48. Knee and lower leg injuries Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of joint is the knee?

A

modified hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is the head of the fibula part of the knee joint?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two aspects make up the knee joint?

A

tibiofemoral
patellofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the trochlea of the femur?

A

anatomic structure resembling a pully, which is made by the femoral condyles on either side

allows patella to slide up and down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 4 ligaments attach the tibia to the femur?

A

acl
pcl
mcl
lcl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does the ACL arise and attach?

A

arise: medial surface of lateral femoral condyle nad inserts on anterior surface or tibial plateau within the tibial intercondylar note
(APEX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the PCL arise and attach?

A

meedial femoral condyle to insert on the posterior surface of the tibial plateau in the intercodylar notch
(PAIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the role of the ACL?

A

prevent excess anterior displacement of the TIBIA on the femur
control rotation and hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC injured ligament in the knee?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the role of the PCL?

A

prevent excess posterior displacement of TIBIA on femur
esp in flexion
++ stronger than ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name 4 medial stabilizers of the knee

A

joint capsule
mcl
semimembranosus
pes anserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of the medial stabilizers of the knee?

A

resist valgus laxity and medial rotatry instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does the MCL arise from and insert?

A

medial fem condyle
onto medial tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lateral knee stability - name 2 main structures and their role

A

LCL
lateral joint capsule
resists varus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where does the LCL arise/insert?

A

lat fem condyle
onto fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what structures further stabilize the lateral aspect of the knee (other than LCL, lateral joint capsule)

A

ITB
biceps tendon
portion of posterolateral corner (particularly popliteal tnedon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 knee compartments

A

patellofemoral
medial tibiofemoral
lateral tibiofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What key structure is in the patellofemoral compartment of the knee?

A

quads tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What key stuctures are found within the medial tibiofemoral compartment?

A

medial femoral condyle
medial tibial condyle/plateau
medial meniscus
MCL
adductor tubercle
pes anserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 3 structures make up the pes anserine?

A

gracilis
sartorius
semitendinosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What structures are found inside the lateral tibiofemoral compartment of the knee?

A

lat fem condyle and epicondyle
lat tibial plateau/condyle
LCL
lateral meniscus
popliteus tendon

NOT FIBULAR HEAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the fabella, found in some patients?

A

sesamoid bone in lateral head of gastrcnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the borders of the popliteal fossa?

A

lateral: biceps fem tendon
medial: semit and semimembranosus m
inferior: two heads of gastroc m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 4 key structures are found within the popliteal space?

A

a
v
peroneal and tibial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What artery are you worried about in knee dislocations?

A

popliteal a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Popliteal a is a continuation of what a beyond the adductors?

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What three arteries are part of the trifurcation of the popliteal a?

A

anterior and posterior tibial a –> peroneal a then branches from posterior tibial a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the a that come from the popliteal a to the knee joint?

A

geniculate a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What two nerves are responsible for innervation of the knee?

A

tibial
common peroneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 7 parts of the extensor mechanism of the knee

A

quads m
quad tendon
medial and latearl retinacula
patella
patellar tendon
tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What holds the patella in place?

A

quads tendon
patellar tendon
medial and lateral retinacula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does the patellar increase effective lever of the quads in the extensor mechanism?

A

anteriorly displaces the quad tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the role of the menisci?

A

sit on top of tibia to functin as shock absorbers, distribute stress across joint surface
deepen the tibial plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which menisci is more at risk of injury and why?

A

lateral - more mobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Menisci are mostly avascular, except which part?

A

middle 1/3 ie best chance of healing after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ITBand connection? role?

A

iliac crest to lateral tibial tubercle
stabilizes knee joint in extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is the popliteus found?

A

lat fem condyle to posteromedial tibia, capsule and lat meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the popliteus do?

A
  • prevents ER of tibia
  • withdraws lateral meniscus during flexion to prevent femur/tibia impingment
  • with PCL and quads, stabilizes knee (prevents forward displacement of FEMUR on tibia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is the prepatellar bursae?

A

between patella and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where is the superficial intrapatellar bursa?

A

between tibial tubercle and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Deep intrapatellar bursa. - where?

A

posterior margin of distal part of patellar tendon and anterior aspect of tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is the suprapatellar bursa? True bursa?

A

not true
actually ext of tibiofemoral joint capssule so it grows with knee effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Does the prepatellar bursa communicate with the tibiofemoral joint?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is the pes anserine bursa found?

A

between pes anserine and mcl/medial tibial condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Per Rosen’s box 48.1, what are the 5 aspects to examination of the knee?

