2009 Flashcards
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following conditions:
RCP 1A Upper Thrust Bearing temperature is 190°F and stable.
RCP 1A seal #2 inlet pressure is 1270 psig and stable.
RCP 1A Seal Bleed Off flow is 2.6 gpm and stable.
RCS pressure is 2170 psia and stable.
Reactor Drain tank level is 55% and slowly increasing
Pressurizer level is 54% and slowly increasing.
Letdown flow is 74 gpm and slowly increasing.
Nuclear Cooling water flow from the Letdown heat exchanger (NCN-FI-208) is slowly increasing.
The Crew should take actions per ….
A. 40AO-9ZZ04, RCP Emergencies due to abnormal RCP seal parameters.
B. 40AO-9ZZ04, RCP Emergencies due to abnormal RCP bearing parameters.
C. 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate due to a small Pressurizer steam space
leak.
D. 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate due to a small RCS to Nuclear Cooling
water leak.
A and B are Wrong - Examinee will have to determine normal Seal and Bearing
parameters for the 1A RCP. In addition 2.6 gpm is a normal SBO flow rate to the RDT
C is Correct - Increasing pressurizer level above program band is a classic PZR steam
space leak. RCS pressure may drop slightly but will remain essentially constant for a small
RCS leak.
D is Wrong - Letdown increasing in response to PZR level increase will cause NCW flow to
increase but examinee may believe that a leak to NCW will increase temperature requiring
more NCW flow to provide cooling.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 2 was manually tripped per 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate.
The CRS has implemented 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident.
Containment pressure peaked at 4.2 and is currently 3.8 psig.
All the required automatic ESFAS actuations have properly initiated.
What is the expected status and required actions (if any) to recover the Containment Normal ACUs?
A. The Containment Normal ACUs are running and Normal Chill Water (WC) is
available.
B. The Containment Normal ACUs are tripped, go to start twice to restart. Normal
Chill Water (WC) is available.
C. The Containment Normal ACUs are running but Normal Chill Water (WC) is
isolated and the valves must be over-ridden to open.
D. The Containment Normal ACUs are tripped, go to stop then start to restart.
Normal Chill Water (WC) is isolated and the valves must be over-ridden to open.
A is Wrong - ACUs are tripped and WC is isolated.
B is Wrong - Go to start twice is the required action to recover a CS pump following an
inadvertant CSAS concurrent with a SIAS. WC is isolated.
C is Wrong - ACUs have tripped.
D is Correct - ACUs are tripped, WC is isolated both are recovered by going to override.
Which one on the following correctly identifies the purpose or Design Criteria of the Safety Injection
system as it relates to a Large Break LOCA event?
A. Peak cladding temperature shall not exceed 2200°F.
Local power density shall be maintained less than 21KW/ft.
Maximum cladding oxidation shall nowhere exceed 17% times the cladding
thickness.
B. Peak cladding temperature shall not exceed 2200°F.
Local power density shall be maintained less than 21KW/ft.
Calculated changes in core geometry shall be such that the core remains amenable
to cooling.
C. Local power density shall be maintained less than 21KW/ft.
Maximum cladding oxidation shall nowhere exceed 17% times the cladding
thickness.
Calculated changes in core geometry shall be such that the core remains amenable
to cooling.
D. Peak cladding temperature shall not exceed 2200°F.
Maximum cladding oxidation shall nowhere exceed 17% times the cladding
thickness.
Calculated changes in core geometry shall be such that the core remains amenable
to cooling.
A, B and C all include 21 KW/ft this is in the design of CPC and is the old PVNGS
safety function not a function of the ECCS system
D is Correct - all design functions of the ECCS system during a LOCA
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
2A RCP Upper Thrust Bearing temperature is observed to be in alarm at 230 degrees and increasing.
In accordance with 40AO-9ZZ04 (RCP Emergencies) which one of the following actions can be
performed to slow the rate of temperature rise?
