2016 Flashcards
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was tripped from 100% power due to degrading condenser vacuum.
• Condenser vacuum degraded to 9.0 inches HgA and stabilized.
• 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip, has been implemented.
In this condition, Main Feedwater Pumps _____(1)_____ available for use, and maintaining
SG pressures in their normal post-trip band _____(2)_____ be accomplished using only
SBCS.
A. 1. ARE
2. CAN
B. 1. ARE
2. can NOT
C. 1. are NOT
2. CAN
D. 1. are NOT
2. can NOT
A
A. Correct. Since Main Feedwater Pumps don’t trip until 13.5 inches HgA, they are still available and
although SBCS valves 1001-1006 are locked out due to the degraded vacuum, SBCS 1007-1008
are still available and can maintain SG pressure in the normal post-trip band.
B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the SBCS interlock actuates at 5.5 inches
backpressure, however SBCS valves 1007 and 1008 are still available and will maintain SG
pressures in their normal post-trip pressure band.
C. First part is plausible as Main Feed Pumps do trip on low vacuum, however not until vacuum
degrades to 13.5 inches HgA. Second part is correct.
D. First part is plausible as Main Feed Pumps do trip on low vacuum, however not until vacuum
degrades to 13.5 inches HgA. Second part is plausible since the SBCS interlock actuates at 5.5
inches backpressure, however SBCS valves 1007 and 1008 are still available and will maintain SG
pressures in their normal post-trip pressure band.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was tripped from 100% power due to a Pressurizer Safety lifting and sticking
open.
• SPTAs have been performed and the CRS has entered 40EP-9EO03, LOCA.
• The RCS is 35°F subcooled and stable.
• Indicated Pressurizer level is 90% and slowly rising.
• Both SGs are 15% NR and slowly rising, being fed from AFB-P01.
• QSPDS shows two HJTCs are uncovered in the vessel head (41% level in the head).
• Containment temperature is 150°F and slowly rising.
• Containment High Range Area Radiation Monitors RU-148 and RU-149 indicate
6.5 x 102 mR/hr and slowly rising.
The CRS directs you to determine whether or not HPSI throttle criteria is currently satisfied,
per Standard Appendix 2, HPSI Throttle Criteria.
HPSI throttle criteria…
A. IS currently satisfied.
B. IS NOT satisfied due to voiding in the vessel head.
C. IS NOT satisfied due to insufficient level in the SGs.
D. IS NOT satisfied due to insufficient RCS subcooling.
A
A. Correct. All criteria are satisfied per SA 2.
B. Plausible as there is voiding in the upper head, however level in the upper head needs to be 16%
or more to throttle HPSI, therefore with level in the upper head is at 67%, inventory is sufficient.
C. Plausible as level in the SGs is 30% less than the normal post trip SG level control band, however
since level is being restored, it meets HPSI throttle criteria.
D. Plausible since subcooling would be insufficient if containment conditions were harsh, and it is
plausible that containment conditions are harsh since temperature and radiation levels are
significantly higher than normal levels, however containment temperature and radiation levels are
below the threshold for declaring harsh containment conditions.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a failed closed Economizer Isolation valve on
SG #1.
• SPTAs have just been completed.
• The following conditions exist:
o Pressurizer level is 10% and lowering.
o Pressurizer pressure is 1700 psia and lowering.
o The 1A and 2A RCPs have been tripped.
o SG #1 level is 50% WR and rising.
o SG #2 level is 15% NR and rising.
o RCS subcooling is 20°F subcooled and slowly degrading.
o Containment pressure is 2.5 psig and slowly rising.
The CRS should enter _____(1)_____ and the crew should _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. 40EP-9EO03, LOCA
2. maintain forced circulation with 1B and 2B RCPs
B. 1. 40EP-9EO03, LOCA
2. trip the 1B and 2B RCPs and verify natural
circulation
C. 1. 40EP-9EO05, ESD
2. maintain forced circulation with 1B and 2B RCPs
D. 1. 40EP-9EO05, ESD
2. trip the 1B and 2B RCPs and verify natural
circulation
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since two pumps were correctly tripped due to
remaining below the SIAS setpoint, however since RCS subcooling has dropped below 24°F
subcooled, the remaining RCPs need to also be tripped.
B. Correct.
C. ESD is plausible since Pressurizer level and pressure would lower and there would be a drastic
difference between SG levels, however RCS subcooling would be abnormally high in an ESD
instead of low. Second part is plausible since two pumps were correctly tripped due to remaining
below the SIAS setpoint, however since RCS subcooling has dropped below 24°F subcooled, the
remaining RCPs need to also be tripped.
D. ESD is plausible since Pressurizer level and pressure would lower and there would be a drastic
difference between SG levels, however RCS subcooling would be abnormally high in an ESD
instead of low. Second part is correct.
Following a large break LOCA, Standard Appendix 100, Hot Leg Injection, is implemented in
order to _____(1)_____ and should NOT be initiated until a MINIMUM of _____(2)_____ have
elapsed since the start of the LOCA.
A. 1. minimize the potential for boron precipitation which could restrict flow through the
core
2. 2 hours
B. 1. minimize the potential for boron precipitation which could restrict flow through the
core
2. 3 hours
C. 1. ensure sufficient boron exists in the core to prevent core restart as RCS temperature
lowers
2. 2 hours
D. 1. ensure sufficient boron exists in the core to prevent core restart as RCS temperature
lowers
2. 3 hours
A
A. Correct.
B. First part is correct. 3 hours is plausible since hot leg injection must be initiated no later than 3
hours have elapsed since the LOCA, however the minimum wait time to initiate is 2 hours.
C. First part is plausible since RCS temperature will lower which can result in reduced SDM, however
the reason for hot leg injection is to minimize boron precipitation. Second part is correct.
D. First part is plausible since RCS temperature will lower which can result in reduced SDM, however
the reason for hot leg injection is to minimize boron precipitation. 3 hours is plausible since hot leg
injection must be initiated no later than 3 hours have elapsed since the LOCA, however the
minimum wait time to initiate is 2 hours.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 was operating at 100% when RCP 1A experienced a sheared shaft.
