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PMP > 4th Principles of Medical Practice Exam (Batch 2025) > Flashcards

4th Principles of Medical Practice Exam (Batch 2025) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In Pediatrics Bioethics, autonomy driven framework of adult medical ethics is replaced by:
    a. Beneficient paternalism
    b. Informed Consent
    c. Assent
    d. Dissent
A

a. Beneficient paternalism

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2
Q
  1. This refers to a child’s affirmative agreement to a procedure or treatment
    a. Dissent
    b. Assent
    c. Informed Consent
    d. Disagreement
A

b. Assent

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3
Q
  1. The following are part of Pediatrics Bioethics, except?
    a. Care of disable newborns
    b. Assent and Parental consent
    c. Geriatric care
    d. Research
A

c. Geriatric care

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4
Q
  1. Pediatrics Bioethics is unique because of the fiduciary obligation for the best interest of the child depends on:
    a. Relatives
    b. Pediatricians
    c. Parents
    d. Grandparents
A

b. Pediatricians

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5
Q
  1. An assent is best obtained from?
    a. 10 month old infant
    b. 6 year old boy
    c. 4 year old girl
    d. 16 year old girl
A

d. 16 year old girl

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6
Q
  1. Capacity for informed decision making in healthcare involves?
    a. Ability to reason
    b. Ability to read
    c. Ability to write
    d. Ability to argue
A

a. Ability to reason

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7
Q
  1. The following are aspects of family centered approach, except?
    a. Dependence and vulnerability of the child
    b. Child’s developing capacity for decision making
    c. Complex nature of parent-child relationships
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

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8
Q
  1. What should physicians do when they override
    the dissent of a child?
    a. Explain the procedure to the patient child
    b. Apologize to the patient child
    c. Reason out to the patient child
    d. Ignore the patient child
A

b. Apologize to the patient child

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9
Q
  1. The doctrine of informed consent has limited direct application to children and adolescents.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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10
Q
  1. The pediatric ethics require pediatricians to override a child’s dissent when a proposed intervention is essential to his welfare.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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11
Q
  1. Children’s participation in decision making in healthcare is complex because parents are careless towards their interests.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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12
Q
  1. Pediatrics bioethics is autonomy driven
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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13
Q
  1. A seventeen year old female can already give an informed consent
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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14
Q
  1. Parental authority in children is absolute.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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15
Q
  1. Research in involving aborted fetuses in the Philippines is acceptable
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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16
Q
  1. It is not the duty of the pediatrician to report abuse or neglect to authorities
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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17
Q
  1. Kathy, a 17 year old girl had many sexual partners and was infected recently with a sexually transmitted disease. She begged of you not to tell her parents about her illness.
    Choose the best decision for this scenario.
    a. You will not tell her parents
    b. You will tell her parents in secret
    c. You will tell her parents only after informing her
    d. You will tell her parents immediately
A

c. You will tell her parents only after
informing her

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18
Q
  1. Josh, a 14 year old patient diagnosed to have osteosarcoma on his right leg and needed an amputation, however he expressed that he would rather die than go through the procedure.
    a. Proceed with the procedure immediately even without his assent
    b. Let the parents decide themselves
    c. Request a family conference to
    discuss his diagnosis and procedure
    d. Ask them to transfer to another institution
A

c. Request a family conference to
discuss his diagnosis and procedure

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following makes a pediatric patient unqualified for autonomy?
    a. Cannot communicate relevant questions
    b. Not able to read or write
    c. Can choose the flavor of his medications
    d. Can refuse therapy as suggested by wailing
A

a. Cannot communicate relevant questions

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20
Q
  1. When should the pediatrician defer the decision to the parents?
    a. When the benefit of the procedure clearly outweighs the risk
    b. When the risk of harm after the procedure is pronounced
    c. When the balance of the risk and benefit is not clear
    d. None of the above
A

c. When the balance of the risk and benefit is not clear

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21
Q
  1. Doctor acts as a guide, not as the source of knowledge
    a. Catharsis
    b. Insight
    c. Action
A

c. Action

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22
Q
  1. Challenge or confront
    a. Catharsis
    b. Insight
    c. Action
A