A. Start the 2A hydraulic oil lift pump PO2C.
B. Start the standby Nuclear Cooling Water pump.
C. Increase the output of CHN-FIC-243, Seal Injection Flow Controller.
D. Stop all but one Normal Chiller, ensure that only one Nuclear Cooling Water
outlet valve is open.
A is Correct - procedurally directed for high temperature
B is Wrong - directed in the case of high temperature and loss of cooling water
C is Wrong - These are reverse acting controllers, increasing ouput would cause a
reduction in flow and increase temperature.
D is Wrong - directed in the case of high temperature and a loss of cooling water
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
CHN-UV-240, Charging Line to RC Loop 2A valve, has failed closed.
Which one of the following would be the effect on the Chemical and Volume Control system?
A. Auxiliary Spray flow is not available.
B. Seal Injection flow to the RCPs is lost.
C. Regen HX outlet valve CHB-UV-515 will close on high temperature, isolating
Letdown flow.
D. Differential pressure between Charging and the RCS increases, charging flow to
the loop is unchanged.
A is Wrong - CHN-HV-240 going closed maintains adequate pressure to the aux. spray
valves
B is Wrong - Seal Injection flow is isolated by either CHN-UV-231 or 255
C is Wrong - CHB-UV-515 closes on high temp out of the Regen HX, this will not occur
since charging flow is maintained.
D is Correct -
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is in Mode 6
LPSI pump “A” is in service providing Shutdown Cooling flow at 4200 gpm
Subsequently: The 4160 vac class bus (PBA-S03) de-energizes when a fault occurs on the ESF
transformer NBN-X03.
1 minute after the fault, Shutdown Cooling (SDC) flow is …
A. 0 gpm, LPSI pump “A” breaker is anti-pumped.
B. 0 gpm, LPSI pump “A” is available but did not receive a start signal.
C. 4200 gpm after the “A” DG started and sequenced the LPSI pump on.
D. 4200 gpm, after the Operator throttles the SDC injection valves back to their
original position.
A is Wrong - examinee may confuse this condition sith similar events such as charging
pumps which become anti-pumped following a LOP
B is Correct - DG output breaker will close and energize the bus but there is no ESFAS
signal present to close the A LPSI pump breaker.
C is Wrong - The LPSI pump would sequence on with a SIAS present but ESFAS signals
are jumperd out during an outage but RCS pressure is < the SIAS setpoint.
D is Wrong - Same as above but this also assumes that the valves would go full open and
have to be positioned back to their original value.
The following changes are observed in Nuclear Cooling water (NCW) temperatures while operating at full
power.
NCW temperatures from the Reactor Coolant Pumps are increasing.
Control Element Drive Mechanisms ACUs outlet temperatures are increasing.
NCW temperature from Letdown heat exchanger is stable.
The “in-service” Fuel Pool heat exchanger NCW return temperature is stable.
Which one of the following events could have occurred?
A. Loss of Plant Cooling water (PW).
B. Inadvertant Containment Spray Actuation (CSAS).
C. Loss of Motor Control Center PHB-M34 (de-energized).
D. Outside containment Instrument Air isolation valve IAA-UV-2 has failed closed.
A is Wrong - Loss of PW would cause all NCW return temp to increase
B is Correct - CSAS isolated containment
C and D are Wrong - examinee could believe that the isolation valves fail closed on a
loss of IA or Power
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating in Mode 1.
The controlling pressurizer pressure channel has failed high.
Assuming NO operator actions are taken, which one of the following conditions would you expect to
occur?
A. RCS pressure increases until a reactor trip occurs from high pressurizer
pressure.
B. RCS pressure decreases until a reactor trip occurs from low DNBR or low
pressurizer pressure.
C. Backup heaters de-energize, pressurizer spray valves open, and pressurizer
pressure stabilizes at a lower value than setpoint.
D. Backup heaters energize, pressurizer spray valves open, and pressurizer
pressure stabilizes at a higher value than setpoint.
A is Wrong - Examinee may confuse the operation of the PPCS and believe a
malfunction could cause the high pressure trip. High pressure alarms will actuate
B is Correct - The controlling channel failing high will cause all heaters to deenergize
and spray vales to open driving the plant to a low pressure trip.
