2015

Question 1

• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a loss of condenser vacuum.
• Condenser vacuum is 14 inches HgA and degrading.
• RCP 2B tripped due to an electrical fault.
• 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip, has been implemented.
• SG levels are lowering.
• Feedwater flow to each SG is currently 0 gpm.
• The CRS has directed you to restore SG levels to 45% NR.

A. Only Auxiliary Feedwater is available, SGs should be fed at the same rate to
maintain equal SG levels.
B. Only Auxiliary Feedwater is available, SG 1 must be fed at a higher flow rate than
SG 2 to maintain equal SG levels.
C. Either Auxiliary or Main Feedwater is available, SGs should be fed at the same
rate to maintain equal SG levels.
D. Either Auxiliary or Main Feedwater is available, SG 1 must be fed at a higher flow
rate than SG 2 to maintain equal SG levels.

Answer 1

B. Only Auxiliary Feedwater is available, SG 1 must be fed at a higher flow rate than
SG 2 to maintain equal SG levels.

Question 2

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RCS pressure 2200 psia and slowly lowering.
• Reactor Drain Tank level and pressure are rising.
• Pressurizer level is 53.5% and stable.
• The CRS has entered 40OP-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS leakrate.
• ERFDADS calculated leakrate stabilizes at 42 gpm.
Subsequently
• A reactor trip occurs due to a CEA malfunction.
• SIAS/CIAS are manually initiated.
Which of the following describes Pressurizer Level response following the reactor trip?
Pressurizer level will…

A. lower to 33% and stabilize.
B. lower until HPSI injection stabilizes level.
C. initially lower then rise to greater than indicating range.
D. immediately rise from 53.5% to greater than indicating range.

Answer 2

C. initially lower then rise to greater than indicating range.

Question 3

• Unit 1 was manually tripped from 50% power due to lowering SG levels.
• Non class instrument bus, NNN-D15, faulted and is de-energized.
• Main Feed pump “B” is OOS.
• Auxiliary Feed pump “B” is OOS.
• SGs are being fed at 350 gpm using Auxiliary Feed pump, AFN-P01.
During SPTAs the following conditions are observed:
• PZR level is 25% and slowly lowering.
• Pressurizer pressure is 1830 psia and slowly lowering.
• AFN-P01 has tripped.
• SG pressure is being maintained by the SBCS in remote/auto.
• RCS Tcold is 564°F and stable.
• Containment pressure is 0.4 psig and slowly rising.
• Containment humidity and temperature are slowly rising.
• SG levels 60% WR and lowering.
Based on these conditions the CRS shall enter…

A. 40EP-9EO06, Loss of All Feedwater, and stop all 4 RCPs.
B. 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident, and stop all 4 RCPs.
C. 40EP-9EO06, Loss of All Feedwater, and stop 2 RCPs in opposite loops.
D. 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident, and stop 2 RCPs in opposite loops.

Answer 3

D. 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident, and stop 2 RCPs in opposite loops.

Question 4

• Unit 1 automatically tripped 30 minutes ago.
• 40EP-9EO03, LOCA has been entered.
• Nuclear Cooling Water containment isolation valves have been closed
• RCS Loop 1 Thot is 587°F and stable.
• RCS Loop 1 Tcold is 565°F and stable.
• RCS Loop 2 Thot is 588°F and stable.
• RCS Loop 2 Tcold is 563°F and stable.
• PZR pressure is 1700 psia and slowly lowering.
• Maximum quadrant CET is 615°F and stable.
You have been directed to check
natural circulation flow.
Natural circulation flow…

A. can be verified, all requirements are met.
B. can NOT be verified because the Loop delta T is too large.
C. can NOT be verified because RCS subcooling limits are not met.
D. can NOT be verified because the delta T between Thot RTDs and the maximum quadrant CET is too large.

Answer 4

C. can NOT be verified because RCS subcooling limits are not met.

Question 5

Given the following plant conditions for RCP 1B:
• #1 seal inlet pressure 2250 psig.
• #2 seal inlet pressure 1120 psig.
• #2 seal outlet pressure 1100 psig.
• Seal bleedoff flow 4.8 gpm.
Which of the following would cause these indications?

A. #1 seal has failed.
B. #2 seal has failed.
C. #3 seal has failed.
D. #1 and #2 seals have failed.

Answer 5

B. #2 seal has failed.

Question 6

• Refueling pool level is 137’ 6’ (>23 ft above the vessel flange).
• Core re-load is in progress.
• SDC train B is operable but not in operation.
• SDC train A is operable and in operation with LPSI pump A providing SDC flow.
Subsequently
• SIA-P02, LPSI pump A breaker trips.
Which of the following is correct?
Alarm window 2B06A, SDC TRAIN A/B FLOW LO, (1) and core reload must be
suspended (2) .

A. (1) will alarm (2) immediately
B. (1) will NOT alarm (2) immediately
C. (1) will alarm (2) within 1 hour
D. (1) will NOT alarm (2) within 1 hour

Answer 6

B. (1) will NOT alarm (2) immediately

Question 7

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.
• There was a leak in the Nuclear Cooling Water System (NCW).
• Train ‘A’ Essential Cooling Water has been cross-connected to NCW per
40AO-9ZZ03, Loss of Cooling Water.
(1) Which one of the following identifies the ESFAS signal that will automatically close
EWA-UV-65 and EWA-UV-145, Cross-Tie Valves to/from Nuclear Cooling Water.
(2) What is the purpose of these valves closing?

A. (1) SIAS (2) Ensures Containment Integrity is maintained during accident
conditions.
B. (1) SIAS (2) Ensures adequate cooling flow to SDCHX during accident
conditions.
C. (1) CSAS (2) Ensures Containment Integrity is maintained during accident
conditions.
D. (1) CSAS (2) Ensures adequate cooling flow to SDCHX during accident
conditions.

Answer 7

B. (1) SIAS (2) Ensures adequate cooling flow to SDCHX during accident
conditions.

Question 8

• Due to a major event Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
• Pressurizer level went off scale low.
• HPSI throttle criteria has been met and fully throttled.
• Pressurizer level is now 30% and stable.
• RCS pressure is 1200 psia and stable.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) Assuming no Operator action, what is the status of the Class pressurizer backup
heaters?
(2) How will a pressure rise of 50 psia under these conditions compare to 50 psia pressure
rise at 100% power operations?

A. (1) Energized.
(2) Pressure recovery will take longer because the pressurizer is not at saturation
conditions.
B. (1) Energized.
(2) The pressure recovery will be approximately the same as long as all heaters
are energized and the RCS is subcooled.
C. (1) De-energized.
(2) Pressure recovery will take longer because the pressurizer is not at saturation
conditions.
D. (1) De-energized.
(2) The pressure recovery will be approximately the same as long as all heaters

Answer 8

C. (1) De-energized.
(2) Pressure recovery will take longer because the pressurizer is not at saturation
conditions.

Question 9

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RCP 1A has tripped.
• All 4 PPS channels SG-1 “LO FLOW” have actuated.
• Leg 1-3 phase current lights are extinguished.
• Leg 2-4 phase current lights are illuminated.
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the status of the Reactor Trip Switchgear
(RTSG) breakers and actions to trip the reactor?

A. At least one RTSG breaker has opened and only NGN-L10 must be tripped to
de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
B. At least one RTSG breaker has opened and both NGN-L03 and L10 must be
tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
C. At least two RTSG breakers have opened and only NGN-L10 must be tripped to
de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
D. At least two RTSG breakers have opened and both NGN-L03 and L10 must be
tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.

Answer 9

B. At least one RTSG breaker has opened and both NGN-L03 and L10 must be
tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.

Question 10

• SG#1 has a tube rupture.
• Power is lost to the switchyard.
• Reactor Coolant Tcold is 515°F.
• Reactor Coolant Thot is 538°F.
• CET temperature is 544°F.
• SG#1 pressure is 1035 psia and stable.
• SG#1 level is 60% narrow range and slowly lowering.
• RCS pressure is 1000 psia and stable.
• Pressurizer level is 36% and slowly rising.
• HPSI pump A, SIA-P02, has been secured.
• HPSI pump B, SIB-P02, is running with two injection valves open.
Based on the above data, which of the following actions is required?

A. Start any idle charging pumps.
B. Increase HPSI flow to the RCS.
C. Maintain HPSI flow at its present injection value.
D. Commence an RCS cooldown to lower CET temperature to less than 540°F.

Answer 10

B. Increase HPSI flow to the RCS.

Question 11

• The reactor has tripped.
• PZR level is 25% and lowering.
• RCS pressure is 1700 psia and dropping.
• Containment pressure and temperature are rising.
• RCS subcooling is 75°F and rising.
• SG 1 level is 65% WR and lowering.
• Loop 1 Tcold is 555°F and lowering.
• SG 2 level is 45% WR and lowering.
• Loop 2 Tcold is 520°F and lowering.
(1) Which of the following is the relationship between the SG #1 and SG #2 steam flow
transmitters?
(2) How will the steam flow detectors respond as a result
of a subsequent MSIS?

A. (1) SG #2 flow is less than SG #1 flow.
(2) Both SG #1 and SG #2 flow almost immediately go to 0.
B. (1) SG #1 flow is less than SG #2 flow.
(2) Both SG #1 and SG #2 flow almost immediately go to 0.
C. (1) SG #1 flow is less than SG #2 flow.
(2) SG #1 flow almost immediately goes to 0, SG #2 flow eventually decreases
to 0.
D. (1) SG #2 flow is less than SG #1 flow.
(2) SG #1 flow almost immediately goes to 0, SG #2 flow eventually decreases
to 0.