1. Based on these conditions, the FIRST RPS trip signal received will be…
2. During the performance of SPTAs, if RCS inventory and/or pressure control is challenged
(but adequate RCP NPSH remains), the crew should also trip RCP…
A. 1. Low DNBR
2. 2A
B. 1. Low DNBR
2. 2B
C. 1. Low RC Flow SG 1
2. 2A
D. 1. Low RC Flow SG 1
2. 2B
A. First part is plausible since the low DNBR trip will be received, however it will not be calculated and
actuated until after the low RC flow trip comes in. Second part is correct.
B. First part is plausible since the low DNBR trip will be received, however it will not be calculated and
actuated until after the low RC flow trip comes in. Second part is plausible since a loop 2 RCP will
be tripped, however to avoid RCP bearing damage the correct pump to trip is 2A.
C. Correct. The reactor will trip on low RC flow as this will occur virtually immediately and low DNBR
is a calculated value which would then result in a trip signal, however it will not be the first trip
signal in this case. RCP 2A would be the next pump to be tripped since they are in opposite loops
and RCP 2A running solely in conjunction with 1B can result in bearing damage.
D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since a loop 2 RCP will be tripped, however to avoid
RCP bearing damage the correct pump to trip is 2A.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 is operating at 100% power, MOC.
• Auto makeup to the VCT is in progress.
Which of the following failures (individually) would cause the auto makeup to the VCT to stop?
1. VCT level transmitter, CHN-LT-227, fails to 100%
2. CHN-FIC-210X, RMW to VCT flow controller, fails to 100% output
3. CHN-FIC-210Y, Boric Acid Makeup to VCT flow controller, fails to 100% output
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. 1 and 3 ONLY
D. 2 and 3 ONLY
D
A. Plausible since high level in the VCT will stop auto make up, however LT-226 controls the auto
make up signal, not LT-227.
B. Plausible since 210X failing to 100% output will stop auto make up, however 210Y failing to 100%
will also stop auto make up. The system is designed such that a flow deviation of +/- 10 gpm will
stop auto makeup to prevent an inadvertent dilution or boration during auto makeup operations.
C. Plausible since high level in the VCT will stop auto make up, however LT-226 controls the auto
make up signal, not LT-227. 210Y failing to 100% is correct.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is in MODE 5
• Train ‘A’ LPSI Pump is being used for SDC
• Train ‘B’ LPSI Pump suction is still aligned to the RWT.
Subsequently:
• 5B06A, Leg 1-3 RAS ‘A’ Leg 2-4, annunciates (top and bottom halves).
• RWT level is 90% and stable.
What is the impact to SDC, and how should the crew restore SDC flow per 40AO-9ZZ17,
Inadvertent PPS-ESFAS Actuations?
A. The ‘A’ LPSI Pump will trip resulting in a loss of SDC. Restore SDC by placing Train
‘B’ SDC in service.
B. The ‘A’ LPSI Pump will trip resulting in a loss of SDC. Restore SDC by overriding and
restarting the ‘A’ LPSI Pump.
C. The ‘A’ LPSI Pump will cavitate resulting in degraded SDC. Restore SDC by placing
Train ‘B’ SDC in service.
D. The ‘A’ LPSI Pump will cavitate resulting in degraded SDC. Restore SDC by
overriding and closing Containment Sump to SI Train A valves SIA-UV-673 and SIAUV-
674.
B
A. Plausible since the ‘A’ LPSI Pump will trip causing a loss of SDC, and transitioning to Train ‘B’ per
the normal operating SDC procedure is a potential option, however the correct action is to override
and restart the pump per 40AO-9ZZ17 .
B. Correct.
C. Plausible that the ‘A’ LPSI Pump would cavitate since the suction valves from the containment
sump open on a RAS signal, however the pump will trip.
D. Plausible that the ‘A’ LPSI Pump would cavitate since the suction valves from the containment
sump open on a RAS signal, however the pump will trip.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• Both Nuclear Cooling Water Pumps have tripped on 86 lockout.
• 40AO-9ZZ03, Loss of Cooling Water, Appendix A, Cross-Connect EW to NC, is in
progress.
The RO will direct the AO to throttle EWA-HCV-53, SDCHX A Outlet Isolation, until cooling
flow to each RCP has been restored to a MINIMUM of _____(1)_____ or EW system flow
lowers to _____(2)_____, whichever happens first.
A. 1. 163 gpm
2. 8500 gpm
B. 1. 163 gpm
2. 13,800 gpm
C. 1. 491 gpm
2. 8500 gpm
D. 1. 491 gpm
2. 13,800 gpm
C
A. First part is plausible because this is the minimum required NC flow to the RCP HP Coolers,
Thrust Bearing Lube Oil Coolers, and Seal Coolers, however the minimum flow to clear the low NC
flow alarm is 491 gpm.
B. First part is plausible because this is the minimum required NC flow to the RCP HP Coolers,
Thrust Bearing Lube Oil Coolers, and Seal Coolers, however the minimum flow to clear the low NC
flow alarm is 491 gpm. Second part is plausible because 13,800 gpm is the low end of the normal
EW system flow for manual EW Train A operations.
C. Correct.
D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because 13,800 gpm is the low end of the normal
EW system flow for manual EW Train A operations.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• RCN-HS-100, Pressure Control Channel X/Y Selector, is selected to Channel X.
Subsequently:
• RCN-PT-100X, Pressurizer Control Channel X, failed to 100%.
With no operator action, RCN-PIC-100, Pressurizer Pressure Control, output will go to
_____(1)_____ and Steam Bypass Control System _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. 0%
2. Auto Modulate Permissive Light will illuminate
B. 1. 0%
2. Auto Modulation Setpoint will lower by approximately 220 psig
C. 1. 100%
2. Auto Modulate Permissive Light will illuminate
D. 1. 100%
2. Auto Modulation Setpoint will lower by approximately 220 psig
D
A. First part plausible that PIC-100 output would go to 0% since the system senses high pressure and
PIC-100 controls proportional heater output, however 0% output on PIC-100 will produce
maximum heating from the proportional heaters. Second part is plausible since auto modulate
permissive signals would be received on a high failure of PT-100Y, however this is not the case if
PT-100X fails high.
B. First part plausible that PIC-100 output would go to 0% since the system senses high pressure and
PIC-100 controls proportional heater output, however 0% output on PIC-100 will produce
maximum heating from the proportional heaters. Second part is correct.
C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since auto modulate permissive signals would be
received on a high failure of PT-100Y, however this is not the case if PT-100X fails high.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was operating at 100% power.
