3 Flashcards
Which of the following substances can have antibiotics penetration enhancing effects?
A. bromhexin
B. none of them
C. N- acetylcysteine
D. both of them
D. both of them
Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionization of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons
A. True
B. False
A. True
Penicillins are…
A. Inhibitors of folate synthesis
B. DNA damaging agents
C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
D. inhibitors of protein synthesis
C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy against Gram positive bacteria
A. True
B. False
A. True
Long-acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood-brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infection
A. True
B. False
A. True
In horse, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of …
A. Abcesses, wound infections
B. both of them
C. strangles
D. none of them
B. both of them
Acrolein-caused haemorrhage cystitis can be alleviated by mesna
A. True
B. False
A. True
In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower affinity of the ligand to the receptor
A. True
B. False
A. True
Potentiated sulphonamides are effective against mycoplasma and mycobacterium species
A. True
B. False
B. False
HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them
A. True
B. False
B. False
Which of the following adverse reaction is specific to fluorquinolones?
A. vitamin K deficiency
B. genotoxic and fetal effects
C. allergy
D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats
D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
spectinomycin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
with pronounced anti-Mycoplasma activity
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
Tobramycin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
Also used as eye drops, also has anti-Pseudomonas activity
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
Streptomycin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
Paromomycin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
Also has entiparasitic activity
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
Amikacin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti.pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:
Neomycin
the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside
most toxic aminoglycoside
Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats
A. True
B. False
A. True
Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk-free from a human health point of view
A. True
B. False
B. False
Florfenicol belongs to AMEG C = Caution
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:
Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma
The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them
latanoprost
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:
Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for funds examination
The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them
Tropicamide
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:
Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma
The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them
none of them
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:
it can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant
The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them
Cyclosporine
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma
The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them
Dorzolamide
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion exclusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Permethrin
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
Inhibits metamorphosis
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Piriproxifen
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Fluralaner
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha 2-agonist side effect are seen
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Amitraz
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
Pirethroid effective against varroosis in honey bees
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Fluvalinate
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:
Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis
The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin
Moxidectin
Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling?
A. furosemide
B. none of them
C. both of them
D. ACE inhibitors
C. both of them
Second generation fluoroquinolone are not effective against intracellular pathogens
A. True
B. False
B. False
Medetomidine is an alpha 2-antagonist
A. True
B. False
B. False
Medetomidine is a Alpha-2-agonist
Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect
A. True
B. False
B. False
The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin - procaine is 12-24 hours
A. True
B. False
A. True
Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake
A. True
B. False
B. False
Behaviour modifier agent for the management aural lick dermatitis in the dog
A. trilostane
B. clomipramine
C. diazepam
D. teobromine
B. clomipramine
Because of its high protein binding carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle:
A. True
B. False
B. False
cannot enter the milk because they are bound to albumin and only the free dorm of the
drug can penetrate the blood-milk barrier
Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion:
A. True
B. False
B. False
Does not change mucous secretion, enhances ciliary movement
Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats
A. True
B. False
True
How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 10% solution
A. 75 ml
B. 25 ml
C. 12,5 ml
D. 50 ml
B. 25 ml
Propofol has amerced analgesic effect
A. True
B. False
B. False
Propofol is a muscle relaxant, used in combination for analgesia
Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhoea caused by salmonella
A. True
B. False
B. False
If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48- hour administration (alternative day therapy) is recommended
A. True
B. False
A. True
Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats
A. True
B. False
B. False
Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is not suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs
A. True
B. False
B. False
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV chemotherapy induced vomiting
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
ondansetrone
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
maropitant
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
Antiemetic agent potentially increase the clinical signs of preudopregnancy
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
acepromazin
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
antiemetic agent used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
dimenhydrinate
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
metoclopramide
Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:
used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent
The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine
apomorphine
Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:
Used for induction of abortion in dogs
The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone
aglepristione
Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:
oral drug for oestrus synchronisation in horse
The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone
altrenogest
Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:
used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction
The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone
estriol
Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:
vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers
The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone
progesterone
Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:
active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats
The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone
proligestone
dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats.
A. True
B. False
A. True
if we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria
A. True
B. False
B. False
killing speed is not affected. Much more important to be given for a correct time
EPO and darbepoetin- alpha should be applied parenterally only
A. True
B. False
A. True
Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets (e.g enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well
A. True
B. False
A. True
How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (bw: 400 kg), if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml ?
A. 12ml
B. 2ml
C. 10ml
D. 40 ml
A. 12ml
The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia
A. True
B. False
B. False
Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!
plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene)
The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin
Nystatin
Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!
Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor
The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin
Terbinafin
Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!
fungal mitosis inhibitor
The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin
Griseofulvin
In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs LDS50 value is divided with their ED50 value
A. True
B. False
A. True
The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status epilepticus lasted for more than one minute
A. True
B. False
B. False
Start long-term treatment if:
Last longer than 5 minutes
Multiple seizures within 3-6 months
Packaged of authorised veterinary medicines should always include information about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product
A. True
B. False
A. True
Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr-otitis externa:
A. polymyxin-B
B. spectinomycin
C. pradofloxacin
D. metronidazole
A. polymyxin-B
approx 55% of hypotonic crystalloid infusion is distributed in the IS fluid compartment
A. True
B. False
B. False
Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect?
A. propanolol
B. stall
C. both of them
D. none of them
C. both of them
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores
The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
Corrosivee agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals
The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol
Sodium hypochlorite
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities
The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables
The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol
Chlorinated lime
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
It is a combination of a halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent
The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol
Benzalkonium chloride
Put the local anaesthetic according to their toxicity in increasing order
Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Procaine, Mepivacaine
- Procaine
- Lidocaine
- Mepivacaine
- Bupivacaine
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites
The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole
Ivermectin
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke
The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole
Triclabendazole
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms
The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole
Closantel
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda, and Trematoda.
The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole
Albendazole
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes
The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole
Levamisole
In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substances occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor
A. True
B. False
B. False
On-target = The drug binds to the appropriate receptor BUT: Intended receptor, Inappropriate conditions or Intended receptor, Suboptimal kinetics
Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon:
A. enophtalmus
B. vomiting
C. depression
D. tachycardia
C. depression
Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect?
A. ATII receptor antagonists
B. none of them
C. both of them
D. CA2+ channel blockers
B. none of them
What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?
A. protein synthesis inhibition
B. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. detergent action
D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton
D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton
In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia
A. True
B. False
A. True
Which agents are suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A. cefuroxime and cefaclor
B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone
C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
D. cefalexin and cefapirin
B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone
which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine?
A. both
B. hydroxyzine
C. dimenhydrinate
D. none
A. both
Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against Gram - negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against Gram - positive bacteria
A. True
B. False
B. False
They are both bacteriostatic antibiotics
Lincosamides are effective against gram+ and gram- anaerobic
Macrolides are effective against gram+
What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines?
A. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue
B. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue
C. Of-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue
D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue
D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue
Amplodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents
A. True
B. False
A. True
If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria
A. True
B. False
A. True
Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic
A. True
B. False
A. True
Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilepticus
A. True
B. False
B. False
Imepitoin is used for epilepsy, BUT it is a very expensive drug so it is not used frequently
