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229 Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What comprises “direct compensation”?
a. wages or salaries, incentives, and employee recognition programs
b. wages or salaries, incentives, and commissions
c. employee recognition programs and wages or salaries
d. wages or salaries, flexible hours, incentives, and commissions

A

b. wages or salaries, incentives, and commissions

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes “total rewards”?
a. wages or salaries, incentives, and dental plans
b. incentives, dental plans, and life insurance coverage
c. wages or salaries, bonuses, and pension plans
d. what the employee receives in terms of both direct and indirect compensation

A

d. what the employee receives in terms of both direct and indirect compensation

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3
Q

Why does an organization take a strategic approach to total rewards?
a. to broaden/improve an employee’s competencies/skills
b. to align overall rewards with specific business objectives
c. to focus the employee on customer needs
d. to reinforce corporate values

A

b. to align overall rewards with specific business objectives

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4
Q

With the evolving landscape of work, what must a company do with its total rewards program?
a. continue with the existing philosophies of paying for a specific position
b. pay little attention to employees feeling appreciated
c. ensure it aligns with the dynamic forces
d. little need for compensation goals

A

c. ensure it aligns with the dynamic forces

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5
Q

Which of the following statements best describes “equity theory” of motivation?
a. It explains that an employee’s compensation is equal to the value of work performed.
b. It is a wage level at which all employers are compensating.
c. It is an equal amount of pay for all employees for work performed.
d. It explains how employees respond to situations in which they feel they have received more/less than what they deserve.

A

d. It explains how employees respond to situations in which they feel they have received more/less than what they deserve.

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6
Q

Which of the following groups includes only examples of internal factors that determine the wage mix?
a. worth of the job and legal requirements
b. worth of the job, the compensation policy of the organization, and the cost of living
c. worth of the job, the cost of living, and legal requirements
d. worth of the job, employer’s ability and willingness to pay

A

d. worth of the job, employer’s ability and willingness to pay

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7
Q

Which job evaluation system groups jobs sufficiently alike with respect to duties and responsibilities and given a common name and common pay?
a. job classification system
b. job ranking system
c. point system
d. factor comparison system

A

a. job classification system

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8
Q

Which job evaluation system is typically used for pay equity purposes?
a. job classification system
b. job ranking system
c. point system
d. factor comparison system

A

d. factor comparison system

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes a “wage curve”?
a. the current pay rates for various jobs within a pay grade in relation to their company ranking
b. the relationship between the relative worth of an employee and that of their peers
c. the gradual increase in pay over time to an employee
d. the average wage in a rate range

A

a. the current pay rates for various jobs within a pay grade in relation to their company ranking

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10
Q

Which skill-based pay system encourages employees to develop lateral skills?
a. rate ranges
b. pay grades
c. broadbanding
d. points system

A

c. broadbanding

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11
Q

Which phrase best describes what is important when designing a benefits program?
a. focusing on one or two key elements
b. offering the cheapest program
c. making decisions independently of employees’ desires
d. fitting the unique demographics of the organization

A

d. fitting the unique demographics of the organization

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12
Q

Which of the following benefits include only the legal obligations of an employer?
a. Canada/Québec Pension Plans, Employment Insurance (EI), extended medical plans, and provincial healthcare
b. Canada/Québec Pension Plans, Employment Insurance (EI), and provincial healthcare
c. Canada/Québec Pension Plans, provincial healthcare, and paid sick leaves
d. Canada/Québec Pension Plans, Employment Insurance (EI), and extended medical plans

A

b. Canada/Québec Pension Plans, Employment Insurance (EI), and provincial healthcare

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13
Q

Which statement about “employment insurance” benefits is true?
a. They ensure that there is always employment in Canada.
b. They entitle all individuals who are unemployed to receive benefits.
c. They are an amount of money paid on a formula based on the number of hours worked.
d. They ensure that all claimants have income when they are not working.

A

c. They are an amount of money paid on a formula based on the number of hours worked.