Answer 11

C. (1) SG #1 flow is less than SG #2 flow.
(2) SG #1 flow almost immediately goes to 0, SG #2 flow eventually decreases
to 0.

Question 12

• A steam break in the turbine building has occurred and was isolated by an MSIS.
• AFA-P01 is OOS and under clearance for maintenance.
During SPTAs the following conditions are noted:
• Auxiliary Feedpump B, AFB-P01, trips on an 86 Lockout following a start attempt.
• Both SG levels are 10% NR and slowly lowering.
• Pressurizer level is 23% and slowly rising.
• Pressurizer pressure is 1900 psia and stable.
• ADVs are controlling SG pressure.
• Tcold is 552°F and stable.
• Thot is 555°F and stable
What is the status of the RCS Pressure Control and RCS Heat Removal Safety
Functions?
(1) RCS Pressure Control criteria….
(2) RCS Heat Removal criteria…

A. (1) is satisfied because PZR pressure is within the P/T limits per appendix 2.
(2) is satisfied because SG levels are > 25% WR.
B. (1) is satisfied because PZR pressure is within the P/T limits per appendix 2.
(2) is not satisfied because SG levels are < 45% NR and not rising.
C. (1) is not satisfied because no PZR heaters are available with level < 25%.
(2) is not satisfied because SG levels are < 45% NR and not rising.
D. (1) is not satisfied because no PZR heaters are available with level < 25%.
(2) is satisfied because SG levels are > 25% WR.

Answer 12

B. (1) is satisfied because PZR pressure is within the P/T limits per appendix 2.
(2) is not satisfied because SG levels are < 45% NR and not rising.

Question 13

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
• 40EP-9EO08, Blackout has been implemented.
• DG A has been started following a reset of an emergency trip.
• DG A Frequency meter, PEN-SI-G01 reads 58 hertz.
• PBA-S03, class 4160 AC bus is de-energized.
(1) What actions are required to raise DG A speed using DG A Speed HS, PEA-SC-G01?
(2) After the DG reaches rated speed, what will be the status of the DG A output breaker,
PBB-S03B?

A. (1) Place the DG A handswitch, DGA-HS-1 to “START” to override the DG and
raise DG speed.
(2) Since the BOP-ESFAS sequencer changed modes the DG A output breaker
will not automatically close.
B. (1) Place PEA-SS-G01D, Diesel Generator A Speed Control Mode Select, to
“Droop” raise DG speed.
(2) Since the BOP-ESFAS sequencer changed modes the DG A output breaker
will not automatically close.
C. (1) Place PEA-SS-G01D, Diesel Generator A Speed Control Mode Select, to
“Droop” raise DG speed.
(2) DG output breaker will automatically close when DG speed reaches 59.9
hertz.
D. (1) Place the DG A handswitch, DGA-HS-1 to “START” to override the DG and
raise DG speed.
(2) DG output breaker will automatically close when DG speed reaches 59.9
hertz.

Answer 13

D. (1) Place the DG A handswitch, DGA-HS-1 to “START” to override the DG and
raise DG speed.
(2) DG output breaker will automatically close when DG speed reaches 59.9
hertz.

Question 14

• Unit 1 is operating 100% power.
• Loss of Offsite power occurs.
The LOP/LS module generates a 1 second Load Shed pulse followed by a…

A. 10 second LOP signal after the class 4160 kV bus is energized to prevent a
"double sequencing" condition.
B. 10 second LOP signal after the class 4160 kV bus is energized to prevent
overloading the DG during sequencing.
C. 60 second LOP signal after the class 4160 kV bus is energized to prevent a
"double sequencing" condition.
D. 60 second LOP signal after the class 4160 kV bus is energized to prevent
overloading the DG during sequencing.

Answer 14

D. 60 second LOP signal after the class 4160 kV bus is energized to prevent
overloading the DG during sequencing.

Question 15

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• DG “A” running but is not currently paralleled to offsite power.
Subsequently
• PNA-D25, 125 vac Class Instrument bus, faults and is de-energized.
Which one of the following correctly describes the automatic actions that will occur?
(This is not an all inclusive list)

A. (1) RTSG breakers A and C trip open. (2) DG “A” trips
B. (1) RTSG breakers A and C trip open. (2) CREFAS, FBEVAS and CPIAS
actuate.
C. (1) Pulse counters will be zeroed for the channel A, B and C target CEAs with
their associated rod bottom lights illuminated. (2) DG “A” trips
D. (1) Pulse counters will be zeroed for the channel A, B and C target CEAs with
their associated rod bottom lights illuminated. (2) CREFAS, FBEVAS and
CPIAS actuate.

Answer 15

B. (1) RTSG breakers A and C trip open. (2) CREFAS, FBEVAS and CPIAS
actuate.

Question 16

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.
• Nuclear Cooling Water (NC) is lost and the crew has cross-connected “B” train
Essential Cooling Water (EW) to NC per 40AO-9ZZ03, Loss of Cooling Water.
• The crew then receives a low level alarm on EW Surge Tank “B.”
Which of the following describes (1) a possible location of the leak and (2) the action that
mitigates the event?

A. (1) Inlet to the EW heat exchanger
(2) must manually close EW to NC cross-connect valves
B. (1) Inlet to the EW heat exchanger
(2) automatic closure of the EW to NC cross-connect valves
C. (1) Inlet to the Letdown Heat Exchanger
(2) must manually close EW to NC cross-connect valves
D. (1) Inlet to the Letdown Heat Exchanger
(2) automatic closure of the EW to NC cross-connect valves

Answer 16

A. (1) Inlet to the EW heat exchanger

(2) must manually close EW to NC cross-connect valves

Question 17

Which of the following describes why 40AO-9ZZ06, Loss of Instrument Air, directs aligning
a Fuel Building Essential Air Filtration Unit, AFU, to the auxiliary building during a
complete loss of Instrument Air?

A. The essential AFU is required to augment the normal AFUs, ensuring a negative
pressure is maintained.
B. Due to the number of additional heat loads (motors and piping), additional air
movement is necessary.
C. The essential AFU will circulate air below the 100’ elevation, which may contain
nitrogen from leaking air connections.
D. Since the normal AHUs and AFUs trip on a loss of Instrument Air, the Fuel
Building essential AFUs will ensure Aux Building ventilation is maintained.

Answer 17

C. The essential AFU will circulate air below the 100’ elevation, which may contain
nitrogen from leaking air connections.

Question 18

• Unit 1 is at 80% power.
• Group 5 CEAs are at 120 inches withdrawn for ASI control.
• CEDMCS is in Auto Sequential.
• Reactor Operator reports indications of an inadvertent continuous CEA withdrawal.
CEA Malfunctions, 40AO-9ZZ11 directs the crew to place CEDMCS in (1) , CEA
motion is expected to stop because in this mode of control (2) .

A. (1) Standby (2) the CEDM lower gripper coils are energized.
B. (1) Standby (2) CEDMCS does not respond to automatic signals.
C. (1) Manual Sequential (2) the CEDM lower gripper coils are energized.
D. (1) Manual Sequential (2) CEDMCS does not respond to automatic signals.

Answer 18

B. (1) Standby (2) CEDMCS does not respond to automatic signals.

Question 19

• Unit 1 is operating at 85% power.
• A Group 5 CEA drops to the bottom of the core while the groups are at 135 inches.
(1) What is the effect of the dropped CEA on Shutdown Margin (SDM)?
(2) In accordance with 40AO-9ZZ11, CEA Malfunctions, what power level must be
achieved within ONE (1) hour?

A. (1) SDM was reduced.
(2) 65%.
B. (1) SDM was reduced.
(2) 70%.
C. (1) SDM was NOT affected.
(2) 65%.
D. (1) SDM was NOT affected.
(2) 70%.

Answer 19

C. (1) SDM was NOT affected.

(2) 65%.

Question 20

• A Reactor trip has occurred.
• The CRS has implemented 40EP-9EO01, Standard Post Trip Actions.
• Pressurizer level is 59% and trending up due to a malfunction of the Pressurizer Level
Control System (PLCS) in automatic control.
• The RO takes manual control of the PLCS and is directed to take the Contingency
Action of 40EP-9EO01 for controlling Pressurizer level.
(1) Per 40EP-9EO01 Contingency Action, what is the desired Pressurizer level control
band?
(2) What is the bases/reason for the UPPER limit of that band?

A. (1) 33% to 53%
(2) to prevent the Pressurizer from going water-solid.
B. (1) 10 to 65%
(2) to prevent the Pressurizer from going water-solid.
C. (1) 33% to 53%
(2) Because this is the T.S. LCO 3.4.9 limit for Pressurizer water level.
D. (1) 10% to 65%
(2) Because this is the T.S. LCO 3.4.9 limit for Pressurizer water level.

Answer 20

A. (1) 33% to 53%

(2) to prevent the Pressurizer from going water-solid.

Question 21

Which of the following conditions would BOTH de-energize Startup channel 1?

A. A loss of NNN-D11 or de-pressing the HV PERMIT/HV ON pushbutton.
B. A loss of PNA-D25 or de-pressing the HV PERMIT/HV ON pushbutton.
C. A loss of NNN-D11 or de-pressing the START-UP/CONTROL pushbutton.
D. A loss of PNA-D25 or de-pressing the START-UP/CONTROL pushbutton.