• Reactor Power Cutback System was out of service for testing.
• A Main Turbine trip occurred.
• The Reactor Protection System failed to trip the reactor, resulting in an ATWS.
How will the Supplemental Protection System (SPS) respond to trip the reactor?
SPS will open…
1. Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers
2. L03 and L10 supply breakers
3. CEDMCS MG Set output contactors
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. 1 and 3 ONLY
D. 2 and 3 ONLY
C
A. Plausible since the RTCBs do open and on an ATWS, however CEDMCS MG Set output
contactors also open on an SPS signal.
B. Plausible since this is the manual action taken by the crew in the event of an ATWS, however SPS
does not open these breakers automatically.
C. Correct.
D. Plausible since the CEDMCS MG Set output contactors do open on an SPS signal, and L03 and
L10 breakers are manually opened by the crew in response to an ATWS, however L03 and L10
are not opened by SPS.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power, MOC.
• A SGTL is in progress on SG #1.
• RU-139, Main Steam Line – SG #1, is in HIGH ALARM.
• RU-141, Condenser Vacuum /Gland Seal Exhaust, is in HIGH ALARM.
• Both alarms have been confirmed to be valid.
Per 74AL-9SQ01, Radiation Monitoring System Alarm Validation and Response, the crew
will _____(1)_____ in response to the high alarm on RU-139 and will _____(2)_____ in
response to the high alarm on RU-141.
A. 1. secure blowdown from SG #1
2. perform 40DP-9ZZ14, Contaminated Water
Management
B. 1. secure blowdown from SG #1
2. ensure the Post Filter Mode Select Switch, is in the
THRU FILTER MODE
C. 1. ensure AFA-P01 is not running
2. perform 40DP-9ZZ14, Contaminated Water
Management
D. 1. ensure AFA-P01 is not running
2. ensure the Post Filter Mode Select Switch, is in the
THRU FILTER MODE
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since this action is directed in the Excessive RCS
Leakrate (for SGTL) AOP and is a logical action to take in response to high activity in the main
steam line, however this is not directed in the RM ARP.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since use of AFA-P01 with a SGTL in progress creates a direct release to the
environment, however this action is not directed in the RM ARP. Second part is plausible since
this action is directed in the Excessive RCS Leakrate (for SGTL) AOP and is a logical action to
take in response to high activity in the main steam line, however this is not directed in the RM
ARP.
D. First part is plausible since use of AFA-P01 with a SGTL in progress creates a direct release to the
environment, however this action is not directed in the RM ARP. Second part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a loss of both Main Feedwater Pumps.
• AFA-P01 and AFB-P01 are unavailable for use.
• The CO has started AFN-P01 and commenced feeding both SGs.
Subsequently:
• An inadvertent Train ‘A’ SIAS occurred.
• The CO has taken the AFN-P01 handswitch to the “START” position one time.
AFN-P01…
A. is running and feeding both SGs.
B. is running, but not feeding either SG due to the Main Feedwater Block Valves
losing power.
C. is NOT running. The handswitch must be taken to “STOP” then “START” to start
the pump.
D. is NOT running. The pump can be started solely by taking the handswitch
directly to “START”.
Proposed Answer:
C
A. Plausible as this would normally start AFN, however the normal starting circuit is blocked due to
the inadvertent SIAS. Since AFN was initially lined up to feed, feeding would recommence if AFN
was running.
B. Plausible as this would normally start AFN, however the normal starting circuit is blocked due to
the inadvertent SIAS. Plausible that the SG would not be feeding since SIAS does kill power to
the block valves, however those valves fail as is.
C. Correct. Taking the handswitch to stop overrides the SIAS stop signal and taking the handswitch
back to start will start the pump.
D. Plausible as the pump will need to be manually started following the SIAS signal, however it must
be taken to stop first in order to start the pump.
- During a station blackout, the PREFERRED Class 4kV Bus to align an SBOG to is
________ . - Aligning the SBOG to the preferred bus within one hour of the blackout should provide
enough electrical capacity to satisfy the coping time of ________ hours.
A. 1. PBA-S03
2. 4
B. 1. PBA-S03
2. 16
C. 1. PBB-S04
2. 4
D. 1. PBB-S04
2. 16
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since 4 hours used to be the blackout coping time at
PVNGS, however modifications have increased that time to 16 hours.
B. Correct.
C. Plausible that the SBOG would be aligned to PBB-S04 since it is the fire hardened class bus and
alignment to PBB-S04 is allowed, however PBA-S03 is preferred since energizing the battery
chargers on train A ensures continued availability of the steam driven aux feedwater pump.
Second part is plausible since 4 hours used to be the blackout coping time at PVNGS, however
modifications have increased that time to 16 hours.
D. Plausible that the SBOG would be aligned to PBB-S04 since it is the fire hardened class bus and
alignment to PBB-S04 is allowed, however PBA-S03 is preferred since energizing the battery
chargers on train A ensures continued availability of the steam driven aux feedwater pump.
Second part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of off-site power.
• The crew is verifying natural circulation has been established.
As natural circulation flow develops, the crew should expect to see loop ΔT indicating
_____(1)_____ 65°F and should expect a delay of approximately _____(2)_____ before the
RCS temperature response of feeding and steaming adjustments can be verified.
A. 1. less than
2. 1 to 2 minutes
B. 1. less than
2. 5 to 15 minutes
C. 1. greater than
2. 1 to 2 minutes
D. 1. greater than
2. 5 to 15 minutes
B
A. First part is correct. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since frequent adjustments of
steaming and feeding are needed when controlling in manual (as is the case in a LOOP/LOFC) in
order to maintain parameters within post-trip control bands, however in natural circulation
conditions, the plant response to these adjustments will not be seen for ~ 5 to 15 minutes.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since the driving head in natural circulation is developed by the difference in
density between the hot and cold legs, therefore a higher delta-T than with forced circulation is
plausible, however delta-T must be < 65°F (full power delta-T) in natural circulation conditions.
Second part is plausible since frequent adjustments of steaming and feeding are needed when
controlling in manual (as is the case in a LOOP/LOFC) in order to maintain parameters within posttrip
control bands, however in natural circulation conditions, the plant response to these
adjustments will not be seen for ~ 5 to 15 minutes.
D. First part is plausible since the driving head in natural circulation is developed by the difference in
density between the hot and cold legs, therefore a higher delta-T than with forced circulation is
plausible, however delta-T must be < 65°F (full power delta-T) in natural circulation conditions.
