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PHARMA EXAM > 3 > Flashcards

3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following substances can have antibiotics penetration enhancing effects?

A. bromhexin
B. none of them
C. N- acetylcysteine
D. both of them

A

D. both of them

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2
Q

Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionization of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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3
Q

Penicillins are…

A. Inhibitors of folate synthesis
B. DNA damaging agents
C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
D. inhibitors of protein synthesis

A

C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

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4
Q

The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy against Gram positive bacteria

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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5
Q

Long-acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood-brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infection

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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6
Q

In horse, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of …

A. Abcesses, wound infections
B. both of them
C. strangles
D. none of them

A

B. both of them

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7
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhage cystitis can be alleviated by mesna

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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8
Q

In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower affinity of the ligand to the receptor

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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9
Q

Potentiated sulphonamides are effective against mycoplasma and mycobacterium species

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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10
Q

HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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11
Q

Which of the following adverse reaction is specific to fluorquinolones?

A. vitamin K deficiency
B. genotoxic and fetal effects
C. allergy
D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats

A

D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats

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12
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

spectinomycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

with pronounced anti-Mycoplasma activity

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13
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Tobramycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

Also used as eye drops, also has anti-Pseudomonas activity

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14
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Streptomycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins

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15
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Paromomycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

Also has entiparasitic activity

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16
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Amikacin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti.pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

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17
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Neomycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

most toxic aminoglycoside

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18
Q

Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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19
Q

Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk-free from a human health point of view

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Florfenicol belongs to AMEG C = Caution

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20
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

A

latanoprost

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21
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for funds examination

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

A

Tropicamide

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22
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

A

none of them

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23
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

it can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

A

Cyclosporine

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24
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

A

Dorzolamide

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25
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion exclusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Permethrin

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26
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Inhibits metamorphosis

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Piriproxifen

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27
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Fluralaner

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28
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha 2-agonist side effect are seen

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Amitraz

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29
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Pirethroid effective against varroosis in honey bees

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Fluvalinate

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30
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description:

Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis

The alternatives:
1. Fluralaner
2. Piriproxifen
3. Fluvalinate
4. Amitraz
5. Moxidectin
6. Permethrin

A

Moxidectin

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31
Q

Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling?

A. furosemide
B. none of them
C. both of them
D. ACE inhibitors

A

C. both of them

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32
Q

Second generation fluoroquinolone are not effective against intracellular pathogens

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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33
Q

Medetomidine is an alpha 2-antagonist

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Medetomidine is a Alpha-2-agonist

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34
Q

Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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35
Q

The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin - procaine is 12-24 hours

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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36
Q

Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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37
Q

Behaviour modifier agent for the management aural lick dermatitis in the dog

A. trilostane
B. clomipramine
C. diazepam
D. teobromine

A

B. clomipramine

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38
Q

Because of its high protein binding carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle:

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

cannot enter the milk because they are bound to albumin and only the free dorm of the
drug can penetrate the blood-milk barrier

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39
Q

Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion:

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Does not change mucous secretion, enhances ciliary movement

40
Q

Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats

A. True
B. False

A

True

41
Q

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 10% solution

A. 75 ml
B. 25 ml
C. 12,5 ml
D. 50 ml

A

B. 25 ml

42
Q

Propofol has amerced analgesic effect

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Propofol is a muscle relaxant, used in combination for analgesia

43
Q

Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhoea caused by salmonella

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

44
Q

If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48- hour administration (alternative day therapy) is recommended

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

45
Q

Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

46
Q

Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is not suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

47
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV chemotherapy induced vomiting

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

ondansetrone

48
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

maropitant

49
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

Antiemetic agent potentially increase the clinical signs of preudopregnancy

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

acepromazin

50
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

antiemetic agent used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

dimenhydrinate

51
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

metoclopramide

52
Q

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements:

used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent

The alternatives:
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Apomorphine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Ondansetrone
5. Maropitant
6. Acepromazine

A

apomorphine

53
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:

Used for induction of abortion in dogs

The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone

A

aglepristione

54
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:

oral drug for oestrus synchronisation in horse

The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone

A

altrenogest

55
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:

used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction

The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone

A

estriol

56
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:

vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers

The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone

A

progesterone

57
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement:

active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats

The alternatives:
1. Altrenogtest
2. Progesterone
3. Aglepristone
4. Estriol
5. Proligestone

A

proligestone

58
Q

dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

59
Q

if we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

killing speed is not affected. Much more important to be given for a correct time

60
Q

EPO and darbepoetin- alpha should be applied parenterally only

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

61
Q

Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets (e.g enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

62
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (bw: 400 kg), if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml ?