Answer 21

A. A loss of NNN-D11 or de-pressing the HV PERMIT/HV ON pushbutton.

Question 22

Which one of the following is the maximum value for primary to secondary leakage
through any one steam generator (SG) as identified in LCO 3.4.14, RCS Operational
LEAKAGE?

A. 10 gallons per minute
B. 25 gallons per minute
C. 75 gallons per day
D. 150 gallons per day

Answer 22

D. 150 gallons per day

Question 23

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RU-8 (Auxiliary Building Ventilation Exhaust Filter Inlet) is in ALERT.
• RU-9 (Auxiliary Building Lower Level Exhaust) is in ALERT.
• RU-143 (Plant Vent) readings are rising.
• All other radiation monitors read background.
Which of the following describes the event that is occurring?

A. Charging system leak.
B. Steam Generator Tube leak.
C. Waste Gas Decay Tank leak.
D. Letdown Heat Exchanger tube leak.

Answer 23

A. Charging system leak.

Question 24

• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
• Class 4160 kV bus, PBB-S04 has faulted and is de-energized.
Subsequently
• SIAS/CIAS/MSIS automatically initiate.
• WCA-UV-62, CHW RETURN HDR OUTSIDE CNTMT ISOL VLV, has a blue SEAS
light illuminated.
(1) What is the expected status of the white SEIS and blue SEAS lights for CHW RETURN
HDR INSIDE CNTMT ISOL VLV, WCB-UV-61 and CHW SUPPLY HDR OUTSIDE
CNTMT ISOL VLV, WCB-UV-63?
(2) What are the available means to operate WCA-UV-62 to recover Containment
Integrity?

A. (1) Only the white SEIS lights are illuminated. (2) Manual valve operation only.
B. (1) Only the white SEIS lights are illuminated. (2) Either manual operation or
remote operation using WCA-HS-62.
C. (1) Both the white SEIS and blue SEAS are illuminated. (2) Manual valve
operation only
D. (1) Both the white SEIS and blue SEAS are illuminated. (2) Either manual
operation or remote operation using WCA-HS-62.

Answer 24

D. (1) Both the white SEIS and blue SEAS are illuminated. (2) Either manual
operation or remote operation using WCA-HS-62.

Question 25

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• An RCS Overcooling event is in progress.
• PZR pressure is 2150 psia and lowering.
• Loop 1 and 2 Tcold is 552°F and lowering.
• The CRS directs a manual reactor trip.
How will this event affect the plant post trip?
The DFWCS will…

A. over feed in RTO and the SBCS will not generate a quick open block signal.
B. not feed in RTO and the SBCS will generate a quick open block signal.
C. over feed in RTO and the SBCS will generate a quick open block signal.
D. not feed in RTO and the SBCS will not generate a quick open block signal.

Answer 25

B. not feed in RTO and the SBCS will generate a quick open block signal.

Question 26

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Pressurizer level is slowly lowering.
• RCS temperature is stable.
• The in-service letdown control valve CHN-110P is slowly closing.
• The CRS implements 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate.and has entered the
AOP entry time and date.
(1) Which one of the following is the next action required by 40AO-9ZZ02?
(2) What is the Low
Pressurizer water level value identified in Tech Spec 3.4.9?

A. (1) Isolate letdown (2) ≥ 25%
B. (1) Isolate letdown (2) ≥ 27%
C. (1) Start an additional charging pump. (2) ≥ 25%
D. (1) Start an additional charging pump. (2) ≥ 27%

Answer 26

D. (1) Start an additional charging pump. (2) ≥ 27%

Question 27

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• 2A RCP Upper Thrust Bearing temperature is observed to be in alarm at 230°F and
rising.
In accordance with 40AO-9ZZ94, RCP Emergencies, which of the following actions can
be performed to slow the rate of temperature rise?

A. Start the 2A hydraulic oil lift pump P02C.
B. Start the standby Nuclear Cooling Water pump.
C. Increase the output of CHN-FIC-243, Seal Injection Flow Controller.
D. Stop all but one Normal Chiller, ensure that only one Nuclear Cooling Water
outlet valve is open.

Answer 27

A. Start the 2A hydraulic oil lift pump P02C.

Question 28

• The crew is preparing to place Shutdown Cooling in service.
• RCS temperature is 235°F
•Pressurizer pressure is 450 psia.
•The following Shutdown Cooling Suction valves are OPEN.
1. SIB-UV-652, Loop 2 to S/D CLG-LPSI Pump B Suct Vlv
2. SIB-UV-654, Loop 2 to S/D CLG-LPSI Pump B Suct Vlv
3. SIB-UV-656, Loop 2 to S/D CLG-LPSI Pump B Suct Vlv
Per 40OP-9SI01, Shutdown Cooling Initiation; prior to placing SIB-P03, Containment spray pump B, in service on Shutdown cooling, RCS temperature and pressure must be less than a maximum of (1) and the Containment Spray pump suction path (2) .

A. (1) 200°F and 250 psia
(2) is fully aligned, requiring no further valve manipulations.
B. (1) 350°F and 385 psia
(2) is fully aligned, requiring no further valve manipulations.
C. (1) 200°F and 250 psia
(2) requires manual valve manipulations to complete the alignment.
D. (1) 350°F and 385 psia
(2) requires manual valve manipulations to complete the alignment.

Answer 28

C. (1) 200°F and 250 psia

(2) requires manual valve manipulations to complete the alignment.

Question 29

• Unit 1 is in Mode 5.
• RCS pressure is 360 psia.
• RCS temperature is 190°F.
What automatic action occurs if RCS pressure were allowed to reach 410 psia?

A. Low Temperature Over Pressure (LTOP) relief lifts
B. Safety Injection Tank outlet valves receive an auto open signal
C. Bypass for Pressurizer pressure low signal (SIAS) is automatically removed
D. SI-UV-653, RC Loop 1 to SDC - LPSI pump A suction receives an auto close
signal

Answer 29

B. Safety Injection Tank outlet valves receive an auto open signal

Question 30

• A large break LOCA has occurred.
• SIAS/CIAS/MSIS have automatically initiated.
• Refueling Water Tank, RWT, level is lowering.
(1) Per Technical Specifications, what is the Recirculation Actuation Signal, RAS,
setpoint?
(2) How will the Emergency Core Cooling System, ECCS, suction isolation valves respond
to the RAS?

A. (1) 7.4%
(2) Containment Sump to Safety Injection valves automatically open and the
RWT to Safety Injection isolation valves will automatically close.
B. (1) 7.4%
(2) Containment Sump to Safety Injection isolation valves will automatically open
but the RWT to Safety Injection isolation valves must be closed by the operator.
C. (1) 9.4%
(2) Containment Sump to Safety Injection valves automatically open and the
RWT to Safety Injection isolation valves will automatically close.
D. (1) 9.4%
(2) Containment Sump to Safety Injection isolation valves will automatically open
but the RWT to Safety Injection isolation valves must be closed by the operator.

Answer 30

D. (1) 9.4%
(2) Containment Sump to Safety Injection isolation valves will automatically open
but the RWT to Safety Injection isolation valves must be closed by the operator.

Question 31

• Unit 1 is in Mode 5 preparing to form a steam bubble in the pressurizer.
• A nitrogen bubble exists on the pressurizer.
• Cold Shutdown to Hot Standby Mode 5 to Mode 3, 40OP-9ZZ01, is in progress.
• The CRS has implemented appendix H, Drawing a Steam Bubble in the Pressurizer.
Condition 1 - pressurizer at saturation with a steam bubble and nitrogen mixture.
Condition 2 - pressurizer at saturation, nitrogen has been vented.
As the pressurizer is vented and transitions from condition 1 to 2, which of the following is
the expected pressure and level response of the Reactor Drain Tank?

A. slower rate of pressure increases with larger level increases.
B. greater rate of pressure increases with larger level increases.
C. slower rate of pressure increases with smaller level increases.
D. greater rate of pressure increases with smaller level increases.

Answer 31

A. slower rate of pressure increases with larger level increases.

Question 32

Which of the following will automatically start the standby Nuclear Cooling Water pump
when its setpoint is reached?

A. CEDM Normal ACU High Temperature.
B. Low flow to the Letdown Heat Exchanger.
C. Low NC pump discharge header pressure.
D. Low discharge flow on the running NC pump.

Answer 32

C. Low NC pump discharge header pressure.

Question 33

• Unit 1 is at 100% power.
• Class 4.16 kVA bus PBB-S04 has faulted and is de-energized.
Subsequently
• Nuclear Cooling Water valve from the CEDM ACUs A02A/A02C, NCN-HV-485 fails
closed.
Which one of the following is the appropriate action per 40AO-9ZZ20, Loss of HVAC?

A. Start CEDM ACUs A02B/A02D to restore cooling.
B. Trip the reactor and perform SPTAs within a maximum of 10 minutes from the
loss of cooling.
C. Limit CEA motion to that needed for ASI control and decrease power to shutdown
the unit within 4 hours.
D. Commence a rapid downpower within 10 minutes and have RTSG breakers
opened within 40 minutes of the loss of cooling.