Second part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• Inverter PNC-N13 Bypass Disconnect Switch is in the Static Switch to Load position.
• The supply breaker to inverter PNC-N13 was inadvertently opened at PKC-M43.
Based on these conditions, PNC-D27 will…
A. NOT automatically align to its alternate power supply. Power can be restored by
manually pressing the Reverse Transfer pushbutton.
B. Automatically align to its alternate power supply and will automatically transfer back
to its normal source when the inverter is re-energized.
C. NOT automatically align to its alternate power supply. Power can be restored by
manually placing the Bypass Disconnect Switch to the Bypass Switch to Load
position.
D. Automatically align to its alternate power supply and can be manually realigned to
its normal source when the inverter is re-energized by pressing the Forward
Transfer pushbutton.
D
A. Plausible that it will NOT auto align to the alternate source since unit 1 does not have static
switches with automatic switching capabilities. Also, the examinee may very well think that the
reverse transfer pushbutton reverses the last transfer, which would realign the bus to the normal
source.
B. Plausible since it will auto transfer to the alternate source, however it will not auto transfer back to
the normal source.
C. Plausible that it will NOT auto align to the alternate source since unit 1 does not have static
switches with automatic switching capabilities. Also plausible that the transfer would not
automatically happen since the bypass disconnect switch is in the STATIC (meaning not moving)
position.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a complete loss of feed water.
• A fault on PKA-M41 has caused the ‘A’ Battery Charger Output Breaker,
PKA-M4104, to trip.
• AFA-P01 and AFB-P01 are unavailable for use.
In order to start Auxiliary Feedwater Pump AFN-P01, the crew must dispatch an AO to
manually _____(1)_____ and once AFN-P01 has been started, feed flow to both SGs
_____(2)_____ .
A. 1. open AFN-P01 Suction Valves HV-1 and HV-4
2. can be controlled from the control room
B. 1. open AFN-P01 Suction Valves HV-1 and HV-4
2. must be controlled via manual valve operation in
the field
C. 1. align AFN-P01 control power to the alternate source
2. can be controlled from the control room
D. 1. align AFN-P01 control power to the alternate source
2. must be controlled via manual valve operation in
the field
C
A. First part is plausible since HV-1 and HV-4 must be open to start AFN-P01 and both valves are
train ‘A’ motor operated valves, however the control power is AC. Second part is plausible since
AFA would require manual valve operation in the field to feed the SGs, however the feed valves
from AFN-P01 would still be able to be controlled from the control room.
B. First part is plausible since HV-1 and HV-4 must be open to start AFN-P01 and both valves are
train ‘A’ motor operated valves, however the control power is AC. Second part is correct.
C. Correct.
D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since AFA would require manual valve operation in
the field to feed the SGs, however the feed valves from AFN-P01 would still be able to be
controlled from the control room.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• There was a leak in the Nuclear Cooling Water System header which resulted in a
complete loss of NC.
• Train ‘A’ Essential Cooling Water has been cross-connected to NC per 40AO-9ZZ03,
Loss of Cooling Water.
1. Which of the following identifies the ESFAS signal that will automatically close EWA-UV-
65 and EWA-UV-145, Cross-Tie Valves to/from Nuclear Cooling Water?
2. What is the purpose of these valves closing?
A. 1. SIAS
2. To ensure Containment Isolation is maintained
during accident conditions.
B. 1. SIAS
2. To ensure adequate cooling flow to the SDCHX
during accident conditions.
C. 1. CSAS
2. To ensure Containment Isolation is maintained
during accident conditions.
D. 1. CSAS
2. To ensure adequate cooling flow to the SDCHX
during accident conditions.
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the NC system is divorced from the EW system
on the SIAS, however containment isolation is maintained by either the CIAS or CSAS signals.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since CSAS does isolate NC valves to containment, however SIAS closes
the EW-NC cross-tie valves. Second part is plausible since the NC system is divorced from the
EW system on the SIAS, however containment isolation is maintained by either the CIAS or CSAS
signals.
D. First part is plausible since CSAS does isolate NC valves to containment, however SIAS closes
the EW-NC cross-tie valves. Second part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 tripped from 100% power due to a seismic event.
• ADVs are being used to maintain SG pressures in their normal post-trip bands.
Subsequently:
• A complete loss of Instrument Air occurred in the Turbine Building.
1. Due to the loss of Instrument Air, ADVs will ________ .
2. When backup nitrogen is aligned, the ADVs can be operated for a MINIMUM of ________ .
A. 1. remain open due to backup nitrogen automatically
aligning to the ADVs
2. 2 hours
B. 1. remain open due to backup nitrogen automatically
aligning to the ADVs
2. 13.3 hours
C. 1. drift closed until backup nitrogen is manually
aligned to the ADVs
2. 2 hours
D. 1. drift closed until backup nitrogen is manually
aligned to the ADVs
2. 13.3 hours
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since 2 hours is the amount of time the ADVs would
remain operational following a loss of DC power, however on a loss of IA, there will be 13.3 hours
of operational time.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since the ADV does fail closed on a loss of instrument air, and this would be
the correct failure method if nitrogen had to be manually aligned, however nitrogen is automatically
aligned keeping the ADV in its current position on the loss of IA. Second part is plausible since 2
hours is the amount of time the ADVs would remain operational following a loss of DC power,
however on a loss of IA, there will be 13.3 hours of operational time.
D. First part is plausible since the ADV does fail closed on a loss of instrument air, and this would be
the correct failure method if nitrogen had to be manually aligned, however nitrogen is automatically
aligned keeping the ADV in its current position on the loss of IA.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 is operating at 2% power.
• CEAs are being withdrawn for a power ascension.
• On the last CEA pull, Regulating Group 4 CEA 18 continued to withdraw after releasing
the Withdraw/Insert Switch on B04.
• CEDMCS Mode Selector Switch was placed in Standby and CEA 18 stopped moving.
• CEA 18 stopped moving at 64” withdrawn.
• All other Regulating Group 4 CEAs are 56.5” withdrawn.
• I&C was able to quickly determine and correct the issue with CEA 18.
1. Per 40AO-9ZZ11, CEA Malfunctions, the crew will restore group alignment
by _____(1)_____ .
