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1
Q

As the generations of cephalosporins increase, their effectiveness against gram-negative bacteria decreases.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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2
Q

Nitrofurans are bactericidal in their mode of action.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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3
Q

Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically:

A. Cephalexin
B. cefquinome
C. cefoperazone
D. Cefotaxime

A

A. Cephalexin

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4
Q

What are the chemical properties of aminoglycosides that determine their pharmacokinetics?

A.Negatively charged,polar and hydrophilic

B.Negatively charged, apolar and lipophilic compounds

C.Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

D.Negatively charged, apolar and hydrophilic compounds.

A

C.Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

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5
Q

Which of the following substances have positive inotropic effect?

A. both of them
B. none of them
C. pimobendan
D. digoxin

A

A. both of them

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6
Q

Loperamide is given in severe bacterial enteritis

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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7
Q

Due to its low therapeutic index, oclacitinib cannot be used in increased dose.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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8
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a cattle (bw: 400kg), if
the dose is 0.5 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml?

A. 10ml
B. 100ml
C. 40ml
D. 2ml

A

A. 10ml

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9
Q

Lokivetmab and oklacitinib have antiinflammatory and analgesic properties.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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10
Q

While using chloramphenicol wearing gloves is recommended to avoid the possible
development of aplastic anaemia as a side effect of the usage.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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11
Q

During the use of prolonged-acting insulin derivatives, moderate hyperglycaemia may result due to a rebound effect.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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12
Q

GnRH analogues are often used orally
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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13
Q

Salmeterol has long duration of action up to 12 hours

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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14
Q

Lincomycin can be used with high safety in the treatment of respiratory tract
infections in horses.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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15
Q

The canine congestive heart failure stage B1 do not need any treatment.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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16
Q

Salinomycin and diclazuril are coccidiostatic agent that are authorized for rabbits as well.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

Which substance acts via nonspecific physical interation?

A. magnesium sulfate
B. Both of them
C. Mannitol
D. none of them

A

B. Both of them

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18
Q

Which of the following substances can increase mucociliary movement?

A. bromhexin
B. both of them
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. none of them

A

B. both of them

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19
Q

Which of the following processes involves the formation of toxic metabolites?

A. Neither
B. Reactions leading to glutathione deficiency
C. Modification of sulfhydryl group
D. Both

A

D. Both

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20
Q

Povidone iodine can be used for …

A. all of them
B .skin disinfection
C. mammary gland disinfection
D. mucus membrane disinfection

A

A. all of them

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21
Q

Bacitracin is ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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22
Q

Which substance decreases the production of aqueous humor?

A. both of them
B. timolol
C. none of them
D. dorzolamide

A

A. both of them

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23
Q

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillin and cephalosporins can be active against both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae.

A. True
B .False

A

B .False

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24
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillins include…

A. piperacillin
B. amoxicillin
C. benzylpenicillin-procaine
D. ampicillin

A

C. benzylpenicillin-procaine

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25
Q

10-20% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine in an active form.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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26
Q

Opioid’s pharmacological effects include:

A. laxative effect
B. sedation
C. expectorant effect
D. all of them

A

B. sedation

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27
Q

Pharmacokinetics deals with absorption and excretion, while pharmacodynamics deals with metabolism and excretion.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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28
Q

Some NSAIDs decrease aggregation of thrombocytes by decreasing TXA synthesis.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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29
Q

For the treatment of canine gastric ulcers the recommended substance(s) is (are):

A. famotidine
B. omeprazole
C. sucralphate
D. Famotidine+omeprazole

A

B. omeprazole

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30
Q

Decreasing the blood glucose levels is a possible side effects of glucocorticoids.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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31
Q

Opioids have mucolytic effect in the respiratory tract.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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32
Q

Spectinomycin has a bacteriostatic mode of action.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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33
Q

An AVM(authorized for cattle) has the following WPs: cattle meat: 0day, cattle milk: 0
hour. How long should the WP be in the following cases?