C and D are Wrong - BU heaters will de-energize and spray valves will open but the
plant will not stabilize either higher or lower than setpoint.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is at 30% power while shutting down in preparations for a refueling outage.
Reactor Coolant pump 1A has tripped.
The reactor did not automatically trip.
All attempts to trip the reactor from the Control Room have failed.
Assuming no other operator actions, initiating an 80 gpm boration would add …
A. positive reactivity to the core and cause RCS temperature to increase.
B. positive reactivity to the core and cause RCS temperature to decrease.
C. negative reactivity to the core and cause RCS temperature to increase.
D. negative reactivity to the core and cause RCS temperature to decrease.
Justification: The examinee may confuse the purpose of boron and dilution as to which
will add negative reactivity. Another consideration is that there is a time in core life (BOL,
high boron concentration and low power) when a positive MTC could exist where the
effects of temperature change don’t follow the normal core dynamics.
A, B and C are Wrong
D is Correct –
During an Excessive Steam Demand event, why should safety injection be throttled as soon as the
throttle criteria is met?
A. Prevents excessive cooldown.
B. Minimizes erosion damage to the injection valves.
C. Minimizes the possibility of pressurized thermal shock.
D. Minimizes the time SI pumps are running on mini-flow.
A is Wrong - Throttling HPSI may help limit the cooldown but is not the event of concern
B is Wrong - Erosion may occur to the downstream piping
C is Correct - As stated in the Tech Guideline limiting RCS repressuization will lessen PTS
concerns
D is Wrong - may be true but not the event of concern
The Steam Generator “low level” trip setpoint is approximately WR and is designed to …
A. 25.8%, prevent exceeding the design pressure of the RCS.
B. 44.2%, prevent exceeding the design pressure of the RCS.
C. 25.8%, protect against core damage due to the occurrence of locally saturated
conditions in the limiting (hot) channel.
D. 44.2%, protect against core damage due to the occurrence of locally saturated
conditions in the limiting (hot) channel.
A is Wrong - AFAS setpoint
B is Correct - Low SG trip setpoint is to prevent exceeding RCS design pressure
C is Wrong - AFAS setpoint
D is Wrong - DNB is caused by a loss of RCS water
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Offsite power.
The “B” DG is out of service for scheduled maintenance.
The “A” DG failed to come up to speed.
Under these conditions the class (PK) batteries are designed to maintain rated voltage for …
A. 2 hours to provide continuous DC during a Design Basis Event.
B. 4 hours to provide continuous DC during a Design Basis Event.
C. 2 hours to provide sufficient power for the protection and control of transformers
and switchgear.
D. 4 hours to provide sufficient power for the protection and control of transformers
and switchgear.
A is Correct - 2 hours and concurrent DBE-LOCA concurrent with BO as found in
FSAR
B is Wrong - 4 hours is the rating for the non-lass NK batteries
C is Wrong - power for the protection and control of transformers is for the nonclass
NK batteries, examinee may choose this believing that the ESF transformers
use class power
D is Wrong - 4 hours is the rating for the non-lass NK batteries
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Offsite power.
The following report is made for B01 electric plant status:
13.8 and 4.16 kVAC non class buses are de-energized.
4.16 kVAC class busses are energized by their respective DGs
Class and non-class DC buses are energized.
120 vac non class instrument buses were de-energized but have transferred to their class
backup sources
120 vac class instrument buses are energized.
Assuming no Operator action, which one of following Reactor Coolant system temperature responses
should the crew expect to see in the 10 minutes following the LOOP.
A. T-cold is stable at 564°F with T-hot approximately 3°F hotter.
B. T-cold is stable at 564°F with T-hot approximately 30°F hotter.
C. T-cold increases to 572°F with T-hot approximately 3°F hotter.
D. T-cold increases to 572°F with T-hot approximately 30°F hotter.
Justification: On the loss of power the SBCS comes back in manual with 0% output.
With no operation action, Tcold will be controlled by the safeties at 1250 (572
degrees) as T hot increases in Natural Circulation conditions. If SBCS was working it
maintains 1170 (564 degrees). 30 degree delta T is a reasonable number for nat’l circ
conditions.