Answer 33

D. Commence a rapid downpower within 10 minutes and have RTSG breakers
opened within 40 minutes of the loss of cooling.

Question 34

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Pressurizer is in “Boron Equalization”.
• Main spray valve RC-100E, both red and green position indicator lights are lit.
• Main spray valve RC-100F, both red and green position indicator lights are lit.
• RCS pressure is 2230 psia and stable.
Subsequently:
• Main spray valve RC-100E, red position indicator light is lit and green light is OFF.
What is the response of the Pressurizer Pressure Control system?
(1) Main spray valve RC-100F will…
(2) If pressure continues to lower the IE Class Backup heater banks will energize at…

A. (1) close, only the green position light will be lit (2) 2200 psia.
B. (1) close, only the green position light will be lit (2) 2225 psia.
C. (1) remain throttled, both red and green position lights are lit (2) 2200 psia.
D. (1) remain throttled, both red and green position lights are lit (2) 2225 psia.

Answer 34

A. (1) close, only the green position light will be lit (2) 2200 psia.

Question 35

Which one of the following identifies the correct power supplies to “AB” Reactor Protection
System (RPS) Matrices and Initiation circuits?

A. PNA-D25 and PNB-D26
B. PNA-D25 and PKB-M42
C. PKA-M41 and PNB-D26
D. PKA-M41 and PKB-M42

Answer 35

A. PNA-D25 and PNB-D26

Question 36

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Auxiliary Feedpump “A”, AFA-P01, is OOS due to emergent issues.
• PNB-D26 faults and is de-energized; the CRS has entered the appropriate AOP.
Subsequently
• No corrective actions for the faulted instrument bus have been taken.
• Channel “D” SG 1, low SG pressure bistable faults and trips.
Which of the following is the impact and mitigating procedure for these conditions?

A. MSIS initiates, implement 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip.
B. MSIS initiates, implement 40EP-9EO06, Loss of All Feedwater.
C. MSIS B, Leg 2-4 only, implement 40AL-1RK5B, B05B Alarm Response.
D. MSIS B, Leg 2-4 only, implement 40AO-9ZZ17, Inadvertent PPS-ESFAS
actuations.

Answer 36

A. MSIS initiates, implement 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip.

Question 37

• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
• SG 2 level is 60% WR and lowering rapidly.
• SG 2 pressure is lowering rapidly.
• SG-1 > SG-2 PRESS CH TRIP has annunciated.
• All 4 channels of SG-1 high delta P are tripped.
• MSIS has actuated
How does this Engineered Safety Function (ESF) alarm affect the Auxiliary Feedwater
(AFW) and Diverse Auxiliary Feedwater (DAFAS) systems as SG-2 level continues to
lower?

A. AFAS / DAFAS initiation will be blocked for SG-2.
B. AFAS will not initiate, but DAFAS will initiate if Pressurizer pressure reaches
2409 psia.
C. AFAS / DAFAS will initiate but Auxiliary Feedwater pumps and valve operation
will be blocked.
D. AFAS will initiate, the crew is expected to secure AFW flow to a faulted SG.

Answer 37

A. AFAS / DAFAS initiation will be blocked for SG-2.

Question 38

The Containment Normal ACUs, HCN-A01A thru D are cooled by (1) and will be
isolated by a (2) .

A. (1) Normal Chilled Water (2) CIAS.
B. (1) Normal Chilled Water (2) CSAS.
C. (1) Nuclear Cooling Water (2) CIAS.
D. (1) Nuclear Cooling Water (2) CSAS

Answer 38

A. (1) Normal Chilled Water (2) CIAS.

Question 39

• Unit 1 operating at 100% power.
• Containment pressure is -0.1 psig.
• A train “B” CSAS has inadvertently actuated.
(1) Based on these conditions, the design negative pressure for Containment ______ be
exceeded.
(2) To stop any operating Containment Spray pumps, the RO will ______.

A. (1) will
(2) override and stop the Containment Spray Pump
B. (1) will NOT
(2) override and stop the Containment Spray Pump
C. (1) will
(2) place the Containment Spray Pump hand switch in “STOP” to anti-pump the
CS Pump.
D. (1) will NOT
(2) place the Containment Spray Pump hand switch in “STOP” to anti-pump the
CS Pump.

Answer 39

D. (1) will NOT
(2) place the Containment Spray Pump hand switch in “STOP” to anti-pump the
CS Pump.

Question 40

In order to reset a CSAS that was manually initiated from B05, the operator MUST…

A. ONLY press either LOCKOUT RESET pushbutton at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet.
B. ONLY press both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet simultaneously.
C. FIRST press the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet; then press either LOCKOUT RESET pushbutton at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet.
D. FIRST press the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet; then press both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet simultaneously.

Answer 40

C. FIRST press the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet; then press either LOCKOUT RESET pushbutton at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet.

Question 41

(1) In a steam system, what is likely to cause steam/water hammer?
(2) One method used to prevent steam/water hammer when warming the Main Steam
Lines in accordance with 40OP-9SG01, Main Steam, is…

A. (1) Slowly opening the MSIV bypass valves manual isolation valves.
(2) Placing steam traps in a normal lineup prior to
initiating the warmup.
B. (1) Slowly opening the MSIV bypass valves manual isolation valves.
(2) Draining Main Steam Lines using steam traps to a Turbine Building sump.
C. (1) Introducing water into a steam void.
(2) Placing steam traps in a normal lineup prior to
initiating the warmup.
D. (1) Introducing water into a steam void.
(2) Draining Main Steam Lines using steam traps to a Turbine Building sump.

Answer 41

D. (1) Introducing water into a steam void.

(2) Draining Main Steam Lines using steam traps to a Turbine Building sump.

Question 42

• Unit 1 is operating at 50% power.
• RCN-TT-111Y, Loop 1A Tcold, has failed high.
Which one of the following identifies (1) the impact on the Main Feedwater system
and (2) the procedure and actions to mitigate these consequences?

A. (1) No refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.
B. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.
C. (1) No refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Place the faulty transmitter in maintenance mode per 40AL-9RK6A, B06 Alarm Response procedure.
D. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Place the faulty transmitter in maintenance mode per 40AL-9RK6A, B06 Alarm Response procedure.

Answer 42

B. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.

(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.

Question 43

Which one of the following is correct with regards to the Auxiliary Feed system?
The Auxiliary Feedpump emergency water source is from the (1) and can be aligned
to the (2) .

A. (1) Recycle Monitor Tanks (2) AFB-P01 and AFA-P01 only.
B. (1) Recycle Monitor Tanks (2) AFB-P01, AFA-P01 and AFN-P01.
C. (1) Reactor Makeup Water Tank (2) AFB-P01 and AFA-P01 only.
D. (1) Reactor Makeup Water Tank (2) AFB-P01, AFA-P01 and AFN-P01.

Answer 43

C. (1) Reactor Makeup Water Tank (2) AFB-P01 and AFA-P01 only.

Question 44

Which of the following identifies the bus power supplies to the electric driven Auxiliary
Feedwater pumps?

A. 4.16kV bus PBA-S03 and 4.16kV bus PBB-S04
B. 4.16kV bus PBA-S03 and 4.16kV bus NBN-S02
C. 4.16kV bus NBN-S01 and 4.16kV bus PBB-S04
D. 4.16kV bus NBN-S01 and 4.16kV bus NBN-S02

Answer 44

A. 4.16kV bus PBA-S03 and 4.16kV bus PBB-S04

Question 45

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• An inadvertent A train SIAS Leg 1-3 and 2-4 has actuated.
How will the SIAS actuation affect the electric plant?
NHN-M19 and NHN-M71 are (1) and DG A is operating in (2) .

A. (1) Energized (2) Test Run Mode
B. (1) De-energized (2) Test Run Mode
C. (1) Energized (2) Emergency Run Mode
D. (1) De-energized (2) Emergency Run Mode

Answer 45

D. (1) De-energized (2) Emergency Run Mode

Question 46

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• While shifting NNN-D12, 120 vac non class bus, to its alternate source there is a
transfer switch malfunction causing NNN-D12 to be de-energized.
(1) RCN-HS-100, Pressurizer Level Heater Trip Channel must be verified in the to
ensure proper pressurizer heater control.
20 minutes later
• Power is restored to NNN-D12 using 40AO-9ZZ14, Loss Of Non-Class Control Power.
• Prior to any further Operator actions the Main Turbine trips.
Which of the following would be a result of these conditions?
(2) The Steam Bypass Control system Quick Open and Modulate will…

A. (1) “X” position (2) function normally, no reactor trip should occur.
B. (1) “Y” position (2) function normally, no reactor trip should occur.
C. (1) “X” position (2) NOT function, the reactor will trip on high Pressurizer
pressure.
D. (1) “Y” position (2) NOT function, the reactor will trip on high Pressurizer
pressure.

Answer 46

D. (1) “Y” position (2) NOT function, the reactor will trip on high Pressurizer
pressure.

Question 47

• Unit 2 is operating at rated power.
• DG (Diesel Generator) B is running and paralleled to offsite power.
• A loss of PKB-M42 occurs due to a bus fault.
Which ONE of the following describes the impact this has on DG B?
DG B…

A. trips, but its output breaker opens.
B. trips but its output breaker remains closed.
C. continues to run but its output breaker opens.
D. continues to run, but electrical protection control power is lost.

Answer 47

B. trips but its output breaker remains closed.

Question 48

• NBN-X03, ESF transformer faulted.
• Diesel Generator (DG) A is running and energized PBA-S03 following the LOP.
Which one of the following sets of conditions will ALL trip DG A in the current mode of
operation?