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14
Q

Which term refers to a pension plan that is based on the amount of accumulated funds and how much those funds can purchase at the time of retirement?
a. defined retirement plan
b. defined contribution plan
c. defined compensation plan
d. defined benefit plan

A

b. defined contribution plan

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15
Q

Which of the following best describes an EAP?
a. provision of diagnosis and counselling, referrals for substance/addiction abuse, medical leaves, and financial and emotional assistance
b. provision of diagnosis, counselling and necessary treatment for substance/addiction abuse, emotional, financial, or family difficulties
c. diagnosis and counselling, financial and emotional assistance, and childcare and eldercare
d. diagnosis and counselling, referrals for substance/addiction abuse, medical leaves, and childcare and eldercare

A

b. provision of diagnosis, counselling and necessary treatment for substance/addiction abuse, emotional, financial, or family difficulties

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16
Q

Which term is used to indicate the amount of commitment and dedication an employee has toward the job and the organization?
a. employee teams
b. employee empowerment
c. employee engagement
d. employee satisfaction

A

c. employee engagement

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17
Q

Which is a critical leadership practice that focuses on engagement?
a. providing a work environment where people have little control over their work
b. providing work where employees have control over their work
c. providing a safe work environment, complying with applicable statutes and regulations, and refusing any unsafe work
d. ensuring that all employees are directed by their managers

A

b. providing work where employees have control over their work

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18
Q

Which is the best definition for an “occupational disease”?
a. an abnormal condition caused by exposure to environmental factors in the workplace
b. a cut or fracture
c. exposure to a substance relating to a particular occupation
d. an accident in the workplace

A

c. exposure to a substance relating to a particular occupation

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19
Q

The textbook lists health and safety duties and responsibilities. Who is responsible for complying with all laws and regulations?
a. employers only
b. joint health and safety committee
c. supervisors and employers
d. employers and employees

A

d. employers and employees

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20
Q

Workers’ compensation is legislated by each provincial government. Which of the following best describes “workers’ compensation”?
a. compensating workers who feel they have been discriminated against in the workplace
b. ensuring that any employee who sues his employer will be paid
c. providing financial benefits to injured workers or workers who become ill as a result of their work environment
d. compensating union members during periods of strike

A

c. providing financial benefits to injured workers or workers who become ill as a result of their work environment

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21
Q

What Is the current emphasis of workers’ compensation?
a. compensating workers who feel they have been discriminated against in the workplace
b. creating a safety-conscious environment intended to reduce the number of work-related accidents, disabilities, and diseases
c. helping injured workers return to the workplace or compensating their families
d. compensating union members during periods of strike
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A

b. creating a safety-conscious environment intended to reduce the number of work-related accidents, disabilities, and diseases

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22
Q

The success of an organization’s safety program is dependent on which of the following?
a. the HR department
b. managers of operating departments
c. senior management
d. employees

A

b. managers of operating departments

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23
Q

What is the key objective of a safety program?
a. to get employees to comply with the law
b. to discipline employees when a safety infraction occurs
c. to create awareness of safety requirements and the benefits of following all necessary processes
d. to ensure that all documentation is done correctly

A

c. to create awareness of safety requirements and the benefits of following all necessary processes

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24
Q

What is “WHMIS”?
a. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
b. a common information system used for labelling substances
c. product with two types of labels (supplier and workplace labels)
d. working with Safety Data Sheets and proper training

A

a. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

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25
Q

Which of the following is one of the things that employers can do to minimize and prevent domestic violence among their workers?
a. conduct a risk assessment
b. ignore any personal safety plan
c. wait a week before investigating any reports of violence
d. discourage employees from accessing any support, such as the employee assistance program

A

a. conduct a risk assessment

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26
Q

Which of the following best describes disability management?
a. regular exercise program, nutrition program, health program, and vacation planning
b. regular exercise program, nutrition program, health program, and financial planning
c. regular exercise program, vacation planning, and financial planning
d. integrated approach to managing disability-related benefits

A

d. integrated approach to managing disability-related benefits

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27
Q

Which statement best describes “management rights”?
a. Management rights are given to management to purchase stock options.
b. Management has the right to make decisions on how the business is run.
c. Management holds the rights to all designs from its employees.
d. Management rights are limited only to decisions regarding the hiring and firing of employees.

A

b. Management has the right to make decisions on how the business is run.

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28
Q

Which statement best describes “employee rights”?
a. Employees have expectations of unbiased treatment from employers.
b. Employees’ rights are given to employees to purchase stock options.
c. Employees have the right to make decisions on how the company is run.
d. Employees have the right to refuse unsafe work.

A

a. Employees have expectations of unbiased treatment from employers.