A
  1. Assess neurovascular integrity of the foot.
  2. Determine whether a knee effusion is present, and assess for gross defor-
    mity or open wounds.
  3. Identify signs of infection—redness, warmth, and effusion out of propor-
    tion to mechanism of injury.
  4. Localize tenderness.
  5. Assess for range of motion, stability, and the integrity of the extensor
    mechanism.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List 9 sites of palpation that may be tender in the knee

A

1, Quadriceps tendon injury;
2, prepatellar bursitis, patella pain; 3, retinacular pain after patella subluxation;
4, patella tendon injury;
5, fat pad tenderness;
6, tibial tubercle pain as in Osgood-Schlatter, but also consider tibial plateau frac- ture in the right setting;
7, meniscus pain or arthritis;
8, collateral ligament pain;
9, pes anserine tendinitis-bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DDX knee dislocation

A

Patellar dislocation, distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

DDx distal femur fracture

A

Tibial plateau fracture, knee dislocation, quadriceps tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DDX tibial plateau fracture

A

Distal femur fracture, knee dislocation, patellar fracture, patellar dislocation, tibial spine fracture, patellar tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DDX tibial spine fracture

A

Tibial plateau fracture, patellar tendon rupture, anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DDX osteochondritis dissecans

A

Distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture, meniscal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ddx OA knee

A

Distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture, meniscal injury, chronic ACL deficiency, osteochondritis dissecans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DDX quads/patellar tendon injury

A

Patellar fracture, patellar dislocation, distal femur fracture, tibial spine fracture, tibial plateau fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DDX patellar fracture

A

Patellar dislocation, quadriceps/patellar tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

DDX patellar dislocation

A

Patellar fracture, quadriceps/patellar tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

DDX cruciate ligament injury

A

Meniscal injury, collateral ligament injury, distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture, tibial spine fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DDX collateral ligament injury

A

Posterolateral corner injury, meniscal injury, cruciate liga- ment injury, distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

DDX meniscal injury

A

Collateral ligament injury, cruciate ligament injury, osteochondritis dissecans, distal femur fracture, tibial plateau fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Overuse syndromes of the knee - 3 injuries possible

A

Cruciate ligament injury, collateral ligament injury, osteochondritis dissecans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DDX for a large knee effusion

A

1) TRAUMA distal femur fracture
ACL or PCL injury
dislocation
tibial plateau or spine fracture

2) NO TRAUMA
insufficeincy fracture
septic arthr
inflamm arthr like gout
hemarthrosis or lipohemarthrosis from occulr fracture
avn
ruptured baker’s cyst
malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DDX for anterior knee pain

A

patellofemoral knee pain
Osgood-Schlatter
fracture
Saler Harris type I foemoral or tibial aphysis fracture
tibial plateau fracture
osteochondritis dissecans
quad rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Osteochondrtis dissecans gradual pain onset picture

A

on femoral condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Special tests for ACL:
Anterior drawer/Lachman: how to do

A

supine
hip at 45
knee at 90
thumb on joint line and pull tibia forward
thumbs feel for any tibia translation relative to femur

+ if > than other knee

Lachman is similar - but knee is flexed 20-30 deg
one hand to stabilize femur
then pull tibia ant and feel if can get firm or soft end point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Lachman grade for endpoint

A

1+ (0=5mm more displacmeent than N side)
2+ (5-10mm)
3+ (>10mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Posterior drawer test: how to do

A

The posterior drawer test can be accomplished with the patient’s knee flexed at 90 degrees and the foot stabilized by the examiner. A smooth backward force is applied to the tibia. Posterior displacement of the tibia more than 5 mm, or a soft end point, indicates injury to the PCL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Posterior sag sign for PCL - how to do

A

supine position, and a pillow is placed under the distal thigh for support while the heel rests on the stretcher. The knee is flexed to 45 or 90 degrees. If the tibia sags backward, the test result is considered to be positive, indicating PCL insufficiency.

laso may be appreciated during passive eleva- tion of the leg in a fully extended position, with the examiner applying the elevating force at the ankle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Testing for LCL/MCL laxity - how to do?

A

patient lying supine, the examiner applies varus and valgus stress with the knee at 0 and 30 degrees of flexion. Joint line opening is the amount of movement produced between the tibia and femur; this can be palpated and estimated in millimeters. The normal knee should be subjected to the same amount of valgus and varus stress;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Grading for LCL-MCL laxity - grade i vs ii vs iii

A

grade I (some laxity), grade II (marked laxity), and grade III (total laxity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How to perform McMurray test for meniscal tears?