A. Low lube oil pressure, Overspeed and Generator Differential.
B. Overspeed, Crankcase high pressure and Generator Differential.
C. Crankcase High Pressure, Low lube oil pressure and Overspeed.
D. Generator Differential, Crankcase high pressure and Low lube oil pressure.

Answer 48

A. Low lube oil pressure, Overspeed and Generator Differential.

Question 49

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• DG A left bank air receiver is at 250 psig.
• DG A left bank compressor is Out of Service.
• DG A right air bank receiver has been isolated due to a leak.
(1) The “A” DG’s air start system will provide how many starts under these conditions?
(2) What is the Air Receiver pressure below which DG “A” would be declared inoperable
IMMEDIATELY?

A. (1) Only 1 start (2) 185 psig
B. (1) Only 1 start (2) 230 psig
C. (1) Up to 5 starts (2) 185 psig
D. (1) Up to 5 starts (2) 230 psig

Answer 49

C. (1) Up to 5 starts (2) 185 psig

Question 50

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RCP 2B has developed a leak in the high pressure seal cooler.
• 40AO-9ZZ03, Loss of Cooling Water, has been implemented.
• Essential Cooling Water train “A” has been cross-tied to the Nuclear Cooling Water
system.
Which of the following alarms and/or actions will the crew observe from the control room?

A. RU-6, Nuclear Cooling Water, ONLY.
B. RU-2, “A” Essential Cooling Water, ONLY.
C. RU-2, “A” Essential Cooling Water, AND RU-6, Nuclear Cooling Water.
D. RU-2, “A” Essential Cooling Water, ONLY and auto closing of the EW-NC
cross-tie valves.

Answer 50

B. RU-2, “A” Essential Cooling Water, ONLY.

Question 51

Which one of the following is the correct bus power supply for the Essential Cooling Water
- Nuclear Cooling Water Cross Tie valves, EWA-UV-65 and EWA-UV-165?

A. PK, 125 Vdc Bus
B. PN, 125 Vac Panel
C. PG, 480 Vac Load Centers
D. PH, 480 Vac Motor Control Centers

Answer 51

D. PH, 480 Vac Motor Control Centers

Question 52

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Containment Instrument Air isolation valve, IAA-UV-002, has failed closed.
• 40AO-9ZZ06, Loss of Instrument Air, has been entered.
Subsequently
• CHA-UV-506, RCP Bleedoff to VCT Containment Isol Vlv, has failed closed.
• Instrument Air to containment has not been restored.
(1) Reactor Drain Tank level…
(2) What major actions are directed by 40AO-9ZZ06, Loss of Instrument Air?

A. (1) rises because CHA-HV-507, RCP CONTROLLED BLEED-OFF RELIEF VLV ISOL, fails OPEN.
(2) Trip the reactor, trip all 4 RCPs and isolate RCP Controlled Bleedoff.
B. (1) rises because CHA-HV-507, RCP CONTROLLED BLEED-OFF RELIEF VLV ISOL, fails OPEN.
(2) Trip the reactor, verify adequate Seal Injection and Nuclear Cooling Water to the RCPs.
C. (1) stabilizes because CHA-HV-507, RCP CONTROLLED BLEED-OFF RELIEF VLV ISOL, fails CLOSED.
(2) Trip the reactor, trip all 4 RCPs and isolate RCP Controlled Bleedoff.
D. (1) stabilizes because CHA-HV-507, RCP CONTROLLED BLEED-OFF RELIEF VLV ISOL, fails CLOSED.
(2) Trip the reactor, verify adequate Seal Injection and Nuclear Cooling Water to the RCPs.

Answer 52

A. (1) rises because CHA-HV-507, RCP CONTROLLED BLEED-OFF RELIEF VLV ISOL, fails OPEN.
(2) Trip the reactor, trip all 4 RCPs and isolate RCP Controlled Bleedoff.

Question 53

• Containment pressure (NR) Channel A 3.2 psig.
• Containment pressure (NR) Channel B 2.8 psig.
• Containment pressure (NR) Channel C 3.1 psig.
• Containment pressure (NR) Channel D 2.6 psig.
What is the effect on the Containment Isolation System?

A. No CIAS actuation.
B. Full CIAS actuation.
C. “A” train CIAS actuation only.
D. “A” train 1-3 Half Leg CIAS actuation only.

Answer 53

B. Full CIAS actuation

Question 54

• Unit 1 had been operating at rated power.
• The Main Turbine tripped one hour ago.
• Steam Bypass Control system is maintaining reactor power at 50% in Remote/Auto.
• CRS is taking actions per 40AO-9ZZ08, Load Rejection.
Subsequently
• Reactor power is rising.
• Tcold is stable
Which one of the following events could be in progress?

A. Continuous CEA withdrawl
B. Expected xenon reactivity transient.
C. Turbine Load Index (TLI) signal has failed high.
D. SGN-PT-1024, Main Steam Header Pressure, has failed low.

Answer 54

A. Continuous CEA withdrawl

Question 55

Which one of the following describes the physical connections and operation of the
Reactor Vessel Monitoring System (RVLMS)?

A. Two strings of 8 thermocouples. Reactor Vessel Upper Head and Outlet Plenum void formation is identified by the thermocouple reaching saturated/superheated
conditions at each level.
B. Two strings of 8 heated and unheated thermocouples. Reactor Vessel Upper Head and Outlet Plenum void formation is identified by a large temperature
difference between the heated and unheated thermocouples at each level.
C. Four strings of 8 thermocouples. Reactor Vessel Upper Head and Outlet Plenum void formation is identified by a thermocouple reaching saturated/superheated
conditions at each level.
D. Four strings of 8 heated and unheated thermocouples. Reactor Vessel Upper Head and Outlet Plenum void formation is identified by a large temperature
difference between the heated and unheated thermocouples at each level.

Answer 55

B. Two strings of 8 heated and unheated thermocouples. Reactor Vessel Upper Head and Outlet Plenum void formation is identified by a large temperature
difference between the heated and unheated thermocouples at each level.

Question 56

Which one of the following identifies the CEA position requirements of 40ST-9ZZ23, CEA
Position Data Log?
(1) The indicated position for all full and part strength CEAs is within a maximum of
inches of ALL other CEAs in the group.
(2) All shutdown CEAs must remain above inches by pulse counter indication.

A. (1) 6.6 (2) 142.50
B. (1) 6.6 (2) 147.75
C. (1) 9.9 (2) 142.50
D. (1) 9.9 (2) 147.75

Answer 56

B. (1) 6.6 (2) 147.75

Question 57

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• PNB-N12 (Inverter for 1-E-PNB-D26) fails to zero output.
Which of the following describes the effect on the Nuclear Instrumentation system?

A. Control Channel 2 loses power until power is manually shifted to the Voltage Regulator.
B. Control Channel 2 momentarily loses power until the PN bus shifts to the Voltage Regulator.
C. B train Safety channel is Inoperable until power is manually shifted to the Voltage Regulator.
D. ALL Safety channels remain Operable because “B” PN bus automatically shifts to the Voltage Regulator.

Answer 57

C. B train Safety channel is Inoperable until power is manually shifted to the Voltage Regulator.

Question 58

A “HIGH” alarm on (1) will cause the Air Removal post filter blower system (2) …

A. (1) RU-141, Condenser Vacuum/Gland Seal Exhaust (channel 1)
(2) bypass valve, inlet valve and outlet valve all to close.
B. (1) RU-141, Condenser Vacuum/Gland Seal Exhaust (channel 1)
(2) bypass valve to close, inlet valve to open and start the Post Filter Blower.
C. (1) RU-143, Plant Vent (Low Range Gas)
(2) bypass valve, inlet valve and outlet valve all to close.
D. (1) RU-143, Plant Vent (Low Range Gas)
(2) bypass valve to close, inlet valve to open and start the Post Filter Blower.

Answer 58

B. (1) RU-141, Condenser Vacuum/Gland Seal Exhaust (channel 1)
(2) bypass valve to close, inlet valve to open and start the Post Filter Blower.

Question 59

• Unit 1 automatically tripped from 100% power.
• A large steam line break in the Turbine Building has occurred.
• Both SGs dropped to 15% WR level.
• Both SGs dropped to 800 psig.
• Pressurizer pressure dropped to 1780 psia.
• Containment pressure is 0.3 psig.
• All appropriate ESFAS signals have actuated.
Subsequently:
• SG levels are 55% WR and rising.
• SG pressures are 1100 psig and stable.
• Pressurizer is 2000 psia and rising.
Which of the actuated ESFAS signals would have to be manually reset at both the
Initiation Reset panels and Aux Relay cabinets to allow opening the SG blowdown and
sample isolation valves without going to Override?

A. CIAS and AFAS
B. MSIS and SIAS
C. AFAS and MSIS
D. SIAS and CIAS

Answer 59

B. MSIS and SIAS

Question 60

• Reactor power is 52% and stable following a main turbine trip 30 minutes ago
• The Reactor Power Cutback system responded as designed
• The Steam Bypass Control system (SBCS) responded as designed
• The SBCS is in auto control with auto setpoint
• The RO now reports that SBCVs 3 and 6 are slowly going closed
• Tcold has remained constant
• Reactor power has remained at 52%
Which of the following events or malfunctions are in progress?