A is Wrong -
B is Wrong -
C is Wrong -
D is Correct -
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% full power.
A total loss of offsite power has occurred.
Emergency diesel generator “A” tripped.
AFB-P01 is providing feedwater flow.
ADVs are in use for reactor coolant system heat removal.
There are no abnormal radiation trends or alarms.
PNA-D25, channel “A” 120 VAC, is deenergized.
All other systems are operating as designed.
WHICH ONE of the following correctly identifies the optimal recovery strategy for plant stabilization?
A. Enter the Functional Recovery Procedure due to the MVAC safety function being
jeopardized.
B. Enter the Functional Recovery Procedure because no other EOP will mitigate the
events in progress.
C. Complete the Loss of Forced Circulation (LOOP), only then may the Loss of
Class Instrument Power procedure be addressed.
D. The CRS may elect to perform the Loss of Forced Circulation (LOOP) and Loss
of Class Instrument Power procedures concurrently.
is Wrong - MVAC is met for the LOFC/LOOP procedure
B is Wrong - LOOP will mitigate the event
C is Wrong – This action is allowed per the users guide.
D is Correct - EOP users guide the concurrent use of EOPs and AOPs
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% full power.
NBN-X04, ESF Transformer, trips on sudden pressure.
Emergency diesel generator “B” starts and loads.
What effect (if any) would a loss of the Class 1E 125 VDC bus, PKB-M42, have on the “B” DG?
The “B” DG …
A. trips and it’s output breaker opens.
B. trips and it’s output breaker remains closed.
C. continues to run and it’s output breaker opens.
D. continues to run and it’s output breaker remains closed.
Justification: If running the DG trips but its output breaker remains closed. Any
combination of these conditions could be plausible
A is Wrong -
B is Correct -
C is Wrong -
D is Wrong –
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
RCS pressure is being maintained at 2230 psia.
The pressurizer is in Boron Equalization.
Subsequently
RCS pressure is slowly increasing.
Letdown flow goes to 0 gpm.
Main Spray valves RCN-PV-100E/F indicate closed.
CHB-UV-515, Letdown to Regen HX isolation valve, indicates closed.
CHA-UV-516, Letdown to Regen HX isolation valve, indicates closed.
Which one of the following is correct for these indications?
A. CIAS has actuated. Verify containment parameters.
B. Nuclear Cooling Water flow has been lost. Cross-tie Essential Cooling Water.
C. Instrument air leak in Containment. Close IAA-UV-2, Instrument Air Outside
Containment Isolation.
D. NNN-D11 (Non-class instrument power) has de-energized. Align the instrument
bus to it’s alternate supply.
A is Wrong - CIAS closes CHA-UV-516 not both
B is Wrong - A loss of NCW causes CH-HV-523 to close but would not account for
the remaining events
C is Correct - A loss of IA closes the spray valve and containment Isolation valves
D is Wrong - A loss of D-11 has many effects on CVCS, PPCS and PLCS but with
pressure increasing with spray valves closed the examinee should realize a loss of
D-11 would not cause this combination of conditions.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
A grid disturbance has occured which has caused grid voltage to drop.
Grid frequency is stable at 60 Hz.
The Main Generator is responding per design and attempting to raise voltage.
Which one of the following automatic actions is designed to protect the Main Generator under these
degraded grid conditions?
A. The Power System Stabilizer (PSS) will activate.
B. The Maximum Excitation Limit (MEL) circuit will activate.
C. The Main Generator will shift to the DC mode of regulation.
D. The Underexcited Reactive Ampere Limit (URAL) will activate.
Justification: each of the distracters is an automatic function of the Main Generator
regulation system thus the examinee may consider any one of these as a plausible answer
A is Wrong - The PSS only activates to control voltage during frequency disturbances
B is Correct - The MEL is designed to protect against low grid voltage events to prevent
over excitation of the main generator when trying to increase output to raise system voltage
C is Wrong - Only shifts to the DC mode on a loss of AC regulator input
D is Wrong - URAL acts to maintain generator excitation at an acceptable level if dropping
to low
Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a trip of Reactor Coolant Pump 1B and has the following
conditions:
DFWCS is in a normal line up (no transmitters in maintenance)
The Reactor Regulating System (RRS) T-avg has failed high.