2. Per LCO 3.1.5, CEA Alignment, Condition A, the two-hour completion time for re-aligning
CEA 18 starts _____(2)_____ was >6.6 inches from the rest of Group 4.
A. 1. inserting CEA 18 to within 6.6”of Regulating Group 4
2. the moment CEA 18
B. 1. inserting CEA 18 to within 6.6” of Regulating Group 4
2. no more than two hours after CEA 18
C. 1. withdrawing the other 7 Regulating Group 4 CEAs to
within 6.6” of CEA 18
2. the moment CEA 18
D. 1. withdrawing the other 7 Regulating Group 4 CEAs to
within 6.6” of CEA 18
2. no more than two hours after CEA 18
A
A. Correct.
B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since LCO 3.1.7, Regulating CEA Insertion Limits,
contains a note stating “This LCO is not applicable while conducting SR 3.1.5.3 or for up to 2
hours following a reactor power cutback”.
C. First part is plausible since Appendix I, CEA Realignment, allows for moving the non-affected
CEAs to realign all CEAs to within 6.6” of each other, and since a power ascension is in progress,
it would make sense to continue moving rods out instead of in, however this is only directed if the
affected CEA cannot be moved. Compliance with LCO 3.1.5 is the correct reason for the CEA
realignment. Second part is correct.
D. First part is plausible since Appendix I, CEA Realignment, allows for moving the non-affected
CEAs to realign all CEAs to within 6.6” of each other, and since a power ascension is in progress,
it would make sense to continue moving rods out instead of in, however this is only directed if the
affected CEA cannot be moved. Second part is plausible since LCO 3.1.7, Regulating CEA
Insertion Limits, contains a note stating “This LCO is not applicable while conducting SR 3.1.5.3 or
for up to 2 hours following a reactor power cutback”.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 has tripped from 100% power.
• A boration is required to meet Reactivity Control acceptance criteria in SPTAs.
Assuming depressurizing the RCS for HPSI injection is NOT desired, which ONE of the
following conditions or failures would require the use of local manual valve operation in order
to borate the RCS?
A. Refueling Water Tank level of 65%.
B. A loss of BOTH Boric Acid Makeup Pumps.
C. Boric Acid Flow Controller CHN-FIC-210Y fails to zero output.
D. Makeup to CHRG PMPS (VCT Bypass) CHN-UV-527 seized closed.
A
A. Correct.
B. Plausible since the normal boration flowpath utilizes at least one Boric Acid Makeup Pump,
however in this condition a boration may still be performed using Appendix 103-D using CHE-HV-
536, and all actions can be taken from the control room.
C. Plausible since the normal boration flowpath goes through CHN-FV-210Y (controlled by CHN-FIC-
210Y), however if this controller is not available, the boration may still be achieved from the control
room using Appendix 103-D using CHE-HV-536.
D. Plausible since the normal boration flowpath goes through CHN-UV-527, however if this controller
is not available, the boration may still be achieved from the control room using Appendix 103-D
using CHE-HV-536.
Given the following conditions:
• A reactor startup following a refueling outage is in progress on Unit 2.
• The reactor is at the ECP -1000 pcm position.
Subsequently:
• The Channel ‘A’ Log Safety Channel NI failed low due to a transmitter failure.
Based on the listed conditions, what LCO actions, if any, must be taken in response to this
failure?
‘A. Immediately determine RCS boron concentration per LCO 3.3.12, Boron Dilution
Alarm System.
B. Immediately suspend positive reactivity additions per LCO 3.9.2, Nuclear
Instrumentation.
C. Place the applicable RPS bistables in bypass or trip within one hour per LCO 3.3.1,
RPS Instrumentation – Operating.
D. Place the applicable RPS bistables in bypass or trip within one hour per LCO 3.3.2,
RPS Instrumentation – Shutdown.
Proposed Answer:
D
A. Plausible since LCO 3.3.12 is applicable in MODE 3 and a failure of an NI will result in LCO 3.3.12
not being met, however the NIs which are required by LCO 3.3.12 are the startup NIs, not the log
power NIs.
B. Plausible since LCO 3.9.2 requires two NIs to be operable, however LCO 3.9.2 is only applicable
in MODE 6.
C. Plausible since this is the correct action to take, however LCO 3.3.1 is only applicable in MODEs 1
and 2 and at the -1000 pcm position, the unit is in MODE 3.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 50% power.
• Main Condenser vacuum is 7.0 inches HgA and slowly degrading.
• The CRS has entered 40AO-9ZZ07, Loss of Condenser Vacuum.
What action should the CRS direct and what is the reason for this action?
The CRS should direct a…
A. Reactor trip due to the imminent loss of both Main Feedwater Pumps.
B. Reactor trip due to the inability of SBCS to accommodate a load rejection at this power
level.
C. Main Turbine trip to prevent damage to the Main Condenser due to the degrading
vacuum.
D. Main Turbine trip due to the ability of the Reactor Power Cutback System and RCS to
accommodate a turbine trip from this power level.
B
A. Plausible since the MFPs do trip on degraded vacuum, however the main turbine will trip first at
7.5” which will result in the reactor tripping on high RCS pressure within ~ 10 seconds of the
turbine trip, therefore the loss of both main feedwater pumps will not happen until after the reactor
trips on high RCS pressure.
B. Correct. Each SBCS valve can accommodate ~ 8% steam load and with only 2 SBCS valves
available, a turbine trip would result in the reactor tripping on high RCS pressure and challenge
primary relief valves.
C. Plausible since the condenser may incur damage due to degrading vacuum, however a turbine trip
with only 2 SBCS valves available at 50% power will challenge primary relief valves.
D. Plausible since the RPCB system would be able to accommodate a load rejection from this power
level, however RPCB is taken out of service at < 74% power, therefore a turbine trip at this level
would result in a high RCS pressure reactor trip.
Given the following conditions:
• A leak has occurred on a Waste Gas Decay Tank due to a crack in the tank wall.
• The waste gas is escaping to outside atmosphere through the Plant Vent.