b. Insight

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23
Q
  1. Clarification of Points
    a. Catharsis
    b. Insight
    c. Action
A

a. Catharsis

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24
Q
  1. Suspension of judgment
    a. Catharsis
    b. Insight
    c. Action
A

a. Catharsis

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25
Q
  1. Ventilation of feelings by the patient
    a. Catharsis
    b. Insight
    c. Action
A

a. Catharsis

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26
Q
  1. “You seem to be in a lot pain.”
    a. Reflecting Content
    b. Reflecting Experience
    c. Focusing
    d. Probing
A

b. Reflecting Experience

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27
Q
  1. Let’s go back to what you mentioned earlier about your Father
    a. Reflecting Content
    b. Reflecting Experience
    c. Focusing
    d. Probing
A

c. Focusing

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28
Q
  1. Paraphrasing what the patient understands about the disease
    a. Reflecting Content
    b. Reflecting Experience
    c. Focusing
    d. Probing
A

a. Reflecting Content

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29
Q
  1. “How does that make you feel?”
    a. Reflecting Content
    b. Reflecting Experience
    c. Focusing
    d. Probing
A

d. Probing

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30
Q
  1. The goal of palliative care is the achievement of a longer life for patients
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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31
Q
  1. Many aspects of palliative care are also applicable earlier in the course of the illness, in conjunction with anticancer treatment
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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32
Q
  1. Palliative Care neither hastens nor postpones
    death
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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33
Q
  1. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy and surgery have
    a place in palliative care
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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34
Q
  1. Hospice Care cannot happen in the hospital
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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35
Q
  1. In Palliative Care, investigative procedures are kept to a minimum
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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36
Q
  1. For mild to moderate pain, opioids are the drug of choice
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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37
Q
  1. Parenteral feeding is preferred in palliative care when anorexia is present
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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38
Q
  1. Antibiotics are contraindicated in patients who can no longer be cured
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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39
Q
  1. Third’s solution is used for the treatment of dyspnea
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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40
Q
  1. All infants are incompetent, but not all 90 year olds.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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41
Q
  1. Justice is a least discussed principle but is relevant in geriatrics.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

42
Q
  1. Pain relief is one of the focus in elderly.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

43
Q
  1. Chronological age alone should not be a consideration in considering a certain treatment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

44
Q
  1. Autonomy, Beneficence and Non-maleficence seldom applicable to the elderly
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

45
Q
  1. A central issue in dealing with geriatric patients is creeping paternalism.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

46
Q
  1. One element of a valid consent to medical treatment is that it be made by legally competent individual.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

47
Q
  1. Competence is both task-specific and time-specific.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

48
Q
  1. Competence is determined by a person’s ability to understand, retain and assess information in order to make a choice and then communicate that choice.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

49
Q
  1. The principle of autonomy involves respecting the patient’s decisions.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

50
Q
  1. Paternalism generally shows up in relaxed standards about confidentiality.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

51
Q
  1. Generally, an informed patient is a good judge of what broad sort of treatment is in her best treatment I on his/her best interest.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

52
Q
  1. If a patient is incapable, the physician must obtain consent from a substitute maker.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

53
Q
  1. Advanced health care directive may contain instructions about health care treatment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

54
Q
  1. Advanced health care directive may contain instructions about appointment of substitute decision maker.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

55
Q
  1. As long as patient is competent, he can revoke or revise advance health care directive.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

56
Q
  1. Advance health care directive must be included in patient’s medical record.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

57
Q
  1. Elderly patients, regardless of their attitude, deserve to be treated with kindness and justice.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

58
Q
  1. Never assume that geriatric patients are not fully capable of making their own decisions
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

59
Q
  1. The assumption that geriatric patients are not fully capable in making decisions is often influences by living situation of patients, ie., children acting as parents.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

60
Q
  1. Care for the terminally ill patients consisting of comfort measures and symptom control is called:
    a. Euthanasia
    b. Legal Injection
    c. Palliative Care
    d. Curative Care
A

c. Palliative Care

61
Q

61 . Refer to individual freedom or one’s right to make decisions without being coerced.
a. Beneficence
b. Autonomy
c. Freedom
d. Self Incrimination