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29
Q

Which statement best describes where employer responsibilities and employee rights can collide?
a. point of duty
b. point of privacy
c. point of liability
d. point of rights

A

c. point of liability

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30
Q

Which of the following best describes “statutory rights”?
a. rights derived from contracts
b. rights that are given to employees
c. rights derived from the employer
d. rights derived from legislation

A

d. rights derived from legislation

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31
Q

Which of the following best illustrates an implied contract that is binding on the employer?
a. continuing to employ someone after a fixed-term contract has ended
b. stating in an employee manual that terminated employees have no appeal process
c. telling employees that depending on the business results of the company, their jobs may be in jeopardy
d. training managers about what to say to employees

A

a. continuing to employ someone after a fixed-term contract has ended

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32
Q

Which term refers to an employee’s right to fairness in proceedings in the handling of an employment matter?
a. statutory right
b. due process
c. progressive discipline
d. positive discipline

A

b. due process

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33
Q

Which legislation includes an expectation that employers must be reasonable in their use of any type of surveillance technique?
a. Canadian Human Rights Act
b. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
c. Employment Standards Act
d. Labour Relations Act

A

b. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

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34
Q

Which phrase best describes what employers must do to discipline employees for off-duty misconduct?
a. The employer must establish a direct link between the action and the impact on the company.
b. The employer must ensure that there are no derogatory comments.
c. The employer must keep the employee informed of actions.
d. The employer must inform the health and safety person.

A

a. The employer must establish a direct link between the action and the impact on the company.

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35
Q

What should be the first steps in any disciplinary action?
a. Follow due process.
b. Determine that there is a need for discipline.
c. Conduct an investigative interview.
d. Exercise progressive discipline.

A

b. Determine that there is a need for discipline.

36
Q

Which of the following is a typical first step in the progressive discipline process?
a. meeting with the employee to inform and counsel about the situation and the need to improve
b. sending the employee a written warning
c. suspending the employee
d. terminating the employee

A

a. meeting with the employee to inform and counsel about the situation and the need to improve

37
Q

Which system of discipline is based on the employee taking total responsibility for their conduct and correcting the problem?
a. progressive discipline
b. corrective discipline
c. positive discipline
d. constructive discipline

A

c. positive discipline

38
Q

Which steps best outline a progressive discipline approach?
a. establish cause for action, verbal warning, and suspension
b. coaching, verbal warning, suspension, and dismissal
c. meeting to discuss the situation and the need to improve, verbal warning, written warning, suspension, and dismissal
d. establish cause for action, verbal warning, written warning, suspension, and dismissal

A

c. meeting to discuss the situation and the need to improve, verbal warning, written warning, suspension, and dismissal

39
Q

What is one of the reasons organizations use career and outplacement services?
a. to protect the employee from dealing with trauma
b. to help when doing a mass layoff
c. to protect their brand
d. to ensure remaining employees are helped

A

c. to protect their brand

40
Q

Which statement best describes why managers do not take action to discipline their employees?
a. The manager failed to document earlier actions, so no record existed on which to base subsequent disciplinary action.
b. The manager believes that the person is doing good work.
c. The company encourages managers not to discipline employees.
d. The manager was told not to take action.

A

a. The manager failed to document earlier actions, so no record existed on which to base subsequent disciplinary action.

41
Q

Which term refers to a designated individual from whom employees may seek counsel for the resolution of their complaints?
a. mediator
b. chief executive officer
c. ombudsperson
d. hearing officer

A

c. ombudsperson

42
Q

In which type of workplace is alternative dispute resolution being used?
a. non-unionized organizations
b. unionized organizations
c. both unionized and non-unionized organizations
d. large organizations

A

a. non-unionized organizations

43
Q

Which of the following refers to the process whereby a decision is made outside the court system?
a. alternative dispute resolution
b. negotiation
c. mediation
d. arbitration

A

d. arbitration

44
Q

Which type of law governs labour relations?
a. employment standards legislation
b. occupational health and safety legislation
c. labour relations legislation
d. human rights legislation

A

c. labour relations legislation

45
Q

Which of the following establishes a “union shop”?
a. provision of the collective agreement that requires employees to become a member of the union and retain membership to retain employment
b. provision of the collective agreement that requires new employees to already be members of the union as a condition of being hired
c. provision of the collective agreement that allows employees to join or not join the union as a condition of their employment
d. provision of the collective agreement that allows employees not to join the union as a condition of their employment, although they must still pay union dues

A

a. provision of the collective agreement that requires employees to become a member of the union and retain membership to retain employment

46
Q

Which best describes the labour relations framework?
a. a framework that recognizes labour legislation
b. a framework that recognizes the relationship between the union, employer, and employee
c. laws and administrative rulings
d. a process to collectively bargain

A

b. a framework that recognizes the relationship between the union, employer, and employee

47
Q

What is the first step in a union organizing campaign?
a. employees sign membership cards
b. a secret ballot is held
c. employees contact a union
d. a union approaches an employer to meet with employees

A

c. employees contact a union

48
Q

Which best describes what an employer can do during a union organizing drive?
a. An employer can pay employees more money to prevent a union.
b. An employer can dismiss employees for unionizing.
c. An employer can threaten employees.
d. An employer can inform employees that they can deal directly with the employer on any issue.

