2T-38 V3 w. AETC & OG Sup 20-18B Flashcards

1
Q

3.3.3 Normal Recovery fuel

A

800 lbs

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2
Q

3.3.4.1 Minimum fuel

A

600 lbs

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3
Q

3.3.4.2 Emergency fuel

A

400 lbs

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4
Q

3.7.1 Do not take off when RCR is less than ____

A

10

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5
Q

3.7.3 Do not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds __% (single ship or interval) or __% if formation takeoff

A

80; 70

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6
Q

3.7.5 (T/F) Afterburner must be used on all takeoffs

A

True

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7
Q

3.10.5 (T/F) It is authorised to shift CG by cross feeding or using differential throttles to improve performance

A

False

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8
Q

3.17.2 Do not stack lower than lead aircraft below _____ (as chase)

A

1,000’ AGL

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9
Q

3.23.1 Night taxi spacing is ____ on centerline

A

300’

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10
Q

3.24.1 Desired touchdown point for a VFR approach is

A

150 - 1,000’ from threshold

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11
Q

3.27.1.2 Formation low approach

A

100’ AGL

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12
Q

3.27.1.3 Chase low approach

A

300’ AGL unless safety or circumstances dictate otherwise

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13
Q

3.28 Closed Pattern. Plan to arrive on downwind between ______

A

200 to 240 KCAS

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14
Q

3.32.1 When computed landing roll exceeds ___ % of the available runway, land at an alternate runway, if possible

A

80

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15
Q

3.32.2 When the RCR is _____, land at an alternate runway, if possible

A

less than 10

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16
Q

3.32.4.1 Solo crosswind limits. Dry / Wet

A

15; 10 kts

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17
Q

3.32.4.2 With crosswinds over ___ minimum runway length for 60% and 100% flap touch-and-go’s on runways without a suitable barrier is ____

A

15 kts

10,000’

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18
Q

3.32.4.2 Do not perform no-flap touch-and-go’s without barrier if crosswind exceeds ____

A

15 kts

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19
Q

6.3.1 What is the phrase for directing a barrier?

A

“Barrier, barrier, barrier”

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20
Q

6.4.3 Regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, abort the mission for: (4)

A
  • Birdstrik or FOD
  • Over-G
  • FLSC anomalies
  • Engine flameout, stagnation, or shutdown
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21
Q

6.11 Solo Student Restriction. Do not practise (13)

A
  • TP Stalls, approach to stall and slow flight
  • AHC maneuvers
  • NH & NL recoveries
  • Lost wingman as wing
  • Rolling takeoffs
  • Emergency patterns and landings
  • Low closed or circling
  • Takeoffs with xw greater than 15 (dry) or 10 (wet)
  • Patterns and landings with more than 2,500 lbs
  • Flight with any known malfunction or requiring operational check
  • Any unbriefed maneuver
  • On the wing of another solo student
  • Formation low approaches below 300’ AGL
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22
Q

6.11.2 Solo student minimum fuel

A

800 lbs

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23
Q

6.11.3 Post-contact checkride solo students may climb and descend through IMC if ceiling is _____ and not more than _____. Min visibility above and below ceiling must be ___

A

above 5,000’ AGL
2,000’ thick
5 miles

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24
Q

6.11.3 Solo students will not level off or cruise in any ___

A

IMC

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25
Q

3.5.1 (T/F) Solo students may roll and remove and reinstall safety pins

A

False

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26
Q

3.7.6 (T/F) Single-ship rolling takeoff are authorised day and night, IMC and VMC

A

False. Only during daylight hours. Both IMC and VMC

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27
Q

3.7.9 Minimum runway length

A

8,000’

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28
Q

3.7.8 (T/F) Aircraft must always have a full fuel load for each mission.

A

Almost false. It may be waived by OG/CC

29
Q

3.10.7.2.1 Minimum and maximum altitude for stalls or slow flight, with a power setting off ___

A

8,000’ AGL; FL200; 80%

30
Q

3.10.7.2.2 All aerobatics minimum altitude

A

8,000’ AGL

31
Q

3.10.7.5 Prohibited practise maneuvers (6)

A
  • No flap patterns and landings with more than 2,500 lbs
  • Single engine circling approach or overhead
  • No-flap full stop landings
  • Minimum roll landings
  • Inflight engine shutdowns
  • Closed and low-closed immediately after takeoff
32
Q

3.19.9 (T/F) Do not fly in known or reported icing conditions

A

True

33
Q

3.21.4 Minimum VFR point-to-point navigation altitude

A

3,000’ AGL

34
Q

6.1.1 If oxygen decreases to 1 liter or less when airborne, descend to at or below ____

A

10,000’ MSL and land as soon as practical

35
Q

6.9.5 Initiate a simulated single-engine go-around by ___ (___ if full flaps are used)

A

100’ AGL; 300’ AGL

36
Q

6.11.1.15 Split-S or aerobatic maneuver entry, or continuing over-the-top maneuvers when the apex is below ____ (solo restriction)