SG 1 level is recovering and currently 54% NR .
SG 2 level is recovering and currently 45% NR.
Which one of the following describes the status of the Digital Feedwater Control System (DFWCS)?
A. SG 1 and SG 2 are each feeding in single element control.
B. SG 1 and SG 2 are each feeding at the maximum rate as allowed by Reactor
Trip Override (RTO).
C. SG 1 is feeding in single element control, SG 2 is feeding at the minimum rate as
allowed by Reactor Trip Override (RTO).
D. SG 1 is feeding in single element control, SG 2 is feeding at the maximum rate
as allowed by Reactor Trip Override (RTO).
Justification: Examinee may thing that either A or B could be correct in the belief that one
SG in a condition requires both to be the same, as is true for swapover. The examinee
may also confuse feedrate for a failed T-ave instrument.
.
A is Wrong - SG 2 level is low for single element control, 51.9% NR is when they
come out of RTO
B is Wrong - SG 1 is feeding at max rate in RTO but SG 2 is out of RTO, level > 51.6 %
NR
C is Wrong - SG 2 feeding at the max rate with T-ave high
D is Correct - SG 1 is out of RTO with level > 51.6 NR and SG 2 is feeding at max in
RTO with Tave failed high
Given the following conditions:
Unit 3 is operating at rated power.
Regulating group 5 CEAs are inserted to 115 inches for ASI control.
CEA 17 (group 5) begins withdrawing with no Operator action.
The crew has placed CEDMCS in standby.
CEA motion has stopped.
Which one of the following represent the maximum acceptable CEA deviation and why?
A. Any uncontrolled outward deviation requires an immediate reactor trip due to the
potential loss of Shutdown Margin.
B. 5.25 inches to ensure acceptable core power distributions are maintained.
C. 6.6 inches to ensure acceptable core power distributions are maintained.
D. 9.9 inches to ensure Shutdown Margin is maintained.
A is Wrong - some outward deviation is allowed per the LCO and the CEA
malfunction AOP, it will be treated as a slipped CEA
B is Wrong - 5.25 is the alarm setpoint for major group deviation
C is Correct - per LCO 3.1.5, LOIT lesson plan and bases
D is Wrong - 9.9 is the limit for tripping the reactor if 2 CEAs are deviating. In
addition the loss of SDM is not greatly affected by mis-aligned but tripable CEAs.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is in Mode 3 following a refueling outage.
72ST-9RX14, Shutdown Margin - Modes 3, 4 and 5 is in progress.
It has been determined that Shutdown Margin is not being met.
In order to meet the minimum required actions, the crew must borate the RCS at ≥ …
A. 26 gpm with a solution containing ≥ 3000 ppm Boron.
B. 26 gpm with a solution containing ≥ 4000 ppm Boron.
C. 44 gpm with a solution containing ≥ 2300 ppm Boron.
D. 44 gpm with a solution containing ≥ 4400 ppm Boron.
Justification: Per Tech Specs and as found in 9RX14 the minimum requirement is 26
gpm of greater than a 4000 ppm solution. The upper RWT limit is 4400 ppm and the
required flow rate for SA 103 which is used to post trip to establish SDM is 44 gpm
A is Wrong - 3000 is the refueling pool lower limit
B is Correct -
C is Wrong - 2300 is the lower SIT limit, 44 gpm is per SA-103
D is Wrong - 4400 is the upper RWT limit, 44 gpm is per SA-103
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is maintaining 52% power following a Main Turbine trip.
Pressurizer level control is in LOCAL-AUTO with a setpoint of 50%.
Heater Control Selector Level Trip Channel X/Y (RCN-HS-100-3) is positioned to BOTH
Level Control Channel X/Y selector (RCN-HS-110) is positioned to CH-Y
Which one of the following correctly identifies the results of RCN-LT-110X failing low?