A

d. An employer can inform employees that they can deal directly with the employer on any issue.

49
Q

Which best describes a “bargaining unit”?
a. a group of employees represented by 1 union for the purposes of collective bargaining and other union processes
b. a group of 2 or more employees with membership in 1 union
c. 1 employee with membership in 1 union
d. multiple groups in many different unions who may reasonably be grouped together for the purposes of a collective agreement

A

a. a group of employees represented by 1 union for the purposes of collective bargaining and other union processes

50
Q

Which best describes union “certification”?
a. acquiring the right to solicit members
b. acquiring the exclusive rights to be a union to represent the employees
c. presenting the labour relations board with the needed number of authorization cards
d. being granted access to the property by the employer

A

b. acquiring the exclusive rights to be a union to represent the employees

51
Q

Which term refers to a majority of union members indicating that they no longer want to be represented by a union?
a. collective bargaining
b. certification
c. decertification
d. prehearing votes

A

c. decertification

52
Q

Which statement best describes the impact of unionization on managers?
a. There is no real change.
b. Employees start paying union dues.
c. It can affect the ability of managers to make decisions about employees.
d. Office space must be cleared for the union.

A

c. It can affect the ability of managers to make decisions about employees.

53
Q

What is one of the main objectives of the Canadian Labour Congress?
a. helping to organize local unions
b. assisting local unions with negotiations
c. representing union members in their negotiations with management
d. influencing government policy

A

d. influencing government policy

54
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of the shop (union) steward?
a. providing protection for the employees
b. an employee acting in an official union capacity representing other union members in their relations with management
c. being employed by the union but not receiving extra pay
d. being the “person in the middle,” caught between conflicting groups and interests

A

b. an employee acting in an official union capacity representing other union members in their relations with management

55
Q

Which of the following is a paid labour official responsible for negotiating and administering the collective agreement and working to resolve union members’ problems?
a. business agent
b. union steward
c. shop steward
d. local union president

A

a. business agent

56
Q

What is the second step in the collective bargaining framework?
a. negotiating a collective agreement between labour and management
b. employer and union each select their bargaining teams
c. employer and union each take collective agreement to key decision makers
d. leveraging economic pressures to reach an agreement between labour and management

A

b. employer and union each select their bargaining teams

57
Q

What are a company’s primary sources of ideas and suggestions concerning changes needed in the next collective agreement?
a. managers
b. HR department and union stewards
c. union stewards
d. managers and all union members

A

a. managers

58
Q

Which of the following needs to be included in both the employer’s and the union’s bargaining strategies?
a. bargaining with only certain negotiators
b. separating issues into monetary and non-monetary
c. only proposals that the other party can easily agree to
d. some information about what might be supported

A

b. separating issues into monetary and non-monetary

59
Q

Which of the following best defines “bargaining zone”?
a. the provision in the collective agreement that requires union and management to bargain in certain locations or designated areas
b. the range where there is some overlap and where an agreement can be reached
c. the comfort level of the negotiators during the collective bargaining process
d. the issues that are to be negotiated in the current collective agreement

A

b. the range where there is some overlap and where an agreement can be reached

60
Q

Which action must a union local undertake before its members can go on strike?
a. Seek strike authorization (strike vote) from its membership.
b. Ensure that the current collective agreement has not expired.
c. Contact other unions for support (strike fund).
d. Contact the Labour Relations Board.

A

a. Seek strike authorization (strike vote) from its membership.

61
Q

Which of the following best describes a “lockout”?
a. when an employer closes its operation and denies the employees the opportunity to work
b. when the union is denied access to the employer’s property
c. when the union members picket and prevent other workers from entering the property
d. when a member of the bargaining committee is late arriving and is not permitted to enter into negotiations

A

a. when an employer closes its operation and denies the employees the opportunity to work

62
Q

Which of the following best describes “interest arbitration”?
a. mechanism that deals only with the interests of management
b. mechanism that deals only with the interests of the employees
c. mechanism that renews or establishes a collective agreement
d. mechanism that determines grievance procedures

A

c. mechanism that renews or establishes a collective agreement

63
Q

Which statement best describes “residual rights”?
a. The union’s authority is supreme in all areas not negotiated in the collective agreement.
b. The rights of the individual employees are negotiated in the collective agreement.
c. They are rights that have not been negotiated in the collective agreement.
d. Management has absolute authority on everything except what might be precluded by the collective agreement.

