24/02/24 (morning) Flashcards

1
Q

What malignancies are patients with coeliac disease at risk of if left untreated?

A

Lymphoma (EATL) and small bowel adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What skin condition is seen in coeliac disease and what is seen in IBD?

A
  • Coeliac disease - dermatitis herpetiformis (itchy, painful blistering or papular rash commonly on the trunk, buttocks, and elbows)
  • IBD - erythema nodosum (red, raised nodules over shins) and pyoderma gangrenosum (blistering over shins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Prehn’s sign and how do you interpret it?

A
  • Testicular pain relieved on elevation of testicles
  • Positive suggests epididymitis over torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the signs of necrotising enterocolitis and what is the treatment?

A
  • Signs: Bile-streaked vomit, blood streaked stool, abdominal distension and intramural air on X-ray (distended loops of bowl with thin black lines across the bowel wall)
  • Treatment is with broad spectrum antibiotics and parenteral nutrition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the sings of Meckel’s diverticulum, what’s the investigation and what’s the treatment?

A
  • Signs are painless rectal bleeding, possible mass in RLQ, generally well
  • Investigation is Tec-99 scan (shows reduced uptake at lesion)
  • Treatment is managing any obstruction (NG tube) and surgery (wedge excision or small bowel resection with anastomosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What needs to be done in a woman presenting with possible appendicitis before surgery and why?

A

Abdominal US to rule out any ovarian cause of pain and confirm appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Signs, associations, investigation, and treatment for oesophageal atresia?

A
  • Newborn constantly drooling and coughing up milk
  • Associated with Down’s and polyhydramnios
  • Investigation is NG tube insertion with X-ray (see how far it goes, may show bird beak sign)
  • Treatment is surgical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signs, investigation and treatment mesenteric adenitis?

A
  • Signs: diffuse acute abdominal pain following recent URTI
  • Investigation: abdominal ultrasound (shows enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes and mesenteric thickening, can also distinguish between mesenteric adenitis and appendicitis)
  • Treatment is supportive as condition is usually self limiting, surgery may be warranted if appendicitis can’t be ruled out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which out of ramipril or furosemide is likely to cause hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Ramipril by blocking aldosterone
  • Furosemide is a loop diuretic so more likely to waste potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Signs of haemolytic uraemia syndrome and the moist common organism?

A
  • Signs of AKI, microangiopathic haemolysis and thrombocytopaenia
  • Most cases secondary to underlying infectious or inflammatory pathology (e.g. after GI infection)
  • 90% of cases in children caused by shiga-like toxin from E.coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do you give in severe colitis not responsive steroids and fluids?

A

IV ciclosporin to cover infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What antibiotic causes urine and tear discolouration?

A
  • Rifampicin
  • Goes orange, patient may think it’s blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most serious adverse effect of rapid correction of chronic hyponatraemia and how to avoid it?

A
  • Central pontine demyelinosis (leading to locked in syndrome)
  • Avoid by not exceeding correction of 10mmol/L in 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common adverse effect of induction of labour?

A
  • Failure of induction requiring C-section
  • Warn patients C-section may be required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What test needs to be done before starting lithium and why?

A
  • TFTs
  • Lithium can cause hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best prophylactic management for colorectal cancer in FAP patient?

A
  • Total proctocolectomy
  • FAP carries almost 100% risk of progression to colorectal cancer by age of 40 if not treated
17
Q

Treatment of symptomatic moderate malignant hypercalcaemia?

A

Admission for IV fluids and bisphosphonates

18
Q

Signs of PCP pneumonia/infection and investigation?

A
  • Fever, non-productive cough, and SOB worse on exertion, in immunocompromised patient
  • Investigation is bronchoscopy and bronco alveolar lavage
19
Q

2 main risk factors for acute subdural haematotma?

A
  • Elderly
  • Chronic alcohol excess
20
Q

2 most common antibodies associated with myasthenia gravis?

A

1st) Nicotinic acetylcholin receptor antibodies (nAchR)
2nd) Muscle specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK) (much more likely in those with associated thymoma)