A

supine, knee hyperflex
examiner grasps foot one hand, knee with other
flex and ext knee while IR and ER tibia on femur for valgus and varus test

+ if clicking palpable at joint line, pain or locking of knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What things can be seen on xray imaging of the knee (helpful findings)

A

FB
sublux
dislocation
fracture
jt space narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What findings on plain XR are suggestive of ligamentous injuries of the knee?

A

effusion
- lipohemarthrosis suggestive of fracture if there is a linear interface between two densities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ottawa knee rule indications - how old can the injury be?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Standard knee trauma xray views

A

AP
lateral
sunrise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a tunnel view of an xray and why is it helpful?

A

image intercondylar notch, useful for tibial spine fracture

75
Q

what is an oblique xray of the knee helpful for?

A

tibial plateau #

76
Q

Which imaging modality for knee dislocation?

A

cta for popliteal a

77
Q

Ottawa knee rules:
any + = xray

A

age >55
patellar tenderness
isolated fibular head tneder
flexion <90 deg
inability to wbear 4 stepps immed after injury or in ED

78
Q

Pittsburgh knee rules - any + for xray

A

age <12 or >50
inability to walk 4 steps

More sn and sp than ottawa

79
Q

What kind of joint is considered a surgical emergency?

80
Q

How to assess if unclear if joint is open?

A

ct imaging
or sterilesaline load with 200ml into joint capsule and see if comes out of laceration *don’t use meythlne blue not more sn

81
Q

What is an arthrocentesis useful to see?

A

effusion
hemarthrosis
lipohemoarthrosis
rheum conditions
septic arthritis

82
Q

Five types of knee/ tibiofemoral dislocation
what are they
how is it described (ie femur and tib relation)

A

ant, post, med, lat, rotary

tibia relative to femur

83
Q

Mc knee dislocation and mechanism

A

ant
hyperext

84
Q

mechanism of posterior dislocation of knee

A

high velocity direct trauma to a flexed knee

85
Q

Peroneal nerve assessment post knee dislocation - how to do?

A

sejsation dorsum of foot
dorsiflex ankle

86
Q

Delayed complications assoc with traumatic knee dislocation

A

dvt
compartment syndrome
pseudoaneurysm
arterial thrombosis

87
Q

Longer term complication of knee dislocation found in almost half of dislocated knee

A

heterotopic ossifciation

88
Q

How can the popliteal a be assessed?

A

abi
cta
duplex ultrasound

89
Q

ABI >0.9 - popliteal a NPV?

A

approaching 100%

90
Q

Hard signs of a vasulcar injury - list 5

A

lack of distal pulse
palpable thrill
pulsatile hemorrhage
expanding hematoma
classic 5 p’s - pain, pallor, parethesia, poikilothermia, paralysis

91
Q

list 4 soft signs of vascular injury

A

decreased pulse relative to uninjured side
sign hemorrhage at time of injury
nonexpanding hematoma
peripheral n deficit

92
Q

Knee dislocation management in the ED

A
  1. reduce it during secondary survey asap –> traction, counter traction
  2. neurovascular status
  3. immobilize in a long leg posterior splint, knee 15 to 20 deg of flexion post reduction

open joint - cefazolin 2g IV

  1. any hard signs of vascular injury = OR
    5.soft signs = angiogram
93
Q

Distal femur fracture complications

A

thrombophlebitis
fat embolus
delayed union or malunion

94
Q

Distal femur fracture ed management

A
  1. Pain
  2. splint
  3. ortho emergent

if uncomplicated fracture dislocation, can skeleton traction adn immobilixe vs intrarticular ORIF

95
Q

Tibial plateau fracture - mechanism?

A

valgus force with axial loading

96
Q

What does a segond fracture make you think of?

A

likely acl disruption, can occur with tibial plateau fracture

97
Q

What neurovascular compromise can tibial plateau fractures cause?

A

popliteal a
perioneal n
anterior tibial a

98
Q

What on a plain film is suggestive of a tibial plateau fracture?

A

lipohemarthrosis

99
Q

Absolute indications for tibial plateau fracture ortho consult

A

joint instability
open fracture
nv compromise
compartment syndrome

100
Q

ED management tibial plateau

A
  1. pain
  2. neurovascular assessment
  3. knee immobilizer
  4. dvt tx consideration ind basis after talking with ortho
101
Q

Anterior tibial spine fracture - assoc with which ligament tear?

102
Q

Tibial spine fracture mechanism

A

knee twist
hyperflexion
hyperext
valgus/varus forces

103
Q

xr for tibial spine fracture

A

ap lat
tunnel view

104
Q

Tibial spine fracture ed management

A

knee immob
nwb
ortho 3-7d

105
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans: what is this?