A

b. Autonomy

62
Q
  1. The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolerable and incurable suffering is called:
    a. Euthanasia
    b. Lethal Injection
    c. Palliative Care
    d. Curative Care
A

a. Euthanasia

63
Q
  1. Voluntary
    a. patient agrees to act
    b. the act is performed against patient wish
    c. taking action to kill someone
    d. allowing the patient to die by
    withholding life sustaining measures
A

a. patient agrees to act

64
Q
  1. Involuntary
    a. patient agrees to act
    b. the act is performed against patient wish
    c. taking action to kill someone
    d. allowing the patient to die by
    withholding life sustaining measures
A

b. the act is performed against patient wish

65
Q
  1. Active
    a. patient agrees to act
    b. the act is performed against patient wish
    c. taking action to kill someone
    d. allowing the patient to die by withholding life sustaining measures
A

c. taking action to kill someone

66
Q
  1. Passive
    a. patient agrees to act
    b. the act is performed against patient wish
    c. taking action to kill someone
    d. allowing the patient to die by withholding life sustaining measures
A

d. allowing the patient to die by withholding life sustaining measures

67
Q
  1. Euthanasia is directly or indirectly bringing about the death of another person for that person’s sake.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

68
Q
  1. Its moral status depends in large measure on
    the consent of the patient.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

69
Q
  1. The traditional notion of death as the cessation of breathing and heartbeat has been revised in light of new developments in medical technology.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

70
Q
  1. According to the whole-brain view of death, the individual is dead when all brain functions permanently stop. The higher-brain view of death says that an individual is dead when higher brain functions permanently stop.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

71
Q
  1. An act-utilitarian might see euthanasia as morally permissible because it results in the greatest happiness for all concerned.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

72
Q
  1. Kantian theorist could consistently reject euthanasia because it entails treating persons as disposable things or he could consistently maintain that individuals in comas.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

73
Q
  1. No child below nine years old shall be committed to a youth care facility or Bahay Pag-asa.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

74
Q
  1. Children nine to 15 years of age who commit serious crimes like parricide, infanticide, murder, kidnapping, rape, destructive arson and offenses under the Comprehensive Dangerous Act punishable by 6 years imprisonment, among others, shall be mandatorily placed in the IJISC.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

75
Q
  1. A child above nine years old at the time of the commission of the offense shall be exempt from criminal liability.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

76
Q
  1. A child nine years and above but below 18 years old shall also be exempt from criminal liability and be subjected to an intervention program unless the child has acted with discernment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

77
Q
  1. The Police shall be primarily liable for civil damages arising out of the actions of children in conflict with the law.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

78
Q
  1. For crimes punishable by life imprisonment, the penalty to be imposed shall be imprisonment of up to 12 years.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

79
Q
  1. The House Committee on Justice approved a bill lowering the age of criminal liability from 15 to nine years old, which amends Republic Act 9344 or the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

80
Q
  1. A Bahay Pag-asa shall be established in all provinces and far-flung municipalities in the country.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

81
Q
  1. Part of the features of a Bahay Pag-asa is an Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (IJISC), which will cater to children who committed minor crimes.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

82
Q
  1. Lowering the age of criminal liability would be disadvantageous to the poor.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

83
Q
  1. A terminally ill patient diagnosed with stage 4 cervical cancer, and end stage renal failure due to cancer complications, has refused chemotherapy, after being thoroughly informed about the pros and cons of treatment.
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy

84
Q
  1. In cases of incompetent patients who cannot provide consent, who among the following shall be the appointed proxy decision-maker?
    a. Spouse
    b. Parents
    c. Legal guardian
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

85
Q
  1. The information that should be included in a complete informed consent form, recommending a diagnostic/therapeutic procedure for a patient are the following:
    a. Complete description of the
    procedure
    b. Reason for the proposed procedure
    c. Benefit/s and risks of the procedure
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

86
Q
  1. Elements of a “valid” informed consent include the following:
    a. Competence of patient
    b. Adequate information
    c. Comprehension and understanding
    of information presented
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