A. Goat meat
B. Chicken eggs
C. Swine meat

A

A. Goat meat -> 0 days
B. Chicken eggs -> 10 days
C. Swine meat -> 1 day

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34
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

Propoxur

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35
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action:

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

afloxlaner

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36
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas :

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

selamectin

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37
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Repellent antiparasitic substance with “Knock down” effect:

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

deltamethrin

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38
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase :

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

diazinon

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39
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

It’s antidote for the case of intoxication:

  • Propoxur
  • afloxlaner
  • selamectin
  • deltamethrin
  • diazinon
  • atipamezole: amitraz
A

atipamezole: amitraz

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40
Q

It can cause colic symptoms, tremor,sweating in horses:

A. eCG
B. dinoprost
C. none of these
D. altrenogest

A

B. dinoprost

41
Q

How can gentamicin be used in adult ruminants?

A. both of them
B. orally
C. as injection
D. none of them

A

C. as injection

42
Q

Amantadine and rimantadine inhibit the release of virus.

A. True
B. False

43
Q

Azaperone is a neuroleptic agent that can only be used in dogs

A. True
B. False

44
Q

Which of these substances cause immunosuppression?

A. ipratropium
B. gamithromycin
C. cyclophosphamide
D. nimesulide

A

C. cyclophosphamide

45
Q

Which of the equations are true for most drugs?
A. none of them
B. TD50>LD50
C. ED50
D. TD50

46
Q

Febantel is a prodrug, that is metabolized to albendazole in the body.

A. True
B. False

47
Q

Which agents have such excellent pharmacokinetics that they are the most important
drugs for the treatment of meningitis after crossing the blood-brain barrier?

A. cefalexin and cefapirin

B. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone

C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

D. cefuroxime and cefaclor

A

C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

48
Q

The methylxanthines block the adenosine receptor.

A. True
B. False

49
Q

traconazole can be used in dogs, but it should not be used in cats due to its toxicity.

A. True
B. False

50
Q

. Diazinon can cause irreversible inhibition of AchE.

A. True
B. False

51
Q

In these animals, porto-renal system should be considered in case of injectable drug
administration?

A. fish
B.reptiles
C. mammals
D. bees

A

B.reptiles

52
Q

What is the MIC value of an antibiotic?

A. minimum bacterial concentration

B. mean inhibitory concentration

C. minimum inhibitory concentration

D. Maximum inhibitory concentration

E. Maximum bacterial concentration

F. mean bacterial concentration

A

C. minimum inhibitory concentration

53
Q

Phenoxymethylpenicillin is used parenterally in swine for the treatment of Clostridium perfringens C necrotic enteritis.

A. True
B. False

54
Q

Clotrimazole can be used against yeast and dermatophytes.

A. True
B. False

55
Q

Which of the following drug actions is structure dependent?

A. activation of receptor
B. none of them
C. inhibition of enzymes
D. both of them

A

D. both of them

56
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Anticonvulsive agent given intranasally in status epilepticus

57
Q

In the treatment of dehydration, dose of rehydrating infusion can be calculated by dividing the dehydration percentage with the body weight.

A. true
B. false

58
Q

In the case of bacitracin, which is the metal ion with which its compound leads to a 10-20X increase in potency?

A. Manganese
B. Zinc
C. Iron
D. Copper

59
Q

In the therapeutic index of a drug is small, it is difficult to overdose.

A. True
B. False

60
Q

Which of the following substances can be used for the treatment of proliferative enteropathy caused by lawsonia intracellularis in swine?

A. clindamycin
B. doxycycline
C. tiamulin
D. colistin

A

C. tiamulin

61
Q

this animal is the most sensitive to chloramine:

A. fish
B. chihuahua
C. horse
D. cat

62
Q

Penicillins can be effectively combined with bacteriostatic antibiotics.

A. true
B. false

63
Q

ACE inhibitors act very rapidly and intravenous application is recommended in life-threatening conditions.

A. True
B. False

64
Q

In case of oral drug administration, absorbents and antacids can decrease absorption.

A. True
B. False

65
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Antiepileptic agent inducing CYP enzymes in the liver :

  • imepitoin
  • primidone
  • Phenobarbital
  • KBr
  • levetiracetam
A

Phenobarbital

66
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver :

  • imepitoin
  • primidone
  • Phenobarbital
  • KBr
  • levetiracetam
67
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine :

  • imepitoin
  • primidone
  • Phenobarbital
  • KBr
  • levetiracetam
68
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia,pruritus,
paraparesis:

  • imepitoin
  • primidone
  • Phenobarbital
  • KBr
  • levetiracetam
69
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.

Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term
management of epilepsy:

  • imepitoin
  • primidone
  • Phenobarbital
  • KBr
  • levetiracetam
A

levetiracetam

70
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action.

benzylpenicillin-procaine:

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • 72-96 hour
  • 6-10 days
  • 18-23 days
A

12-24 hours

71
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action.

tulathromycin:

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • 72-96 hour
  • 6-10 days
  • 18-23 days
72
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action.

tildipirosin:

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • 72-96 hour
  • 6-10 days
  • 18-23 days
A

18-23 days

73
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action.

benzylpenicillin-Na/K :

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • 72-96 hour
  • 6-10 days
  • 18-23 days
74
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action.

benzylpenicillin-benzazine:

  • 4-6 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • 72-96 hour
  • 6-10 days
  • 18-23 days
A

72-96 hour

75
Q

The mechanism of action of tetracyclines is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S subunit of the ribosome.

A. True
B. False

76
Q

What is the spectrum of action of sulfonamides?

A. Gram-positive antibacterial action
B. coccidial action
C. All of them
D. Gram-negative antibacterial action

A

C. All of them

77
Q

Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics?

A. True
B. False

78
Q
  1. Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs?

A. Amoxycillin
B. Florfenicol
C. Gentamicin
D. Colistin

A

B. Florfenicol

79
Q

The mutant selection window (MSW) means the concentration range between MIC
and MPC values of antibiotics.

A. True
B. False

80
Q

Ester-type local anaethetics are hydrolysed primarily by plasma esterases.

A. True
B. False

81
Q

In canine congestive heart failure stage D it is effective to dilate the pulmonary arteries

A. telmisartan
B. sildenafil
C. ramipril
D. Pimobendan

A

B. sildenafil

82
Q

How much 20% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution?

A. 50ml
B. 12.5ml
C. 25ml
D. 75ml

83
Q

Diclofenac is anti-inflammatory drug that can be used safely in dogs

A. True
B .False

84
Q

Which of the following substances can have urethra sphincter relaxing effect?

A. both of them
B. Doxazosin
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. non of them

A

A. both of them

85
Q

It may causes follicular cysts or pyometra in small animals.

A. cloprostenol
B. fertirelin
C. eCG
D. megestrol acetate

A

D. megestrol acetate

86
Q

Average daily fluid uptake of dogs is 40-60ml/kg/day.

A. True
B. False

87
Q

How are fluoroquinolones excreted in the first place?

A. Active form via the liver
B. Inactive form via the liver
C. Active form via the liver
D. Inactive form via the kidney

A

A. Active form via the liver

88
Q

This drug can inhibit the CYP450 enzymes:

A. codein
B. gentamicin
C. ketoconazole
D. phenobarbital

A

C. ketoconazole

89
Q

Phenobarbital can be used for the longterm control of epilepsy as well as for the
treatment of status epilepticus.

A. True
B. False

90
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mensa

A. True
B. False

91
Q

n case of external drug administration, systemic effects cannot occur.

A. True
B. False

92
Q

Eye drops usually have shorter duration of action than eye ointments, therefor eye drops should be administered less frequently on a daily basis.

A. True
B. False

93
Q

Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols?

A. Yellow discoloration of bones
B. Anaemia, immunosuppression
C. Photosensitization
D. Explicit kidney damage

A

B. Anaemia, immunosuppression

94
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description

macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites:

  • Fenbendazole
  • Praziquantel
  • selamectin
  • Pirantel embonate
  • Melarsomine
A

selamectin

95
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description

Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms. :

  • Fenbendazole
  • Praziquantel
  • selamectin
  • Pirantel embonate
  • Melarsomine
A

Praziquantel

96
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description

This antiparasitic is effective against taenia and Giardia species :

  • Fenbendazole
  • Praziquantel
  • selamectin
  • Pirantel embonate
  • Melarsomine
A

Fenbendazole

97
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description

Antiparasitic agent effective against intestinal nematodes :

  • Fenbendazole
  • Praziquantel
  • selamectin
  • Pirantel embonate
  • Melarsomine
A

Pirantel embonate

98
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description

A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria. :

  • Fenbendazole
  • Praziquantel
  • selamectin
  • Pirantel embonate
  • Melarsomine
A

Melarsomine

PHARMA EXAM (6 decks)

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