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Spring > 402 Exam 1 Ppt > Flashcards

402 Exam 1 Ppt Flashcards

1
Q

What do chemical mediators do

A

They act as alarms to notify surrounding area of injury

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2
Q

What are the 3 steps in acute inflammation

A
  1. Cellular injury
  2. Release of chemical mediators
  3. Chemical mediators cause: vasodilation, edema, cellular infiltration, thrombosis, pain.
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3
Q

What are 5 things chemical mediators cause
(VECTP)

A

Vasodilation
Edema
Cellular infiltration
Thrombosis
Pain

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4
Q

What life threatening condition is caused by the rapid release of inflammatory mediators on a large scale throughout the body.

A

Anaphylaxis

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5
Q

What are adverse effects of Asprin

A

GI bleeding and gastric upset.
Dizziness, tinnitus, HA

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6
Q

If a patient is receiving warfarin or heparin can they also have asprin

A

No

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7
Q

Can children have asprin

A

No.

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8
Q

What class is asprin

A

Non opioid analgesic; NSAID, antipyretic

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9
Q

Asprin can reduce incidence of what

A

Stroke and also reduces risk of mortality after MI

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10
Q

What are the 3 symptoms ibuprofen is used for

A

Pain, fever, inflammation

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11
Q

Adverse effects of ibuprofen

A

Nausea
Heartburn
Dizziness
Can increase BP (Na retention)
Nephrotoxicity
Bleeding

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12
Q

Black box warning for Ibuprofen

A

Increased risk of serious thrombotic events, MI, and stroke

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13
Q

What does acetaminophen treat

A

Fever and pain

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14
Q

Acetaminophen effect what organ adversely and has a black box warning for it

A

Liver - it can cause severe or fatal liver injury

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15
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen

A

N-acetylcysteine

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16
Q

What is prednisone used for

A

Severe inflammation

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17
Q

Adverse affects of prednisone

A

Mood swings
Weight gain
Na retention and edema
K loss
Hyperglycemia
Immunosuppressive ; increases risk of infections

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18
Q

If mom has negative blood type and the father is positive, RhoGAM will do what and when is it given

A

It’s given at 28 weeks and it prevents the mom’s body from making antibodies against baby’s cells.

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19
Q

What is HBIG (who and when is it recommended)

A

Hepatitis B immune globulin.
It prevents hepatitis b from being passed from mom to baby during childbirth

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20
Q

What is the schedule for the hepatitis b series

A

2nd dose given 1 month after first
3 dose given 6 months after first dose

First dose given following birth.

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21
Q

Cyclosporine is what kind of drug
Adverse effects
Interactions

A

DMARD
Immunosuppressant by inhibiting helper T cells

Reduced urinary output
HTN
Tremor

Grapefruit
Phenytoin
Rifampin

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22
Q

What inflammatory disorders would you use immunosuppressant therapy for

A

RA
Lupus
Ankylosis spondylitis

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23
Q

Black box warning for cyclosporine

A

Serious risk for infections when taking this medication
Nephrotoxic at high doses

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24
Q

What are signs of transplant rejection

A

Increased Cr and BUN
Decreased urine output
Flu like symptoms
Hypertension
Tachycardia

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25
Q

What are the first mass produced antibiotic isolated from fungus

A

Penicillins

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26
Q

Most common adverse effect of penicillin

A

Allergy
(Rash, pruritis, fever)

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27
Q

How long would you observe a patient who you just administered penicillin to, for an allergic reaction

A

30 minutes

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28
Q

What are adverse effects of penicillin

A

Diarrhea
Nausea
Vomiting
Anaphylaxis

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29
Q

Which drug class is similar to penicillin and previous penicillin allergy should be considered when prescribed this

A

Cephalosporin

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30
Q

Should erythromycin be taken with or without food?

A

On an empty stomach with full glass of water.

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31
Q

Adver effects of erythromycin

A

Nausea/vomiting
Dizziness
Hearing loss

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32
Q

What class antibiotic is Erythromycin

A

Macrolide

33
Q

Do not give erythromycin immediately before or after fruit juices
T/f

A

T

34
Q

What class of antibiotic is gentamicin

A

Aminoglycoside.

35
Q

What class of antibiotics are reserved generally for serious systemic infections

A

Aminoglycosides

36
Q

Black box warning for Gentamicin
(NONN)

A

Neurotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Neuromuscular blockade and Respiratory paralysis

37
Q

Adverse effects for Gentamicin

A

Rash
Nausea/ vomiting
Fatigue

38
Q

What would you want to monitor trough levels for with gentamicin administration

A

To avoid toxic levels

39
Q

Administration alerts for Ciprofloxacin

A

Administer 4hrs before antacids or ferrous sulfate

40
Q

Black box warning for ciprofloxacin

A

Tendinitis and tendon rupture may occur.