A

rare dis
adolescent
partial or torn separation of segment of articular cartilage and subchondral bone from underlying bone

106
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans: where is this often seen in knee?

A

nwb lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle

107
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans sx

A

pain
swelling
giving way episodes

108
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans XR findings

A

subcortical lucency
osteocondral fragment

109
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans ed management

A

nwb
limit activity
ortho 3-5d

110
Q

mechanism of quads tear

A

sudden contraction of quads m with knee in flexed pos, laceration or direct blow

111
Q

RF for a quads tear

A

ra
gout
sle
hyperparathyroidism
iatrogenic immunosuppresion with CS
?fluoroquinolones

112
Q

Quads tendon/extensor disruption signs on exam - 4 different clinical presentations

A
  • acute onset of pain and ecchymoses over anterior aspect of knee and palpable defect in the patella, quads tendon or patella tendon
  • loss or limitation of active leg ext with ext lag noted in last 10 deg of manuever
  • high riding patella iwth patellar tendon rupture and superior retraction
  • low riding patella with quad tendon rupture and inferior retraction
113
Q

quads tendon rupture image findings

A

xr - patella alta with Insall salvati ratio (patellar length to patellar tendon length ratio if <0.8 = +)
obliteration of quad or patella tendon
calcific defnsities

if partial –MRI best

114
Q

ED management of quads/patellar tendon tears

A

knee immob
nwb
ortho 1 wk

115
Q

Patella fractures: xr to do

A

ap
lat
sunrise

116
Q

Patellar fractures: classifcation

A

transverse
stellate
comminute
lorg or marginal
prox or distal pole

117
Q

patellar dislocation mechanism

A

valgus stress on a flexed knee = ER of leg

118
Q

Patellar dislocation closed reduction technique

A

knee passively ext while inferomedial directed pressure applied to patella

119
Q

post patellar reduction, need xr. why?

A

ensure no osteochondral avulsion fragment as may need arthroscopy for removal

120
Q

post reduction of patella dislocation: ed management

A

knee immob in full ext
f/u ortho 1-2 weeks

121
Q

Unhappy triad

A

acl
mcl
medial meniscus tear

122
Q

Unhappy triad actually less common than what triad seen?

A

acl
mcl
lat meniscus

123
Q

PCL injury mechanism

A

posterior force on flexed knee

124
Q

MCL injury mechanism

A

direct blow or impact to lateral knee

125
Q

LCL injury mechanism

A

hyperextension with varus stress
with direct blow or rotation

++ peroneal nerve assessment

126
Q

XR for cruciate and collateral liagment injuries

A

AP
lat
sunrise
intracondylar notch views

127
Q

Manageemnt of isolated ligament knee injuries in the ED

A

fully unlocked
hinged knee brace with w bearing as tolerated

ortho f/u 1 week

128
Q

Meniscus tear - which part most often injured?

A

posterior due to increased forces on posterior horn with knee flexion

129
Q

Which part of meniscus has best blood supply?

A

lateral

but unfortunately medial most often injured

130
Q

Meniscus diagnosis in the Ed?

A

Not really
MRI and arthroscopy best

132
Q

Management of meniscus in the ED

A

Unlocked hinge knee brace
Crutches
Ortho follow up

133
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome epidemiology

A

Women
20 and 30
Gradual no trauma
With pain after ongoing flexion

134
Q

RF patellofemoral syndrome

A

Glute weakness or quad
Patella subluxation
Prepatellar bursitis
Arthritis
Meniscus tear
Quads and patella tendinipsthy

135
Q

Physical exam patellofemoral syndrome

A

Med and lat patella tender
Recreate on single leg squat

136
Q

Management of patellofemoral pain

137
Q

ITB syndrome - in who? Where?

A

Runners
Lat femoral epicondyle
Pain or tightenness by ober test

138
Q

How to perform ober test?

A

Injured leg up on side
Flex 90, 90 hip and knee
Abduction hip, knee extend then hip aducted

If can’t do above adduction with gravity or get pain same spot indicates tight

139
Q

Treatment ITB syndrome

A

Relative rest
NSAID
Pt

140
Q

Patellar tendon path y management

A

Relative rest
PT
Anti inflam

141
Q

Plicq syndrome what is this?