A. 12ml
B. 2ml
C. 10ml
D. 40 ml

A

A. 12ml

63
Q

The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

64
Q

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!

plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene)

The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin

A

Nystatin

65
Q

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor

The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin

A

Terbinafin

66
Q

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!

fungal mitosis inhibitor

The alternatives:
1. Griseofulvin
2. Terbinafin
3. Nystatin

A

Griseofulvin

67
Q

In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs LDS50 value is divided with their ED50 value

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

68
Q

The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status epilepticus lasted for more than one minute

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Start long-term treatment if:
Last longer than 5 minutes
Multiple seizures within 3-6 months

69
Q

Packaged of authorised veterinary medicines should always include information about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

70
Q

Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr-otitis externa:

A. polymyxin-B
B. spectinomycin
C. pradofloxacin
D. metronidazole

A

A. polymyxin-B

71
Q

approx 55% of hypotonic crystalloid infusion is distributed in the IS fluid compartment

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

72
Q

Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect?

A. propanolol
B. stall
C. both of them
D. none of them

A

C. both of them

73
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores

The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol

A

Ethyl alcohol

74
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

Corrosivee agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals

The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol

A

Sodium hypochlorite

75
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities

The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol

A

Glutaraldehyde

76
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables

The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol

A

Chlorinated lime

77
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:

It is a combination of a halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent

The alternatives:
1. Chlorinated lime
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Benzalkonimu cholride
4. Sodium hypochlorite
5. Ethyl alcohol

A

Benzalkonium chloride

78
Q

Put the local anaesthetic according to their toxicity in increasing order

Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Procaine, Mepivacaine

A
  1. Procaine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Mepivacaine
  4. Bupivacaine
79
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:

Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites

The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole

A

Ivermectin

80
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:

Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke

The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole

A

Triclabendazole

81
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:

Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms

The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole

A

Closantel

82
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:

It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda, and Trematoda.

The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole

A

Albendazole

83
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description:

Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes

The alternatives:
1. Triclabendazole
2. Ivermectin
3. Closantel
4. Levamisole
5. Albendazole

A

Levamisole

84
Q

In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substances occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

On-target = The drug binds to the appropriate receptor BUT: Intended receptor, Inappropriate conditions or Intended receptor, Suboptimal kinetics

85
Q

Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon:

A. enophtalmus
B. vomiting
C. depression
D. tachycardia

A

C. depression

86
Q

Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect?

A. ATII receptor antagonists
B. none of them
C. both of them
D. CA2+ channel blockers

A

B. none of them

87
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?

A. protein synthesis inhibition
B. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. detergent action
D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton

A

D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton

88
Q

In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

89
Q

Which agents are suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A. cefuroxime and cefaclor
B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone
C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
D. cefalexin and cefapirin

A

B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone

90
Q

which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine?

A. both
B. hydroxyzine
C. dimenhydrinate
D. none

A

A. both

91
Q

Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against Gram - negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against Gram - positive bacteria

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

They are both bacteriostatic antibiotics

Lincosamides are effective against gram+ and gram- anaerobic

Macrolides are effective against gram+

92
Q

What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines?

A. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue

B. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue

C. Of-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue

D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

A

D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

93
Q

Amplodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

94
Q

If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

95
Q

Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

96
Q

Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilepticus

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Imepitoin is used for epilepsy, BUT it is a very expensive drug so it is not used frequently

PHARMA EXAM (6 decks)

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