A

d. Management has absolute authority on everything except what might be precluded by the collective agreement.

64
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a grievance process?
a. a formal procedure that gives employees paid leave when there has been a death in their immediate family
b. a formal procedure that allows employees the right to air their grievance when they feel they have been treated unfairly
c. a formal process that provides the union with a way to handle a complaint that something within the collective agreement has been violated
d. a formal procedure that allows management to discipline employees for wrongdoing

A

c. a formal process that provides the union with a way to handle a complaint that something within the collective agreement has been violated

65
Q

What is the term for the final step in the grievance process?
a. certification
b. arbitration
c. decertification
d. written complaint

A

b. arbitration

66
Q

Which factors do arbitrators use when making a decision on a grievance?
a. wording in the collective agreement, bargaining history, residual rights, and the economic climate
b. testimony, evidence, wording in the collective agreement, and bargaining history
c. wording in the collective agreement, issue in dispute, testimony, and similar arbitral decisions and precedents
d. date the union was organized, date on the collective agreement, number of union members, and wording in the collective agreement

A

c. wording in the collective agreement, issue in dispute, testimony, and similar arbitral decisions and precedents

67
Q

what theory refers to “ Recognize both the employee’s work and the employee’s work in relation to the contributions of others”m

A

equity theory (adam, 1965)

68
Q

These actions relate to actions taken to restore equity, what type of inequity is it:
Change the perception of one’s own or the referent’s inputs and outcomes
Reduce inputs
Increase outcomes
Change the referent
Quit the job

A

Underpayment inequity

69
Q

These actions relate to actions taken to restore equity, what type of inequity is it:
Change the perception of one’s own or the referent’s inputs and outcomes
Change the referent

A

Overpayment inequity

70
Q

These actions relate to actions taken to restore equity, what type of inequity is it:
Continue contributing current levels of inputs to receive current levels of outcomes
No changes are made to inputs or outcomes

A

Equity

71
Q

(1) Perceived underpayment may have a negative effect on motivation (2) Overpayment might lead to unintended motivational effect. these are practical implications of that theory?

A

Equity theory

72
Q

Compensation strategy
Worth of a job
Job evaluation
Employee’s performance
Employer’s ability to pay
are what factors for determining compensation?

A

Internal Factors

73
Q

Economy
Labour-market conditions
Wage rates in specific geographic areas
Cost of living
Collective bargaining
Legal requirements
are what factors for determining compensation?

A

External Factors

74
Q

Jobs are compared to one another based on relative worth and ranked. This is what type of job evaluation system?

A

Job Ranking

75
Q

Jobs sufficiently alike with respect to duties and responsibilities are grouped and will have a common name and common pay.
Ex: National Occupation Classification (NOC). This is what type of job evaluation system?

A

Job classification

76
Q

Points are assigned based on skill, mental effort, physical effort, responsibility, and working conditions. This is what type of job evaluation system?

A

Point system

77
Q

Factors of the jobs to be evaluated are compared against the compensable factors of key jobs within the organization that serve as the job evaluation scale.
Same factors as point system
This is what type of job evaluation system?

A

Factor comparison system

78
Q

What are the steps for determining wage rates? (2 steps)

A

(1) determine what is out there (salary surveys, collecting survey data), (2) choose method to determine wages (pay grade, wage curve)

79
Q

Canada and Québec Pension Plans (CPP/QPP)
Employment Insurance (EI)
Provincial hospital and medical services
Leaves without pay
Other required benefits
these are what?

A

Benefits required by law

80
Q

“Workers can receive benefits in the form of cash or wage loss payments if absent due to work-related injury or serious illness.” this is what type of compensation?

A

Workers compensation

81
Q

Job redesign, family-friendly HR policies, stress management programs, work life balance and wellness programs. These are what type of strategies?

A

Organizational strategies for managing stress

82
Q
  • rights that derive from legislation: what right?
  • rights that derive from contracts
  • right to be heard, especially during disciplinary process
A

Statutory Rights, Contractual Rights, Due Process,

83
Q

(1) Punishment to train and correct, (2) Set of rules to regulate behaviour (3)Constructive approach used to improve performance or change behaviour. these define what?

A

discipline

84
Q

Why Managers May Fail to Take Disciplinary Action? (2)

A

Lack of previous documentation
Lack of support from senior management

85
Q
A

Business (14 decks)

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