A. A slipped CEA
B. A small steam leak downstream of the MSIVs
C. Steam flow detector SGN-FT-1012 has failed high
D. Pressurizer pressure instrument RCN-PT-100Y has failed high

Answer 60

B. A small steam leak downstream of the MSIVs

Question 61

• Unit 1 is operating at 80% power.
• Hydraulic Fluid pump CON-P01A is under clearance for maintenance.
• Hydraulic Fluid pump CON-P01B trips on electrical protection.
(1) What automatic actions occur if the Hydraulic Fluid (EHC) Lo pressure setpoint is
reached?
(2) What procedure will the crew implement for these conditions?

A. (1) Main Turbine trips immediately
(2) 40AO-9ZZ08, Load Rejection
B. (1) Main Turbine trips after a 70 second time delay
(2) 40AO-9ZZ08, Load Rejection
C. (1) Main Turbine trips immediately
(2) 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip
D. (1) Main Turbine trips after a 70 second time delay
(2) 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip

Answer 61

A. (1) Main Turbine trips immediately

(2) 40AO-9ZZ08, Load Rejection

Question 62

• Unit 1 automatically tripped from 100% power.
• 40EP-9EO03, LOCA has been entered.
• Hydrogen Analyzers are in service.
• Containment pressure is 4.4 psig and lowering.
• Containment Spray flow has been secured.
(1) What is the minimum hydrogen concentration that can be detected by the Hydrogen
Analyzers?
(2) If both Hydrogen Recombiners malfunction what actions can be taken to control
hydrogen concentration?

A. (1) 0.7 % (2) Operate the Containment Spray system.
B. (1) 0.7 % (2) Operate the Hydrogen Purge Exhaust unit.
C. (1) 4.0 % (2) Operate the Containment Spray system.
D. (1) 4.0 % (2) Operate the Hydrogen Purge Exhaust unit.

Answer 62

B. (1) 0.7 % (2) Operate the Hydrogen Purge Exhaust unit.

Question 63

• An attempt to start a Circulating Water pump has been made and the pump failed to
start.
Which of the following describes the interlock that is preventing the pump from starting?
The Circulating Water…

A. intake canal level is too low.
B. pump’s discharge valve is closed.
C. loop’s condenser outlet valve is closed.
D. loop’s cross-tie valve (CW-HV-11) is closed.

Answer 63

C. loop’s condenser outlet valve is closed.

Question 64

• The Unit is at 100% power.
• All rods are fully withdrawn (ARO).
Subsequently,
• 0100 - a 4 finger CEA slips to 60” withdrawn.
• 0145 - The operating crew is ready to realign the CEA with its group.
Determine which ONE of the following is the SHORTEST time, allowed by the procedure, to withdraw the CEA?
40AO-9ZZ11, Appendix C, CEA Withdrawal Time Limits is provided.

A. 6 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Answer 64

A. 6 minutes

Question 65

The Technical Specification for RCS Activity, LCO 3.4.17, is Applicable in __(1)__ and is
based on a(an) __(2)__ accident.

A. (1) MODES 1 through 4
(2) Excess Steam Demand
B. (1) MODES 1 and 2 ONLY
(2) Excess Steam Demand
C. (1) MODES 1 through 4
(2) Steam Generator Tube Rupture
D. (1) MODES 1 and 2 ONLY
(2) Steam Generator Tube Rupture

Answer 65

C. (1) MODES 1 through 4

(2) Steam Generator Tube Rupture

Question 66

After a SIAS and a Loss of Offsite Power, and assuming NO operator actions, NNN-D16 is
energized on…

A. Unit 2 ONLY
B. Unit 3 ONLY
C. Units 2 and 3 ONLY
D. Units 1 and 2 ONLY

Answer 66

B. Unit 3 ONLY

Question 67

The required
method used to track an INOPERABLE Boron Dilution Alarm channel is via
the/a…

A. Operations Concerns database.
B. Equipment Status Tag (EST) Log.
C. CORA (Control Room Automated) Timer.
D. Technical Specification Component Condition Record (TSCCR).

Answer 67

D. Technical Specification Component Condition Record (TSCCR).

Question 68

According to 40DP-9OP29, Power Block Clearance and Tagging, which ONE of the
following defines a MINIMUM value, or a condition, that requires two valve protection,
when possible?

A. System temperature of 210°F
B. System pressure of 500 psig.
C. When any caustic chemical system is tagged.
D. When a vent/drain path CANNOT be established within the clearance boundary.

Answer 68

B. System pressure of 500 psig.

Question 69

• Unit 1 is in Mode 6.
• Refueling operations are on-going.
• LSRO is stationed in containment.
(1) Reactor Operator monitors Spent Fuel Pool level to ensure it is maintained above the
T.S. LCO 3.7.14, Fuel Storage Pool Water Level, MINIMUM of ____ feet over the top
of irradiated fuel assemblies seated in the storage racks.
(2) As stated in 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, the individual designated to
maintain the Control Room command function will normally be the CRS but may be…..

A. (1) 22.5
(2) only another qualified SRO.
B. (1) 22.5
(2) either a qualified RO or SRO.
C. (1) 23
(2) only another qualified SRO.
D. (1) 23
(2) either a qualified RO or SRO.

Answer 69

D. (1) 23

(2) either a qualified RO or SRO.

Question 70

Which of the following monitors are considered part of the RCS Leakage Detection
System in accordance with T.S. LCO 3.4.16, RCS Leakage Detection Instrumentation?

A. RU-16, Operating Level Area.
B. RU-17, Incore Instrument Area.
C. RU-1, Containment Atmosphere.
D. RU-149, High Range in Containment Area.

Answer 70

C. RU-1, Containment Atmosphere.

Question 71

The Palo Verde Fire Response Team includes a Fire Team Advisor (FTA) who at a
MINIMUM must be a qualified __(1)__ and ONE is required for __(2)__.

A. (1) Reactor Operator (2) the site.
B. (1) Reactor Operator (2) each unit.
C. (1) Senior Reactor Operator (2) the site.
D. (1) Senior Reactor Operator (2) each unit.

Answer 71

A. (1) Reactor Operator (2) the site.

Question 72

• Unit 2 tripped due to a Loss of Offsite Power.
• 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC has been entered.
• Standard Appendix 62, NKN-M46 Load Reduction and Main Generator Venting has
been sent to the field.
(1) The Auxiliary Operator will perform actions to de-energize DC lube oil pumps and
aligns NKN-U45 and NKN-U46, transfer switches to
(2) These actions ensure DC power is available for switchyard breaker control and…

A. (1) NKN-M45, non-class 125vdc bus
(2) emergency seal oil pump operation to prevent hydrogen leakage out of the
main generator seals.
B. (1) NKN-M46, non-class 125vdc bus
(2) emergency seal oil pump operation to prevent hydrogen leakage out of the
main generator seals.
C. (1) NKN-M45, non-class 125vdc bus
(2) emergency oil pumps are available for the main feedpump and main turbine to
prevent shaft bowing.
D. (1) NKN-M46, non-class 125vdc bus
(2) emergency oil pumps are available for the main feedpump and main turbine to
prevent shaft bowing.

Answer 72

B. (1) NKN-M46, non-class 125vdc bus
(2) emergency seal oil pump operation to prevent hydrogen leakage out of the
main generator seals.

Question 73

• Unit 1 has declared an Emergency Action Level.
• Command and Control has been transferred to the EOF.
Under these conditions, the NRC Operations Center shall be notified using the __(1)__
and they must be notified __(2)__ following notifications to the state and local agencies.

A. (1) NAN Phone
(2) within 15 minutes
B. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone
(2) within 15 minutes
C. (1) NAN Phone
(2) immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration
D. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone
(2) immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration

Answer 73

D. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone

(2) immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration

Question 74

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• An inadvertent “A” train CSAS has occurred.
• NCA-UV-402, NCW Containment Downstream Return Isolation Valve, is closed.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) NCA-UV-402 must be OPENED within a maximum of or trip the reactor and
stop all RCPs.
(2) If NCA-UV-402 is over-ridden and opened then the penetration must be isolated within
to satisfy the conditions of LCO 3.6.3

A. (1) 3 minutes (2) 4 hours
B. (1) 3 minutes (2) 24 hours
C. (1) 10 minutes (2) 4 hours
D. (1) 10 minutes (2) 24 hours

Answer 74

C. (1) 10 minutes (2) 4 hours

Question was flagged. Doug Wilson confirmed answer.

Question 75

• Unit 1 is in a refueling outage.
• Tcold is 180°F.
• RCS pressure is 150 psia.
• LPSI A is providing Shutdown Cooling flow at 4500 gpm.
• Shutdown Cooling Train B is in standby.
Subsequently:
• RCS level is slowly lowering.
• Containment sump alarms are annunciating.
• Makeup sources to the RCS are being aligned.
• LPSI A is now exhibiting flow and amp oscillations every 30 seconds.
1. Which of the following is the correct mitigating procedure?
2. What is the first directed action in response to the LPSI pump oscillations?

A. (1) Functional Recovery (2) Reduce SDC flow to 3780 gpm.
B. (1) Functional Recovery (2) Close the B train SDC suction valves.
C. (1) Lower Mode Functional Recovery (2) Reduce SDC flow to 3780 gpm.
D. (1) Lower Mode Functional Recovery (2) Close the B train SDC suction valves.