Before the waste gas exits through the Plant Vent, the waste gas will be monitored by
Radiation Monitor _____(1)_____ and will be filtered by _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. RU-12, Waste Gas Decay Tank Monitor
2. GRN-F01, Gaseous Discharge Filter
B. 1. RU-12, Waste Gas Decay Tank Monitor
2. HRN-J01A/B, Radwaste Building Normal AFUs
C. 1. RU-15, Waste Gas System Area Combined
Ventilation Exhaust Monitor
2. GRN-F01, Gaseous Discharge Filter
D. 1. RU-15, Waste Gas System Area Combined
Ventilation Exhaust Monitor
2. HRN-J01A/B, Radwaste Building Normal AFUs
D
A. First part is plausible since RU-12 does monitor WGDT releases, however only during a normal
WGDT release. Second part is plausible since the Gaseous Discharge Filter does filter WGDT
release gas, however only during a normal release.
B. First part is plausible since RU-12 does monitor WGDT releases, however only during a normal
WGDT release. Second part is correct.
C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the Gaseous Discharge Filter does filter WGDT
release gas, however only during a normal release.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 was tripped from 100% power due to a large break LOCA.
• On the trip, offsite power was lost.
• SPTAs have been completed.
• 40EP-9EO03, LOCA, has been entered.
• Containment temperature is 200°F and slowly rising.
• RCS pressure is currently 500 psia and stable.
• CET temperature is 530°F and stable.
• RCS Thot is 515°F and stable.
• QSPDS CET subcooling indicates 63°F superheat and stable.
• QSPDS RCS subcooling indicates 48°F superheat and stable.
Based on the current conditions, the crew should use _____(1)_____ to determine current
subcooling and determine that core cooling is _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. QSPDS subcooling
2. adequate
B. 1. QSPDS subcooling
2. inadequate
C. 1. Standard Appendix 2, Figures
2. adequate
D. 1. Standard Appendix 2, Figures
2. inadequate
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible if RCS subcooling is used since RCS subcooling is
less than the harsh containment value of 60°F superheat to determine adequate core cooling,
however in natural circulation, CET subcooling is the correct parameter to use.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since subcooling is determined using appendix 2, and appendix 2 is the
required tool to use when RCS pressure is < 350 psia, however at 500 psia QSPDS subcooling is
the correct tool to determine subcooling. Second part is plausible if RCS subcooling is used since
RCS subcooling is less than the harsh containment value of 60°F superheat to determine
adequate core cooling, however in natural circulation, CET subcooling is the correct parameter to
use.
D. First part is plausible since subcooling is determined using appendix 2, and appendix 2 is the
required tool to use when RCS pressure is < 350 psia, however at 500 psia QSPDS subcooling is
the correct tool to determine subcooling. Second part is correct.
An RMS alarm on _____(1)_____ , which monitor(s) radiation levels of the _____(2)_____ ,
is(are) the primary RMS indication(s) of high reactor coolant activity and possible fuel failure.
A. 1. Containment High Range Area Monitors, RU-148/149
2. 100’ elevation inside Containment
B. 1. Containment High Range Area Monitors, RU-148/149
2. 140’ elevation inside Containment
C. 1. Reactor Coolant Letdown Line Radiation Monitor,
RU-155D
2. letdown line at the inlet of the Letdown Heat
Exchanger
D. 1. Reactor Coolant Letdown Line Radiation Monitor,
RU-155D
2. letdown line between the Letdown Heat Exchanger
and the Ion Exchangers
D
A. RU-148/149 is plausible since they are used to determine the status of the Fuel Clad Barrier,
however the primary indicator for high RCS activity is RU-155D. Monitored location is plausible
since RU-1, another Containment Area RM monitors levels on the 100’ elevation.
B. RU-148/149 is plausible since they are used to determine the status of the Fuel Clad Barrier,
however the primary indicator for high RCS activity is RU-155D. Monitored location is correct.
C. RU-155D is correct. Plausible that RU-155D would detect radiation upstream of the letdown HX
and downstream of the letdown containment isolation valve to provide earlier detection of high
RCS activity than the actual monitoring point for RU-155D and while allowing for the isolation of
letdown to determine if RU-155D was reading actual activity or the RM was providing false
indications of high activity.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 was operating at 100% power.
• Fast bus transfer was blocked on NAN-S01 and NAN-S02 due to low grid voltage.
Subsequently:
• The Reactor was tripped due to a Steam Generator Tube Rupture on SG #1.
• SPTAs have been completed and the CRS has entered 40EP-9EO04, SGTR.
• The crew is preparing to conduct a cooldown and isolate SG #1.
Procedurally, the cooldown rate limit (averaged over one hour) prior to isolating
SG #1 is _____(1)_____ and the cooldown rate limit following the isolation of
SG #1 is _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. 30°F/hr
2. 30°F/hr
B. 1. 30°F/hr
2. 100°F/hr
C. 1. 100°F/hr
2. 30°F/hr
D. 1. 100°F/hr
2. 100°F/hr
C
A. Plausible that 30°F/hr would be the cooldown rate for the entire cooldown since a rapid cooldown
could potentially uncouple the primary and secondary during natural circulation, however the
30°F/hr limit is only when one SG is isolated.
B. Plausible that the cooldown rate would be limited prior to isolating the ruptured SG since we use
both SGs for the initial cooldown and a 100°F/hr cooldown rate using the ruptured SG could make
the tube break worsen, however the strategy is to cooldown as quick as possible to < 540°F to
isolate the ruptured SG and then continue at 30°F/hr to ensure the primary and secondary do not
become uncoupled with asymmetrical steaming following the SG isolation.
C. Correct.
D. Plausible that the cooldown rate would be unaffected following the SG isolation as this is true with
forced circulation.
Per 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate, when aligning all three Charging Pumps to the
alternate discharge, what is the impact to Seal Injection and Auxiliary Spray?
Seal Injection is unavailable until _____(1)_____ and Auxiliary Spray is unavailable
until _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. the alignment to the alternate header is complete
2. the alignment to the alternate header is complete
B. 1. the alignment to the alternate header is complete
2. Charging Pumps have been realigned to the normal
discharge header
C. 1. Charging Pumps have been realigned to the normal
discharge header
2. the alignment to the alternate header is complete
D. 1. Charging Pumps have been realigned to the normal
discharge header
2. Charging Pumps have been realigned to the normal
discharge header
D
A. Plausible since the driving force for aux spray and seal injection is the discharge of the charging
pumps, and the charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is
complete, however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, seal injection and aux spray
are not available.
B. Plausible since the driving force for seal injection is the discharge of the charging pumps, and the
charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is complete,
however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, seal injection is not available. Second
part is correct.