41
Q

What class of drug is ciprofloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolone

42
Q

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin

A

Nausea/vomiting, diarrhea

43
Q

Adverse effects of metronidazole (flagyl)

A

Nause/vomiting
Dizziness
Dryness of mouth and metallic taste.

44
Q

What antibiotic drug disrupts nucleus acid synthesis

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

45
Q

What part of pregnancy is flagyl contraindicated for

A

First trimester

46
Q

What kind of bacteria does Vancomycin fight

A

Severe Gram positive infections

47
Q

Adverse effects of vancomycin

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxic
Red Man Syndrome. : Hypotension with flushing and a red rash. (Occurs with rapid IV admin because of large histamine release in body.

48
Q

What is the most effective drug for treating MRSA infections

A

Vancomycin

49
Q

With Vancomycin administration what do you monitor

A

Peaks and troughs.

50
Q

What type of precaution is used for TB

A

Airborne

51
Q

How long is TB treatment usually

A

6-12 months

52
Q

What are symptoms of TB

A

Low grade fever
Lethargy
Hemoptysis (blood through mouth from bronchi, or lungs)
Cough and or SOB

53
Q

Can you treat TB with one antibiotic?

A

No 2-4 will be administered concurrently

54
Q

What is the first line drug for TB

A

Ethambutol

55
Q

What are adverse effects of ethambutol

A

Nausea/vomiting
HA
Dizziness
Optic neuritis
Anaphylaxis

56
Q

What are the most common medications prescribed together for TB

A

Isoniazid
Rifampin
Pyrazinamide

57
Q

Rifampin side effect on urine

A

Turns it orange

58
Q

What are 3 types of mycobacteria infections

A

TB
Leprosy
Mycobacterium avium complex(MAC) (most commonly seen in patients with AIDS

59
Q

Isoniazid should be given when in regards to food?

A

1 hr after or 2 hours prior to meals

60
Q

Common fungal infection of skin, nail, oral cavity. Symptoms of white patches or bright red rash

A

Candidiasis

61
Q

Common fungal infection of scalp which is characterized by scaly, red and itchy

A

Ringworm of scalp (tinea capitis )

62
Q

What is Nystatin used for
What forms does it come in
How do you store it

A

Superficial anti fungal
Cream, ointment, powder, tablet, and lozenge forms.
Store at room temp.

63
Q

What is the drug Zidovudine (retrovir) used for. Its class. Administration alert and black box warning

A

Used to treat HIV infection
It is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
Take on empty stomach with full glass of water. Avoid juice.
Black box= lactic acidosis, bone marrow suppression resulting in anemia.

64
Q

How is hepatitis A spread

A

Oral-fecal route
(Commonly caused by contaminated food)

65
Q

How is hep C transmitted

A

Through Exposure to infected blood or body fluids

66
Q

Is there a vaccine for hepatitis A or C?

A

Yes for A, no for C

67
Q

70% of Hepatitis C patients develop what

A

Chronic hepatitis

68
Q

What is the pharmacotherapy for chronic hepatitis C ?

A

Combination of 2-3 antivirals concurrently.

69
Q

What is the drug cyclophosphamide used for and its class

A

It’s an antineoplastic(anti cancer tumor)

It’s an alkylating agent; nitrogen mustard. Which is a powerful immunosuppressant

70
Q

Cyclophosphamide has what side effects

A

Bone marrow suppression
Increases risk of severe infections
Reversible alopecia

71
Q

Methotrexate type of drug and how it works

A

Antineoplastic
Antimetabolite; folic acid analog
(It blocks the synthesis of folic acid)

72
Q

Methotrexate administration alerts

A

Avoid sun exposure

73
Q

Black box warning for methotrexate

A

Bone marrow suppression
Hepatotoxic

74
Q

What class of drug is Tamoxifen and its adverse effects

A

Hormone antagonist used to treat cancer tumors.
Adverse effects are :
Hot flashes
Insomnia
Breast enlargement/pain
ha

75
Q

How old do you need to be to get the shingles vaccine

A

Over 50

76
Q

Cyclophosphamide can result in sterility
T/f

A

T

77
Q

A client is receiving methotrexate​ (MTX, Rheumatrex,​ Trexall). Which assessment finding should the nurse find most​ concerning?

Weight loss
Diarrhea
Headache
Immunosuppression

A

Diarrhea ( risk of hemorrhaging)

78
Q

What are examples of process barriers in the non specific immune system

A

Fever, complement, phagocytes, inflammation.

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