431 tactical operating Flashcards

1
Q

what is 431?

A

tactical standard operating guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sogs are by definition:

A

the standard of performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when is it ok to deviate from the 431?

A

only acceptable in unforseen non standard situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what happens if you deviate from the 431?

A

shall be formally reviewed by the appropriate chain of command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is the 431 signed and by who?

A

January 1st, 2014 and Keith Wright fire chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when must crews exit the hazardous atmosphere?

A

prior to low air alarm activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the rules of air management?

A

know how much you have upon entry
report how much to company officer or partner
perform air checks and manage remainder
use the rule of one third
consider exiting when crew has used 1/3 of their air.
leave the IDLH before low air alarm sounds!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the rule of 1/3 in regards to air supply?

A

work period + exit time + margin of error for self rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the IC or assignee responsible for in regards to air management?

A

maintain accountability of IDLH environment
use 10 min time check reports to monitor status
anticipate crews recycle based on time and CANs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what the the company officers responsibility in regards to air management?

A

develop the strategy for crew air management
monitor crew air status
communicate air/ situation to command with CAN
consider exiting and advise command when a crew member has consumed 1/3 of their bottle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the responsibility of the firefighter in regards to air management?

A

responsible for personal air consumption
must be aware of amount of air remaining
communicate air status with officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what should you do if you have a low air alarm activation?

A

consider a mayday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if a low air alarm goes off in the IDLH what is required after the incident?

A

a report or explanation during the post incident hot wash and or critique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if you hear a low air alarm from a nearby company what should you do?

A

attempt contact with them. if you cant contact them a mayday must be called.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is involved in a stage 1 decon?

A

using decon line clear from helmet to chest strap and gloves

you are not ready to recycle remove mask and regulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is involved in stage 2 decon?

A

shall be done prior to entering rehab or leaving
using decon line, scrub brush and PPE soap
clear head to toe
rinse off using water
clean SCBA using same process
wipe hands face neck using wipes or water and soap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is involved in stage 3 decon final cleaning?

A

place ppe in plastic bag, place SCBA in plastic bag
transport back to the station. shouldnt be in cab
place 2nd set of gear in service or get from CS
shower
place everything back in service
ref policy 105 CPFR PPE care manual
advance clean gear with bunker washer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

based on information provided dispatch will process units to respond accordingly to what two modes?

A

stage for law enforcement and proceed with caution into a LE secured scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when you proceed with caution into law enforcement secured scenes the following information should be communicated with responding units:

A

type of violence, status of weapons, number of patients, location of law enforcement command and idea direction of approach to the scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does dispatch relay violent information to responding units?

A

radio and MDT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

responding units based on their experience and dispatch information should:

A

call for additional resources
don PPE ballistic vests
fire helmets worn is direction of officer or IC
request location of LE IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when units are directed to state or make a decision to stage they should:

A

stage far enough away to not become part of incident
stage in quarters if possible if within 1/2 mile
out of sight of the incident and crowds
out of line of fire and behind cover
have a minimum of two directions of egree w/o backing
turn off warming lights while staged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

units called into a secured scene or moving forward from staging into a secured scene should:

A
proceed with caution 
turn off warning lights 
be aware of bystanders and crowds 
have someone assigned as lookout 
ensure patient has been searched prior to transport 
use good de escalation techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what should you do if you find yourself in a potentially violent situation?

A

retreat to a safe location emergency traffic or emer button should be used if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

prior to entry on a rescue team command and control includes what requirements?

A

unified command shall be set up
unified command agrees on the warm zone and if safe for rescue teams
fire ic has the final say as to deployment of fire personnel
accountability shall be in place and tracked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

prior to entry on a rescue team what communication points must be in place?

A

rescue team members shall be in constant communication with the Fire IC
team members will do face to face briefing with LE and make sure everyone understands the details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what type of EMS care should be delivered in the warm zone?

A

immediately life saving ems care unless casualty collection point is established and secure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

slow is smooth and….

A

smooth is fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

rescue teams should preplan a patient handoff location with ems group/ division. T/F?

A

true

30
Q

can the rescue team split up in the warm zone?

A

no enter as a team and leave as a team

31
Q

define active shooter incident:

A

any incident where the suspects have the means, opportunity, and intent and are actively killing, attempting to kill, maiming, seriously assaulting, raping, torturing or causing great bodily injury to multiple victims, with firearms, explosive devices or by any other means.

32
Q

define barricaded hostage incident:

A

a static situation involving an armed suspect, with or without hostages who has demonstrated or voiced violence, and has fortified a position of advantage in a room or building. no indication of any immediate harm to any hostages.

33
Q

define concealment:

A

protects you from observation but not weapon fire.

34
Q

define contact team:

A

a group of officers that have the intent to stop the suspects deadly actions.

35
Q

define cover:

A

protects you from observation and weapon fire.