C. Plausible since the driving force for aux spray is the discharge of the charging pumps, and the
charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is complete,
however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, aux spray is not available. First part is
correct.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• Seal Injection Containment Isolation Valve, CHN-HV-255, has just failed closed and
cannot be reopened from B03.
Assuming no operator action is taken, what will be the effect on the Reactor Coolant Pump
System?
RCP HP Seal Cooler Inlet temperature will _____(1)_____ and all other seal temperatures
monitored on B04 (HP Cooler Outlet temperature, Seal 1 Inlet temperature, Seal 2 Inlet
temperature, Seal 2 Outlet temperature) will _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. exceed 250°F
2. exceed 200°F
B. 1. exceed 250°F
2. remain normal
C. 1. stabilize between 200 and 220°F
2. exceed 200°F
D. 1. stabilize between 200 and 220°F
2. remain normal
D
A. Plausible that trip criteria of 250°F would be exceeded since HPSC inlet temp is the outlet temp
from the RCP journal bearing and the loss of seal injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the
seals, however with NC still in service, HPSC inlet temp will stabilize between 200 and 220°F and
all other seal temps will rise but remain in their normal control bands.
B. Plausible that trip criteria of 250°F would be exceeded since HPSC inlet temp is the outlet temp
from the RCP journal bearing and the loss of seal injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the
seals, however with NC still in service, HPSC inlet temp will stabilize between 200 and 220°F.
Second part is correct.
C. First part is correct. Plausible that trip criteria of 200°F would be exceeded since the loss of seal
injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the seals, however with NC still in service all other
seal temps will rise but remain in their normal control bands.
D. Correct.
With VCT Makeup in AUTO, makeup to the VCT will initiate when VCT level lowers to \_\_\_\_\_(1)\_\_\_\_\_ and will secure when VCT level rises to \_\_\_\_\_(2)\_\_\_\_\_ .
A. 1. 15%
2. 44%
B. 1. 15%
2. 58%
C. 1. 34%
2. 44%
D. 1. 34%
2. 58%
C
A. 15% is plausible since at 15% the suction of the charging pumps is automatically aligned to the
VCT, however 34% is when auto makeup to the VCT begins. 44% is when makeup stops.
B. 15% is plausible since at 15% the suction of the charging pumps is automatically aligned to the
VCT, however 34% is when auto makeup to the VCT begins. 58% is plausible since there is an
auto alignment at 58% in the VCT, however that is when letdown is aligned to the VCT.
C. Correct.
D. 34% is when auto makeup starts. 58% is plausible since there is an auto alignment at 58% in the
VCT, however that is when letdown is aligned to the VCT.
While operating at power, the in-service Letdown Flow Control Valve can be throttled OPEN
using Pressurizer Level Controller, RCN-LIC-110, by either _____(1)_____ the output in
MANUAL, or by _____(2)_____ the setpoint in LOCAL-AUTO.
A. 1. raising
2. raising
B. 1. raising
2. lowering
C. 1. lowering
2. raising
D. 1. lowering
2. lowering
B
A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since raising the setpoint would create a delta
between actual level and desired level (setpoint), however with desired level higher than actual
level, the letdown flow control valve would throttle closed.
B. Correct.
C. First part is plausible since lowering the output on LIC-110 will raise pressurizer level which would
cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle open if in auto, however if in manual, lowering
output will cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle closed. Second part is plausible since
raising the setpoint would create a delta between actual level and desired level (setpoint), however
with desired level higher than actual level, the letdown flow control valve would throttle closed.
D. First part is plausible since lowering the output on LIC-110 will raise pressurizer level which would
cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle open if in auto, however if in manual, lowering
output will cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle closed. Second part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is in MODE 4, cooling down in preparation for a refueling outage.
• Shutdown Cooling is in service on Train ‘A’.
• The RO throttles SDCHX ‘A’ Bypass Valve, SIA-HV-306, 10% in the open direction.
What is the effect on the Shutdown Cooling System?
The cooldown rate will _____(1)_____ and total SDC flow will _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. rise
2. rise
B. 1. rise
2. lower
C. 1. lower
2. rise
D. 1. lower
2. lower
C
A. First part is plausible since total flow will rise, which would normally result cooldown rate rising,
however the flow being diverted around the SDC HX will result in cooldown rate lowering. Second
part is correct.
B. Plausible as this would be the correct answer if HV-306 was throttled closed, however when it is
opened the opposite is correct.
C. Correct.
D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible if thought that SDC flow is the measure of flow
actually being sent through the SDC HX, however total SDC flow is the sum of flow bypassed
around the HX and flow through the HX. Also, plausible if thought that this is referring to the
SDCHX warm-up bypass valve, in which this would be correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 is cooling down for a refueling outage.
• Train ‘A’ SDC is in service using the ‘A’ LPSI Pump.
• RCS temperature is 275°F and slowly lowering.
• RCS pressure is 225 psia and stable.
Subsequently:
• The ‘A’ LPSI Pump seizes due to a loss of lube oil.
How will the crew mitigate this event?
A. Place Train ‘B’ SDC in service using the ‘B’ LPSI Pump
per 40OP-9SI01,
Shutdown Cooling Initiation.
B. Place Train ‘B’ SDC in service using the ‘B’ LPSI Pump
per 40EP-9EO11,
Lower Mode Functional Recovery.
C. Maintain Train ‘A’ SDC in service using the ‘A’ CS
Pump per 40OP-9SI01,
Shutdown Cooling Initiation.
D. Maintain Train ‘A’ SDC in service using the ‘A’ CS Pump
per 40EP-9EO11,
Lower Mode Functional Recovery.
B
A. Plausible since transition to Train ‘B’ SDC is correct, however these conditions require entry into
the LMFR.
B. Correct.
C. Plausible since SDC is already aligned to Train ‘A’, however CS cannot be used for SDC in MODE
4. Also plausible that 40OP-9SI01 would be used to restore SDC, however these conditions
require entry into the LMFR.
D. Plausible since SDC is already aligned to Train ‘A’, however CS cannot be used for SDC in MODE
4. LMFR is correct.
What are the power supplies for the following SIAS actuated valves?