A

18,000’ AGL

37
Q

15.5.2 WX Solos to pattern only

A

4,000’ AGL, 5 miles

38
Q

15.5.6 WX Dual Only

A

3,500’ AGL, 3 miles

39
Q

15.5.7 WX Restricted pattern

A

2,300 - 3,500’ AGL, 3 miles

40
Q

15.5.8.1 WX Instrument

A

1,900 - 2,300’ AGL, 3 miles (tower controls all T-38 operations)

41
Q

15.5.8.2 WX Simultaneous Instruments

A

500’ - 1,900’ AGL, 2 miles

42
Q

15.5.13.1 WX High pattern

A

4,000’ AGL, 3 miles (5 miles for solos)

43
Q

15.10.1.1 (T/F) Only during night or IMC must a flashlight be used to inspect engine intakes

A

False. all sorties

44
Q

15.10.1.4 Stepping to a spare automatically approves a ___ minute chock extension

A

30

45
Q

15.10.5.1 Exiting runway at G is permitted when (5)

A
  • Day
  • Dry
  • Single ship
  • Safe taxi speed
  • Rated pilot on board
46
Q

15.10.5.1 You may clear hot side on full stop after passing ___

A

taxiway G (Tinder may clear you)

47
Q

15.10.5.2 List the three items allowed on landing roll

A
  • Pitot Heat - OFF
  • ISS - SOLO
  • Seat - SAFE
48
Q

15.11.4.1 Squawk ___ in Tinders pattern and TCAS to ___ in any visual pattern

A

0377; TA

49
Q

15.11.4.5.2 Point A entry. Cross A at ___ on a ___ intercept to outside downwind. These headings are approximately ___ and ___ for 15R and 33L

A

3,500’; 45

015; 105

50
Q

15.11.4.5.3 After crossing Point A descend to be wings level at _____, _____ prior to outside downwind

A

2,800’ MSL, 1 mile

51
Q

15.11.4.6.3 Center Runway Entry. “Center maintain runway heading”

A

Maintain runway heading climbing to 2,800’ until approved to enter Tinder’s pattern.

52
Q

15.11.4.6.5 Center Runway Entry. If no response is heard from Tinder, fly runway heading and attempt to contact Tinder until ____, climb to ____. Still no contact, contact ____ for radar service to Point A/B/C or straight-in

A

5 miles past runway; 4,000’

Sheppard Arrival

53
Q

15.11.5 Do not break with: (2)

A
  • A straight-in between 9 and 4 miles

- Unable to follow last aircraft with sufficient spacing

54
Q

15.11.7.1 Pulling closed or turning crosswind on runway 15, cross extended centerline of 17 at or above ___

A

2,300’ MSL

55
Q

15.11.7.2 Do not request closed when (2)

A
  • Straight-in between 9 and 4 miles

- Aircraft between 3 mile initial / initial and the break

56
Q

15.11.8 Fly ____ on inside downwind prior to configuring

A

220 KCAS

57
Q

15.11.15 Breakout. Climb and heading

A

4,000’; 240-until advised further by Sheppard Arrival

58
Q

15.11.15.4 Breakout. “Departure end, breakout” (a/c on Center)

A

4,000’ and contact Arrival. DO NOT turn 240

59
Q

15.11.16.2 “Tower has access, (runway), for departure” action

A

Remain at or above 2,800’ MSL and carry straight through initial or breakout no later than the perch

60
Q

15.11.17.1 Falls pattern WX

A

2,300’ AGL, 3 miles (Restricted pattern)

61
Q

15.11.17.7 Falls pattern. Speeds on: downwind and base

A

300 KCAS; 250 KCAS

62
Q

15.11.17.10 Falls pattern. TCAS

A

TA

63
Q

15.12.1.2 During any takeoff or touch and go, remain ___ until the departure end of runway.

A

at or below 2,300’ MSL

64
Q

15.12.1.3 Local climbout

A

Runway heading, maintain at or below 2,300’ until departure end, climb and maintain 5,000, and contact Arrival or as assigned

65
Q

15.12.2.3 Solo students will not continue over-the-top portion of any maneuver below _____. Note the ground elevation is above 2,000’ in the far-western MOAs

A

18,000’ AGL

66
Q

15.12.6 MOA Recovery. Descend to cross VASTY, MIKKE or MEGGA level at ____

A

12,000’ MSL

67
Q

15.12.6 MOA Recovery. From Stover or Dundee depart the area at or below ____

A

14,000’ MSL

68
Q

15.12.6 MOA Recovery. From other than Stover or Dundee depart the area at or below ___

A

17,000’ MSL