

A

D. Tuberculosis

48
Q

Pair the active substance to their categories!

  • Guaifensin
  • Codein
  • Butorphanol
  • Tramadol
  • Carbocysteine
  • N-acetylcysteine
  • Bromhexine
  • Dembrexine
  • Hydrocodon
  • Dextrometorphan

The alternatives:
1. Antitussives
2. Expectorants
3. Mucolytics

A
  • Guaifensin : expectorants
  • Codein: antitussives
  • Butorphanol: antitussives
  • Tramadol: antitussives
  • Carbocysteine: Mucolytics
  • N-acetylcysteine: Mucolytics
  • Bromhexine: Expectorants
  • Dembrexine: Expectorants
  • Hydrocodon: Antitussives
  • Dextrometorphan: Antitussives

They are all cough medicines. Antitussitives are used for dry cough, expectorants and mucolytics are used for wet cough.

49
Q

Which is not part of GMP (good manufacturing practice)

A. Quality management
B. Innovation
C. Self-control
D. Quality control

A

B. Innovation

50
Q

Valnemulin is a time-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

51
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhage cystitis can be alleviated by mesna

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

52
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements:

Degraded by the stomach juice, bound to the damaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus

The alternatives:
1. Cimetidine
2. Misoprostol
3. Famotidine
4. Aluminium-hydroxide
5. Omeprazole

A

Aluminium-hydroxide

53
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements:

H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT)

The alternatives:
1. Cimetidine
2. Misoprostol
3. Famotidine
4. Aluminium-hydroxide
5. Omeprazole

A

Famotidine

54
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements:

If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administration must be dyscontinued gradually

The alternatives:
1. Cimetidine
2. Misoprostol
3. Famotidine
4. Aluminium-hydroxide
5. Omeprazole

A

Omeprazole

55
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements:

PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcer induced by NSAID’s

The alternatives:
1. Cimetidine
2. Misoprostol
3. Famotidine
4. Aluminium-hydroxide
5. Omeprazole

A

misoprostol

56
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements:

Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2- antagonist

The alternatives:
1. Cimetidine
2. Misoprostol
3. Famotidine
4. Aluminium-hydroxide
5. Omeprazole

A

Cimetidine

57
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decreased in tear production (KCS) as side effect

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Sulfasalazine

58
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Azithromycin

59
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Antimicrobial agent used in canine giardiosis

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Metronidazole

60
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responsive diarrhea (ARD)

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Tylozin

61
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Fluoroquinolone used orally also in anal sacculitis

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Pradofloxacin

62
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description:

Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possible side effect of aplastic anaemia

The alternatives:
1. Metronidazole
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Azithromycin
5. Tylozin
6. Pradofloxacin

A

Chloramphenicol

63
Q

Gentamicin has anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

64
Q

AMEG Category A agents are…

A. Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. Non-broad spectrum penicillins

C. None of these

D. Narrow spectrum penicillins

A

A. Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

65
Q

Which of the following can sulphonamides be used to treat?

A. All of them
B. Toxoplasma Gondii
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

A. All of them

66
Q

Amfotericin B is used in life-threatening condition due to its severe side effects

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

67
Q

Cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, lomustine can be applied orally

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

68
Q

Which if the following is true for the spectrum of nitroimidazoles?

A. They are also effective against protozoa

B. Neither

C. Are effective against anaerobic bacteria

D. Both

A

D. Both

69
Q

Per os absorption of ahminoglycosides is excellent, but their distribution is poor

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

70
Q

The eye drops are sterile, the original formulations are can be used for 28 days after opening

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

71
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories!

  • atenolole
  • doxasozine
  • romifidine
  • metoprolole
  • prazosine
  • atipamezole
  • xylazine
  • xylometazoline
  • tetrizoline
  • phenylpropanolamine

The alternatives:
1. Alpha receptor agonist
2. Alpha receptor Antagonist
3. Beta receptor agonist
4. Beta receptor antagonist

A
  • atenolole : beta receptor antagonist
  • doxasozine alpha receptor antagonist
  • romifidine: alpha receptor agonists
  • metoprolole: beta receptor antagonist
  • prazosine: alpha receptor antagonist
  • atipamezole: alpha receptor antagonist
  • xylazine : alpha receptor agonist
  • xylometazoline: alpha receptor agonist
  • tetrizoline : alpha receptor agonist
  • phenylpropanolamine: alpha receptor agonist
72
Q

Among the premixes we can distinguish between medicated premix and feed supplements, and their fillers are feed-like, e.g. wheat bran

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

73
Q

Which if the following pathogens is florfenicol effective against?

A. Both
B. Aeromonas salmonicida
C. Vibro anguillarum
D. None

A

A. Both

74
Q

During the preparation of the suppositories, the suppositories must be formed one by one from the heated mass by hand and then packaged and placed in a refrigerator

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

75
Q

Pair the active substance to their categories!

  • Mexiletine
  • Iidocaine
  • Quinidine
  • Diltiazem
  • Amlodipine

The alternatives:
1. Na + channel blocker, membrane stabilizer
2. Ca2+ channel blockers

A

Mexiletine: Na + channel blocker, membrane stabilizer

Iidocaine : Na + channel blockers, membrane stabilizer

Quinidine: Na + channel blockers, membrane stabilizer

Diltiazem: Ca2+ channel blockers

Amlodipine: Ca2+ channel blockers

76
Q

For potential sulphonamides, what is the sulphonamide: diaminopy rimidine ratio for our drugs?

A. 20:1
B. 1:1
C. 100:1
D. 5:1

A

D. 5:1

77
Q

Tilvalosin is used only in the therapy of enteric infection

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

78
Q

Mupirocin can be used to eliminate MRSA strains

A. True
B. False

A

A. True