Answer 75

C. (1) Lower Mode Functional Recovery (2) Reduce SDC flow to 3780 gpm.

Question 76

• Unit 1 was manually tripped from 100% power due to a tube leak on SG #1.
• 13.8 kV bus NAN-S01 tripped due to electrical fault.
• 13.8 kV bus NAN-S02 is energized.
• The CRS is performing steps in 40EP-9EO04, SGTR.
• SG #1 has been isolated.
• RCS hot leg is 522°F.
• RCS cold leg is 520°F.
• RCS pressure is 1200 psia.
• Preparations are being made to cool down the RCS to Mode 5.
The cooldown rate is limited to a maximum of…

A. 30°F/hr to prevent the non ductile failure of the Reactor Coolant Pressure
Boundary.
B. 30°F/hr to ensure that the two SGs remain thermodynamically coupled and
cooled together.
C. 100°F/hr to prevent the non ductile failure of the Reactor Coolant Pressure
Boundary.
D. 100°F/hr to ensure that the two SGs remain thermodynamically coupled and
cooled together.

Answer 76

C. 100°F/hr to prevent the non ductile failure of the Reactor Coolant Pressure
Boundary.

Question 77

• Unit 1 automatically tripped from 100% power.
• 525kV East Bus, MAN-EI-001, has no indication.
• 525kV West Bus, MAN-EI-002, has no indication.
• DG B started but tripped on low lube oil pressure.
• PBA-S03, 4160 class bus, is being powered by DG A.
• AFA-P01, Auxiliary feed pump A, is under clearance and OOS.
• SG levels are 52% WR and lowering.
Which one of the following is correct?

A. Implement 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip , NO MSIS initiation required, restore SG levels using AFN-P01.
B. Implement 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC, NO MSIS initiation required, restore SG levels using AFN-P01.
C. Implement 40EP-9EO02, Reactor Trip, initiate an MSIS then restore SG levels using AFN-P01 by overriding the downcomer Isolation valves.
D. Implement 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC, initiate an MSIS then restore SG levels using AFN-P01 by overriding the downcomer Isolation valves.

Answer 77

D. Implement 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC, initiate an MSIS then restore SG levels using AFN-P01 by overriding the downcomer Isolation valves.

Question 78

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Group 5 CEAs are at 120 inches withdrawn for ASI control.
• Class instrument bus, PKC-M43, has faulted and is de-energized.
(1) What is the correct Tech Spec as it applies to CEA alignment?
(2) What is the impact on the CEDMCS system and the ability to position CEAs.
LCO 3.1.5 is provided as a reference

A. (1) Enter LCO 3.0.3, because the conditions of 3.1.5 B are not satisfied.
(2) Subgroup logic prevents the positioning of the group 5 CEAs in Manual Sequential.
B. (1) Enter LCO 3.1.5, Condition B.
(2) Subgroup logic allows the positioning of the group 5 CEAs in Manual Sequential.
C. (1) Enter LCO 3.1.5, Condition B.
(2) Subgroup logic prevents the positioning of the group 5 CEAs in Manual Sequential.
D. (1) Enter LCO 3.0.3, because the conditions of 3.1.5 B are not satisfied.
(2) Subgroup logic allows the positioning of the group 5 CEAs in Manual Sequential.

Answer 78

A. (1) Enter LCO 3.0.3, because the conditions of 3.1.5 B are not satisfied.
(2) Subgroup logic prevents the positioning of the group 5 CEAs in Manual Sequential.

Question 79

• Unit 1 automatically tripped from 100% power.
• Loop 1 Tcold is is 520°F and lowering.
• Loop 2 Tcold is is 540°F and slowly lowering.
• RCS pressure is 1800 psia and lowering.
• Containment pressure is 4 psig and rising.
• Containment humidity and temperatures are increasing.
• Reactor operator reports no activity in the steam plant or containment.
• PBA-S03, 4.16kV bus faulted and is de-energized.
1. After completion of the SPTAs, which EOP should the CRS implement?
2. In addition to any Emergency Plan notifications, the first notification to the NRC of
current plant conditions must be initiated within a maximum of .
Event Reporting Manual “Quick Reference table” is provided

A. (1) 40EP-9EO03, LOCA (2) 4 hours
B. (1) 40EP-9EO03, LOCA (2) 8 hours
C. (1) 40EP-9EO05, ESD (2) 4 hours
D. (1) 40EP-9EO05, ESD (2) 8 hours

Answer 79

C. (1) 40EP-9EO05, ESD (2) 4 hours

Question 80

• Unit 1 is operating at 90% power.
• Group 5 CEAs are 85 inches withdrawn.
• Group 5 CEAs are currently below the Transient Insertion Limits
• To comply with the conditions of LCO 3.1.7 (CEA Insertion Limits) group 5 CEAs are
being withdrawn to 95 inches.
• On the first step out CEA 15 slips to 65 inches withdrawn.
(1) If the CEA position switch is held in the outward motion position, CEA motion will stop
due to…
(2) What actions are directed by 40AO-9ZZ11, CEA Malfunctions?

A. (1) a CEA Withdrawl Prohibit (CWP) being generated. (2) Trip the reactor and enter 40EP-9EO01, SPTAs
B. (1) a CEA Withdrawl Prohibit (CWP) being generated. (2) start a power reduction within 10 minutes of the initial CEA deviation:
C. (1) the Automatic CEDM Timer Module (ACTM) stopping group motion. (2) Trip the reactor and enter 40EP-9EO01, SPTAs
D. (1) the Automatic CEDM Timer Module (ACTM) stopping group motion. (2) start a power reduction within 10 minutes of the initial CEA deviation:

Answer 80

A. (1) a CEA Withdrawl Prohibit (CWP) being generated. (2) Trip the reactor and enter 40EP-9EO01, SPTAs

Question 81

• Unit 1 was manually tripped due to lowering pressurizer level and pressure.
• Containment Atmosphere monitor, RU-1 is alarming.
• A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred.
• PBB-S04, Class 4.16 Kva bus is de-energized due to a fault on DG B.
• SIAS, CIAS, MSIS and CSAS have initiated.
• SPTAs are complete and the CRS has entered the 40EP-9EO03, LOCA.
Subsequently
• Nuclear Cooling Water monitor, RU-6 is alarming.
• Nuclear Cooling water surge tank pressure and level alarms are occurring.
• RCP 2A has rising seal and bearing temperature.
• All attempts to close NCA-UV-402, NC Return CTMT Isolation valve, have failed.
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?

A. Stay in 40EP-9EO03, LOCA and close NCB-UV-401/403, NCW CTMT Isolation valves.
B. Stay in 40EP-9EO03, LOCA and close RCN-HV-448/452, RCP 2A HPSC Isolation Valves.
C. Go to 40EP-9EO09, FRP and take required actions to close NCB-UV-401/403, NCW CTMT Isolation valves.
D. Go to 40EP-9EO09, FRP and take required actions to close RCN-HV-448/452, RCP 2A HPSC Isolation Valves.

Answer 81

C. Go to 40EP-9EO09, FRP and take required actions to close NCB-UV-401/403, NCW CTMT Isolation valves.

Question 82

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• PZR pressure was reported as 2230 psia and lowering.
• Main spray valves 100E & 100F indicate full open.
• All attempts to close Main Spray valves have failed.
• Pressurizer pressure is 2050 psia and continuing to lower.
This will cause the RCN-PIC-100 (PPCS master controller) output to go to ___(1)__ and
the CRS should trip the reactor, __(2)__.

A. (1) minimum, (2) close IAA-UV-2 and enter 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).
B. (1) minimum, (2) stop all 4 RCPs and enter 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).
C. (1) maximum, (2) close IAA-UV-2 and enter 40EP-9EO02 (Reactor Trip).
D. (1) maximum, (2) stop all 4 RCPs and enter 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).

Answer 82

B. (1) minimum, (2) stop all 4 RCPs and enter 40EP-9EO07 (LOOP/LOFC).

Question 83

• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
• Class 4160 vac bus, PBB-S04 has faulted and is de-energized.
• A large break has occurred on the RCS 1A cold leg.
• 40EP-9EO03, LOCA has been implemented.
• RAS has actuated, all automatic and manual actions are complete.
• Containment level is on scale and has been stable for 20 minutes.
(1) What would be the indications of RAS sump blockage?
(2) Assuming that CS pump A has been stopped and HPSI A flow stabilized the CRS…

A. (1) Unstable or changing containment water level
(2) may remain in 40EP-9EO03, LOCA.
B. (1) Unstable or changing containment water level
(2) is required to transition to 40EP-9EO09, FRP.
C. (1) Unstable flow and discharge pressure on running SI pumps
(2) may remain in 40EP-9EO03, LOCA.
D. (1) Unstable flow and discharge pressure on running SI pumps
(2) is required to transition to 40EP-9EO09, FRP.

Answer 83

D. (1) Unstable flow and discharge pressure on running SI pumps
(2) is required to transition to 40EP-9EO09, FRP.

Question 84

• Unit 1 has entered a refueling outage.
• Tcold is 425°F and lowering.
• During an inspection maintenance discovered a fault on the connections between the
“A” battery and PKA-M41, 125 vdc class DC bus.
• Electrical reports that PKA-M41 needs to be de-energized.
De-energizing PKA-M41 would require entry into LCO 3.7.5 Conditions(s)…
LCO 3.7.5, Auxiliary Feedwater System is provided

A. A only
B. C only
C. A and B only
D. A, B and C

Answer 84

D. A, B and C

Question 85

• Unit 1 is operating in Mode 4 coming out of a refueling outage
• RU-1 (Containment Atmosphere) is declared inoperable
Which ONE of the following describes the required action (if any) per Technical
Specification 3.4.16 (RCS Leakage Detection Instrumentation)?