36
Q

define dynamic situation:

A

an incident that is fluid, evolving and changing with constant movement, numerous victims, discover of an IED and other tactical challenged.

37
Q

define person with a gun incident:

A

any incident where the reporting party states the person does or did have a gun. this would include any handguns or long guns.

38
Q

define rescue teams:

A

a group of fire/emdLE personnel whose purpose is to extricate viable victims from incidents warm zones. a rescue team will always have LE security assigned to them.

39
Q

define scene safe to enter:

A

law enforcement has determined that there are no known threats in the immediate area.

40
Q

define shooting incident warm zone:

A

a portion of an incident that a LE contact team has been through without contacting the subject and have communicated the location of viable victims, and is out of any direct line of fire. non LE personnel will only enter the warm zone with a LE security detail and under Fire IC direction.

41
Q

define stage for LE:

A

units should stage far enough away as to not become part of the incident, out of line of sight, out of line of fire, and behind cover and with two directions of egress without turning around. companies should turn off warning lights and be aware of any crowds that may pose a hazard

42
Q

define static situation:

A

the suspect stops moving and appear to be contained. an uncontained static suspect can become dynamic without notice.

43
Q

define violent incident:

A

any incident in which personnel may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act whether real or implied.

44
Q

list the violent incident Do’s:

A

be aware of surroundings, display a confident in control attitude, look for the leader of the group, clear the scene of violent materials, set up fire line tape to secure perimeter, keep crew in sight at all times, use physical barriers between violent person, be friendly, separate disputants, use a calm quiet voice, keep visual on peoples hands. use escorts if they need to access another room.

45
Q

list the violent incident donts:

A

get lulled false sense of complacency, ignore the potential for violence on all calls, ignore your gut feeling, be confrontational, done be an easy target, dont stand between disputants, stand at a right angle, dont stand against a wall, dont fold arms, dont put hand in your pocket.

46
Q

when in doubt….

A

be safe not sorry

47
Q

when should you identify current and potential fire flow demands?

A

during size up. consider early alternate water supply options and communicate water supply shortfalls or delays to the IC.

48
Q

when should you conduct a full hydrant hookup or max suction?

A

when anticipated demands are going to exceed 1000 gpm.

49
Q

when should you consider a relay pumping operation?

A

known poor water system, supply hose lays in excess of 400 ft,

50
Q

how do you relay pump?

A

establish a full hydrant hookup, begin at idle pressure, and relay operations are terminated starting with the attack engine and working back to the supply engine.

51
Q

when is duel pumping indicated?

A

when available volume exceeds the attack engine discharge capacity.

52
Q

how do you duel pump

A

connect the intake of the second attack pumper to the intake of the supply engine. the residual volume of supply engine will flow through the pump and supply the second attack engine.

53
Q

if you need to draft whats a key requirement?

A

must request the tender for hard suction

54
Q

when is the assignment of water supply complete?

A

when the designated attack pump has adequate flow to support demand.

55
Q

work cycles are established for the safety of personnel and are in line with what?

A

CPFR risk management statement,
air management sog
physical limitations of PPE/ personnel as it related to weather, difficulty of work and length of the incident

56
Q

define a work cycle?

A

1 air cylinder for structural

40 minutes of strenuous work without SCBA

57
Q

what do you do during a recycle?

A

replace air and rehydrate and then report back to the ic or division leader for re assignment

58
Q

when will you report to rehab?

A

after consuming 2 air cylinders or after after 40 minutes of strenuous work without scba.

59
Q

during ems incidents initial patient contact SOG has defined what 3 roles?

A

vital signs, data collection and interviewer.

60
Q

what vital signs must you get on all patients?

A

skin, palpate pulse, manual BP, RR, lung sounds, and LOC/GCS

61
Q

what vital sign options should you consider?

A

dexi, 4 lead, Etco2, 12 lead, postural vs, spo2, temp, head to toe,

62
Q

what does the data collection guy do?

A

scene safety, patient demographics, time stamp vitals, SSN if avail, meds and allergies, ask about advance directives, correct spelling, obtain hx, and pass on critical information to crew as its discovered.

63
Q

what the interviewer guy do?

A

devlop rapport with the patient, explain treatments, develop a plan with family and patient, provides a short to medic upon arrival.

64
Q

what does MCIRT stand for?

A

mobile community intervention response team.

65
Q

what is the purpose of MCIRT?

A

to address high utilizers of 911 system and provide a resource for fire and law to divert people from the ED.

66
Q

what are the hours of MCIRT?

A

m-f 08:30-5:00

67
Q

what can MCIRT help with?

A

substance abuse, mental health, physical health, behavior health, frequent 911 users and other complex service needs.

68
Q

what is MCIRT phone number?

A

253-396-5015

69
Q

can MCIRT help with transport needs?

A

yes

70
Q

where the is MCIRT patient referral form link located?

A

on in infoportal under EMS tab