- HPSI Header ‘A’ to RC Loop 2B Valve, SIA-UV-627
- Train ‘A’ SI Pumps Combined Recirc to RWT Valve, SIA-UV-660
A. 1. Class 125 VDC power
2. Class 125 VDC power
B. 1. Class 125 VDC power
2. Class 480 VAC power
C. 1. Class 480 VAC power
2. Class 125 VDC power
D. 1. Class 480 VAC power
2. Class 480 VAC power
C
A. First part is plausible since there are HPSI hot leg injection valves which are DC powered,
however the cold leg injection valves are AC powered. Second part is correct.
B. First part is plausible since there are HPSI hot leg injection valves which are DC powered,
however the cold leg injection valves are AC powered. Second part is plausible since the HPSI ‘A’
recirc valve to the RWT is AC powered, however the combined recirc valve to the RWT is DC
powered.
C. Correct.
D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the HPSI ‘A’ recirc valve to the RWT is AC
powered, however the combined recirc valve to the RWT is DC powered.
Reactor Drain Tank Vent Valve, CHN-UV-540, will receive a(n) _____(1)_____ signal if RDT
pressure rises to 10 psig, and if RDT pressure continues to rise, the rupture disk will blow to
protect the RDT at a setpoint of _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. open
2. 30 psid
B. 1. open
2. 120 psid
C. 1. close
2. 30 psid
D. 1. close
2. 120 psid
D
A. First part is plausible since most tanks will be vented when pressure rises to a certain level,
however the RDT vent valve is normally open and receives a close signal when pressure reaches
10 psig. Second part is plausible as 30 psig is the setpoint for the EDT relief valve, however the
RDT rupture disk will blow if D/P across the disk reaches 120 psid.
B. First part is plausible since most tanks will be vented when pressure rises to a certain level,
however the RDT vent valve is normally open and receives a close signal when pressure reaches
10 psig. Second part is correct.
C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible as 30 psig is the setpoint for the EDT relief valve,
however the RDT rupture disk will blow if D/P across the disk reaches 120 psid.
D. Correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
• NCW Containment Upstream Supply Isolation Valve, NCB-UV-401, has spuriously
closed and cannot be reopened.
Which of the following describe the effect of this valve closure?
1. CEDM ACU outlet air temperatures will rise.
2. NCW temperature from the Letdown Heat Exchanger will rise.
3. NCW temperature from the Nuclear Sample Coolers will rise.
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. 1 and 3 ONLY
D. 2 and 3 ONLY
A
A. Correct.
B. Plausible since the LDHX is cooled by NC and portions of the letdown and NC systems are located
inside containment, however the LDHX and associated NC piping are located upstream of NCBUV-
401.
C. CEDM ACU air temp is correct. Plausible since the NC sample coolers are a priority load cooled
by NC, and all loads inside containment are priority loads, however the sample coolers are still
cooled following the closure of UV-401.
D. LDHX is plausible since the LDHX is cooled by NC and portions of the letdown and NC systems
are located inside containment, however the LDHX and associated NC piping are located
upstream of NCB-UV-401. Plausible since the NC sample coolers are a priority load cooled by
NC, and all loads inside containment are priority loads, however the sample coolers are still cooled
following the closure of UV-401.
What is the power supply for the Pressurizer Safety Valve position indicating lights on B04?
A. Non-Class 120 VAC Instrument Bus NNN-D11
B. Non-Class 120 VAC Instrument Bus NNN-D16
C. Class 120 VAC Instrument Bus PNA-D25
D. Class 120 VAC Instrument Bus PNB-D26
A
A. Correct.
B. Plausible since NNN-D16 powers control room indications such as multipoint recorders, and the
relief valve indicating lights are powered from non-class instrument power, however the
pressurizer reliefs are powered from NNN-D11.
C. Plausible that the pressurizer relief valve indicating lights would be class instrument power since
the pressurizer relief valve positions indicators are required by the PVNGS TRM (3.3.105),
however these lights are powered from NNN-D11.
D. Plausible that the pressurizer relief valve indicating lights would be class instrument power since
the pressurizer relief valve positions indicators are required by the PVNGS TRM (3.3.105),
however these lights are powered from NNN-D11.
A Channel ‘B’ RPS trip bistable has just been placed in bypass in preparation for surveillance
testing. What will happen if the same parameter RPS trip bistable is subsequently placed in
bypass on Channel ‘A’?
The Channel ‘A’ bistable will _____(1)_____ and the Channel ‘B’ bistable will _____(2)_____ .
A. 1. go into bypass
2. come out of bypass
B. 1. go into bypass
2. receive a trip signal
C. 1. NOT go into bypass
2. remain in bypass
D. 1. NOT go into bypass
2. receive a trip signal
A
A. Correct. Since the ‘A’ channel has a higher priority, when it is placed in bypass, any other trip
bistable already in bypass will come out of bypass.
B. Plausible since A will go into bypass and B will come out of bypass, and with two failed bistables
the TS action is to place one in bypass and the other in trip, however this would have to be done
manually.
C. Plausible since an interlock exists which prevents two bistables from simultaneously being in
bypass at the same time, however since A is a higher priority, it would go into bypass and B would
come out of bypass.
D. Plausible since both bistables cannot be placed in bypass simultaneously. Also plausible that the
interlock would cause the “one in trip, one in bypass” to take two steps (i.e. B goes from bypass to
trip, which would then allow the operator to place A in bypass).
When operating at 100% power, which of the following plant parameters, individually, would
result in BOTH an automatic reactor trip AND an automatic ESFAS actuation?
1. SG pressure of 950 psia.
2. SG level of 38% wide range.
3. Pressurizer pressure of 1850 psia.
A. 1 ONLY
B. 1 and 2 ONLY
C. 2 and 3 ONLY
D. 3 ONLY
A
A. Correct. 960 psia is the Low SG Pressure reactor trip setpoint as well as one of the setpoints for
MSIS.
B. Plausible since low SG pressure is correct and 38% WR level will result in a reactor trip, however
the AFAS setpoint is 25.8% WR.
C. Plausible since 38% WR level will result in a reactor trip, however the AFAS setpoint is 25.8% WR.
Also, the reactor will trip on low DNBR at ~ 2080 psia in the pressurizer, however the RPS Low
Pressurizer Pressure trip setpoint and SIAS setpoint (in MODE 1) is 1837 psia.
D. Plausible since the reactor will trip on low DNBR at ~ 2080 psia in the pressurizer, however the
RPS Low Pressurizer Pressure trip setpoint and SIAS setpoint (in MODE 1) is 1837 psia.