A. Perform RCS water inventory balance once per 72 hours.
B. Analyze grab samples of the containment atmosphere once per 24 hours.
C. No action required as long as containment sump monitor remains operable.
D. No action required as long as RU-16 (Containment Operating Level) remains
operable.

Answer 85

B. Analyze grab samples of the containment atmosphere once per 24 hours.

Question 86

• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RCA-LI-110X was declared Inoperable 3 shifts ago due to erratic readings.
• I & C has completed all scheduled maintenance/rework activities.
In order to restore Operability a deviation check between pressurizer level instruments
RCA-LI-110X and (1) as identified in (2) must be performed.

A. (1) RCB-LI-110Y only
(2) 40ST-9ZZ10, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Channel Checks only
B. (1) RCB-LI-110Y and RCN-LI-103
(2) 40ST-9ZZ10, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Channel Checks only
C. (1) RCB-LI-110Y only
(2) 40ST-9ZZ22, Remote Shutdown Instrumentation Channel Checks and 40ST-9ZZ10, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Channel Checks
D. (1) RCB-LI-110Y and RCN-LI-103
(2) 40ST-9ZZ22, Remote Shutdown Instrumentation Channel Checks and 40ST-9ZZ10, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Channel Checks

Answer 86

C. (1) RCB-LI-110Y only
(2) 40ST-9ZZ22, Remote Shutdown Instrumentation Channel Checks and 40ST-9ZZ10, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation Channel Checks

Question 87

• A Dry Cask is being loaded then transported from Unit 3 to the Independent Spent
Fuel Storage Installation, ISFSI.
Which of the following identifies who has responsibility and ownership for the Dry Cask….
(1) when it is being loaded?
(2) during transport to the ISFSI?

A. (1) Unit 3 Shift Manager (2) Unit 1 Shift Manager
B. (1) Unit 3 Shift Manager (2) Unit 3 Shift Manager
C. (1) Dry Cask Loading Coordinator (2) Unit 1 Shift Manager
D. (1) Dry Cask Loading Coordinator (2) Unit 3 Shift Manager

Answer 87

B. (1) Unit 3 Shift Manager (2) Unit 3 Shift Manager

Question 88

• Unit 1 was manually tripped due to a SGTL on SG 1.
• On the trip, offsite power was lost.
• Alarm PBYS2, SWGR PBA-S03 Sply Breaker Lockout Trip is alarming.
• Window 1A06A, 4.16KV IE TR A Sply Bkr LKO Trip is lit
The following conditions were reported during SPTAs.
• PZR press is 1700 psia and lowering.
• RCS temperature is 490°F and lowering.
• SG 1 pressure is 600 psia and rapidly lowering.
• SG 2 pressure is 800 psia and slowly lowering.
• SG #1 level is 20% WR and lowering.
• SG #2 level is 42% WR and stable.
• Feedrate is 0 gpm to both SGs.
• Containment pressure is 0.3 psig and stable.
• Valid radiation monitor alarms are reported in the steam plant.
Which of the following is the correct strategy per 40EP-9EO09, FRP?

A. Raise SG 2 level to 45% -60% NR using either AFB-P01 or AFN-P01. Do not feed SG 1.
B. Raise SG 2 level to 45% -60% NR using either AFB-P01 or AFA-P01. Do not feed SG 1.
C. Raise SG 1 level to 45% - 60% NR at 1360 - 1600 gpm using both AFB-P01 and AFN-P01. Slowly recover SG 2 level to 45% - 60% NR.
D. Raise SG 1 level to 45% - 60% NR at 1360 - 1600 gpm using both AFB-P01 and AFA-P01. Slowly recover SG 2 level to 45% - 60% NR.

Answer 88

D. Raise SG 1 level to 45% - 60% NR at 1360 - 1600 gpm using both AFB-P01 and
AFA-P01. Slowly recover SG 2 level to 45% - 60% NR.

Question 89

In order to comply with the minimum staffing requirements as defined in the Technical
Specifications, 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, requires that an SRO meet
which of the following requirements to maintain an active SRO license?
The Senior License holder must stand a minimum of….

A. 40 hours and all must be in an SRO-only supervisory position.
B. 40 hours with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.
C. five 12 hour shifts and all must be in an SRO-only supervisory position.
D. five 12 hour shifts with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.

Answer 89

D. five 12 hour shifts with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.

Question 90

• The Site Control Rooms are presently staffed by the following personnel.
UNIT 1 (1 Shift Manager, 1 STA (Unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs)
Unit 2 (1 Shift Manager, 1 STA (Unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs)
Unit 3 (1 Shift Manager, 1 STA (Unlicensed), 1 CRS, 3 ROs)
• The Fire Team Advisor is being supplied by the Unit 3 third RO.
• One of the Unit 1 ROs becomes ill and has to leave the site immediately.
• It is three hours until the end of the shift.
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?
The Unit 1 Operating Crew…

A. can continue to operate with the reduced manning for the remainder of the shift per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.
B. must enter LCO 3.0.3 immediately and make preparations to be in MODE 5 within 37 hours due to failure to meet Technical Specification 5.2.2, Unit Organization Staff.
C. can continue to operate with the reduced manning, provided that the FTA from Unit 3 assumes the 2nd RO in Unit 1 to comply with Technical Specification 5.2.2,
Unit Organization Staff.
D. can continue to operate with the reduced manning for up to 2 hours, provided immediate action is taken to restore crew manning to the minimum requirements
per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

Answer 90

D. can continue to operate with the reduced manning for up to 2 hours, provided immediate action is taken to restore crew manning to the minimum requirements per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

Question 91

• Unit 1 is in Mode 1.
• High Pressure Safety Injection (HPSI) Pump B, SIB-P02, unexpectedly tripped during surveillance testing.
(1) Restore SIB-P02 to Operable status within or enter LCO 3.5.3 Condition C, be in Mode 3 in 6 hrs AND reduce pressurizer pressure < 1837 psia in 12 hrs AND reduce RCS Tc <485°F in 12 hrs.
(2) Who determines the level of troubleshooting per 01DP-9ZZ01, Systematic Troubleshooting?

A. (1) 7 days (2) Shift Technical Advisor
B. (1) 72 hours (2) Shift Technical Advisor
C. (1) 7 days (2) Shift Manager
D. (1) 72 hours (2) Shift Manager

Answer 91

D. (1) 72 hours (2) Shift Manager

Question 92

• Unit 1 is in a refueling outage.
• Pressurizer manway has been removed.
• Maintenance has requested permission to open the Equipment Hatch
In regards to opening the Equipment Hatch …
(1) Provided that personnel are inside containment, in close proximity and available to close the equipment hatch then the equipment hatch may be opened if the time to boil is greater than a minimum of …..
(2) The decision to allow equipment hatch closure personnel to perform other duties resides solely with the…..

A. (1) 30 minutes (2) Shift Manager
B. (1) 30 minutes (2) Containment Coordinator
C. (1) 60 minutes (2) Shift Manager
D. (1) 60 minutes (2) Containment Coordinator

Answer 92

A. (1) 30 minutes (2) Shift Manager

Question 93

• Unit 1 is in Mode 6.
• Core off-load is in progress.
• LPSI Pump A is in service providing SDC flow at 4100 gpm.
• LSRO reports that a fuel assembly has been dropped in the Refueling Pool.
• Bubbles can be seen emerging from the dropped assembly.
• Power Access Purge monitors, RU-37 and RU-38, are trending up.
• Operating Level Area monitor, RU-16, is trending up.
The CRS is required to enter (1) and ensure (2).

A. (1) 40EP-9EO11, LMFRP
(2) CPIAS and CREFAS are initiated
B. (1) 40EP-9EO11, LMFRP
(2) an equal number of Auxiliary Building normal and exhaust fans are running
C. (1) 40AO-9ZZ22, Fuel Damage
(2) CPIAS and CREFAS are initiated
D. (1) 40AO-9ZZ22, Fuel Damage
(2) an equal number of Auxiliary Building normal and exhaust fans are running

Answer 93

C. (1) 40AO-9ZZ22, Fuel Damage

(2) CPIAS and CREFAS are initiated

Question 94

During an Emergency Plan event involving a radiological release, the (1) is responsible for exposure limit authorization up to a MAXIMUM of (2) in order to
“protect valuable property” of the station.

A. (1) Emergency Coordinator
(2) 10 REM TEDE per event
B. (1) Emergency Coordinator
(2) 25 REM TEDE per event
C. (1) Emergency Operations Director
(2) 10 REM TEDE per event
D. (1) Emergency Operations Director
(2) 25 REM TEDE per event

Answer 94

A. (1) Emergency Coordinator

(2) 10 REM TEDE per event

Question 95

Determine the first priority safety function to be addressed and the bases for that choice.
Safety Function Tracking Sheet from 40EP-9EO09, FRP provided.

A. RC-2 should be addressed first because it is the highest priority safety function in use.
B. IC-2 should be addressed first because it is the highest priority safety function whose acceptance criteria is not being met.
C. MVAC-2 must be addressed first to ensure that the “Bus Plus” criteria is available to support all of the other safety functions.
D. MVDC-1 should be addressed first because it is the highest priority safety function that requires actions be taken to ensure that the criteria continue to be
met.

Answer 95

B. IC-2 should be addressed first because it is the highest priority safety function whose acceptance criteria is not being met.