87
Q
  1. An obstetrician-oncologist performs a radical hysterectomy on a pregnant patient G4P3 (3003), 16 weeks AOG, diagnosed with stage 2a cervical cancer, after fully explaining to the patient that a radical hysterectomy is the best mode of management for early stage cervical cancer.
    a. Principle of human dignity
    b. Principle of confidentiality
    c. Principle of totality
    d. Principle of Double effect
A

d. Principle of Double effect

88
Q
  1. An OB gynecologist decides to do emergency hysterectomy for an atonic uterus that caused massive postpartum bleeding, despite exhausting all medical management.
    a. Principle of human dignity
    b. Principle of confidentiality
    c. Principle of totality
    d. Principle of Double effect
A

c. Principle of totality

89
Q
  1. An OB-oncologist administers chemotherapy to a patient diagnosed with stage 3 breast cancer, on her 6th month AOG.
    a. Principle of human dignity
    b. Principle of confidentiality
    c. Principle of totality
    d. Principle of Double effect
A

d. Principle of Double effect

90
Q
  1. Pregnant women or women of reproductive age should be competent to make decisions about risks for potential teratogenicity, whether to participate in a clinical drug trial or not, after a thorough disclosure and explanation by the physician or research investigator.
    a. Principle of beneficence
    b. Principle of double effect
    c. Principle of free and informed consent
    d. Principle of justice
A

c. Principle of free and informed consent

91
Q
  1. OB-gynecologists should offer or arrange for further opinion and/or ongoing care with another suitable physician if therapy required is beyond the individual OB GYN’s expertise or experience.
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

a. Principle of Non-Maleficence

92
Q
  1. In emergency situations where consent of the woman could not be obtained, and in the absence of the next of kin, the attending OB-GYN acting in the best interest of the patient has the right to give consent.
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

b. Principle of Beneficence

93
Q
  1. Women have the right to make choices about whether or not to reproduce. The husband’s consent is not necessary in the decision-making, but for family harmony, the husband’s opinion is taken into consideration
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy

94
Q
  1. An OB-gynecologist must give priority to their patient’s lives, health and well-being, especially in emergency situations where no other doctor or health care provider is present. She must perform a life-saving emergency procedure, regardless of her religious, cultural, political,
    and social beliefs. Once the patient is medically stable, then she can refer/transfer to another physician for continuing care.
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

b. Principle of Beneficence

95
Q
  1. An OB-gynecologist who suspects that she may have a serious infection that might be transferred to patients should voluntarily be tested and should avoid clinical situations that may lead to transfer of infection.
    a. Principle of Non-Maleficence
    b. Principle of Beneficence
    c. Principle of Respect for Autonomy
    d. Principle of Justice
A

a. Principle of Non-Maleficence

96
Q
  1. This expanded the ten (10) Nuremberg Principles.
    a. Research Ethics Guidelines
    b. Declaration of Helsinki
    c. Belmont Report
    d. National Ethical Guidelines
A

b. Declaration of Helsinki

97
Q
  1. This includes guidance for doctors doing research on their patients. These guidelines are not present in the Nuremberg Code.
    a. Research Ethics Guidelines
    b. Declaration of Helsinki
    c. Belmont Report
    d. National Ethical Guidelines
A

b. Declaration of Helsinki

98
Q
  1. Protecting the clinical data of a research falls under which basic ethical principle?
    a. Respect for Persons
    b. Beneficence
    c. Justice
    d. Non-Maleficence
A

a. Respect for Persons

99
Q
  1. The use of placebo in a research is allowed in which situation/s?
    a. When it can be compared to the gold standard
    b. When there is no known treatment available
    c. When there is an existing effective treatment for study participants
    d. All of the above
A

b. When there is no known treatment available

100
Q
  1. Louie is about to fail in his subject and was informed that if he joins a research, he will pass. Louie joined the research.
    a. Violation of the principle of
    autonomy
    b. Not a violation of the principle of
    autonomy
    c. Not related to autonomy at all
    d. A violation but not related
    autonomy
A

a. Violation of the principle of
autonomy

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