A

Ongoing embryonic tissue in the knee that may thicken tissue due to ongoing repetitive movement or minor trauma

142
Q

Plica syndrome findings on exam and imaging

A

Medial femoral condyle tender
Snap or pop - worse run or sit

Arthroscopy as often won’t see mri

143
Q

Plica syndrome management

A

Pt
NSAID
While awaiting ortho appt

144
Q

Classic presentation of popliteal tendinopathy

A

Increasing posterior knee pain going down hill

145
Q

Webb test for popliteal tendinopathy

A

Differentiate from bicep fem tendinopathy or lat meniscus or ITB

Supine, flex knees to 90. Rotate leg IR, then resist examiner ER

If + pain = + test for pop tendinopathy

146
Q

Bursitis is a ___ dx

147
Q

Standard fluid studies for bursitis

A

Pro
Glucose
Gram stain and culture
Cell count
Crystal analysis
Plus Lyme and gonorrhea if warranted

148
Q

Septic bursitis without joint involvement management

A

Abx
Staph aureus x10d

Fail = I and d

149
Q

Aseptic bursitis management

A

Drainage
Then compression
Ice rest
NSAID

150
Q

OA on X-ray

A

Osteocytes
Subchondral cyst
Subchondral sclerosis
Joint space narrowing

151
Q

Management of OA

A

Pt
NSAID and Tylenol
Limited use of CS

152
Q

What is a baker cyst?

A

Herniation of synovial membrane through posterior aspect of knee capsule

153
Q

Signs of baker cyst

A

Posteromediak corner of knee mass
Pressure pain limited rom

R:o dvt

154
Q

Tx of bakers cyst

A

NSAID
Rest
Compression

Output drainage

155
Q

3 a of the lower leg

A

Come From popliteal a
Anterior tibial a
Posterior tibial a
Peroneal a

156
Q

4 compartments of the lower leg

A

Anterior
Lateral
posterior superficial and deep

157
Q

Lateral compartment m

A

Peroneus longed and Brevis with superficial peroneal n

158
Q

Superficial posterior compartment of leg structures

A

Gastroc
Soles
Plantaris
Sural nerve

159
Q

Deep posterior compartment of leg structure

A

Rib post
Long toe flexor m
Posterior tibial and peroneal a
Tibial n

160
Q

Subcondylar tibial fracture: associated with which knee fracture?

A

Tibial plateau

161
Q

Subcondylar tibial fracture mechanism

A

Rotational stress and vertical compression

162
Q

Tibial tuberosity fracture: type I

A

Incomplete avulsion

163
Q

Tibial tuberosity fracture: type ii

A

Complete avulsion extra articular

164
Q

Tibial tuberosity fracture: type iii

A

Complete avulsion
Intraarticular

165
Q

Which subcodnylar tibial fractures require or?

A

Intraarticular
Communuted
Displaced

High risk for compartment syndrome!!

166
Q

Two classification systems for tibial tubercle fractures

A

Ogden
Watson - Jones

167
Q

Name the Ogden classification types of tibial tuberosity fractures

A

Type 1: secondary ossification fracture
2- fracture between primary and secondary centres
3- fracture extender primary centre of ossification site
4- entire proximal tibial physis fractured
5- sleeve avulsion fracture from secondary ossification centre

A- nondisplaced
B- displaced

168
Q

Tibial shaft fracture high risk of which n injury?

169
Q

RF of tibial shaft fracture

A

Dvt
Fat embolus
Non union
Pseudoaneurysm
Av fistula

170
Q

When to add gent to open fracture?

A

Severely contaminated

171
Q

When to add pen G to open wounds)

A

Farm related

172
Q

When to add pseudomonas coverage to open wound?

A

Fresh or saltwater

173
Q

Recommended splint for tibia shaft fracture

A

Long leg posterior sugar tong component

174
Q

Maissoneuve fracture components

A

Medial ankle disruption with a deltoid lig tear or fracture at medial mall

Complete syndesmosis tear

Proximal fib fracture

175
Q

Isolated fibula fracture management

A

Ice
Analgesia
Stirrup splint
NWB

176
Q

When to consult ortho for fib fractures (immediate)

A

Maissoneuve
Fracture of fib severely displaced or with peroneal n injury

177
Q

Mc tib fib joint dislocation

A

Anterolateral

178
Q

Posteromedial tibfib joint dislocation nerve injury risk?

179
Q

Proximal tib fib joint dislocation - relocation technique

A

Knee at 90, every ankle and direct pressure on fibular head

Then to ortho!

180
Q

Mc sites stress fracture

A

Tib fib femur navicular metatarsal bones

181
Q

Stress fracture (general) management

A

Decrease activity 3-6 weeks to heal

182
Q

Which stress fractures need to be made NWB given risk of progression complete fracture?

A

Ant TiB
Navicular
Fifth metatarsal
Patella
Seamus
Superior sided femoral neck

183
Q

Why does medial tibia stress syndrome/shin splints occur?

A

Periostitits
Lack of discrete fracture line