A. Standby Charging pump starts.
B. All Pressurizer heaters de-energize.
C. Pressurizer Backup heaters energize.
D. Letdown flow goes to minimum, 35 gpm.
A is Wrong - Standby pump would start if the selected channel failed low
B is Correct - even though the “Level Trip Selector” is on both either channel failing
low will interlock all heaters OFF
C is Wrong - heaters energize on a 3% PZR level deviation high of the selected
channel
D is Wrong - Letdown flow goes to minimum if selected channel fails low
Given the following conditions:
A SGTR has occurred on SG 2.
RCS pressure is 1500 psia.
Thot is 551°F and lowering.
REP CET is 554°F and lowering.
RCPs 1B and 2B are in service.
SBCS is controlling SG pressure at 1050 psia.
The CRS directs depressurizing the RCS while maintaining pressurizer pressure within ALL of the
following criteria per the Steam Generator Tube Rupture procedure.
Less than 1135 psia
Approximately equal to the pressure of the ruptured SG (± 50 psia)
Within the PT limits
Based on current temperature conditions, which one of the following is the minimum acceptable pressure
which will meet the SGTR guidance?
A. 1050 psia
B. 1100 psia
C. 1200 psia
D. 1325 psia
A is Wrong - with no RCPs running it would meet the PT curve for normal Cntmt conditions
and ± 50 psia of SG criteria
B is Wrong - as stated in the SGTR procedure < 1135 and ± 50 psia
C is Wrong - meets the PT curve for harsh Cntmt conditions but still low for RCPs in
operation
D is Correct - min pressure for continued RCP operation
Which of the following describes the nuclear instruments that are available at the Remote Shutdown
Panel to monitor the Reactivity Safety Function?
A. Two Linear Channels.
B. Both Startup Channels.
C. Two Log Safety Channels.
D. Two “Rate of Change” Channels.
A is Wrong -
B is Wrong -
C is Correct -
D is Wrong -
Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 is at 100% power.
Charging pump “A”, CHA-P01 is out of service.
Pressurizer level is 52% and stable.
ERFDADS indicates a 20 gpm RCS leakrate.
The CRS enters the Excessive RCS Leakrate AOP, 40AO-9ZZ02.
Readings on RU-6, Nuclear Cooling Water, is trending up.
Letdown flow is slowly lowering.
Letdown Heat Exchanger Outlet Temperature Controller, CHN-TIC-223, output has stabilized at a
new lower value
RCP 1A NCW temperature, NCN-TI-471 is slowly increasing.
The Area Operator informs the Control Room that Nuclear Cooling Water Surge Tank Level is slowly
rising.
Which one of the following actions should be taken to mitigate these conditions?
A. Cross connect Essential Cooling Water to Nuclear Cooling water.
B. Trip the reactor and initiate a Containment Isolation Actuation Signal (CIAS).
C. Trip the reactor, stop the 1A RCP, secure seal bleedoff and isolate the high
pressure seal coolers for the 1A RCP.
D. Close CHB-UV-515 (Letdown to Regen HX Isolation Valve) and take actions per
appendix C (Extended Operations without Letdown) of 40AO-9ZZ05.
A is Wrong - This could be appropriate for some NCW leaks but not for High
Pressure Seal Coolers.
B is Wrong - Tripping the reactor is correct for a loss of containment integrity but
CIAS will not isolate the leak in this case.
C is Correct - per 40AO-9ZZ02
D is Wrong - This would be correct for an NC leak into the Letdown Heat Exchanger
A high alarm on RU-155D, RCS Letdown monitor, is indicative of …
A. RCS fuel cladding failure.
B. high activity levels in the Purification IX area.
C. RCS leakage into the Nuclear Cooling Water system.
D. high activity levels in the Letdown heat exchanger area.
A is Correct - design of the Letdown process rad monitor
B is Wrong - This function would be performed by Aux Building area monitors RU-8,
9 or 10
C is Wrong - This function would be performed by RU-6, NCW
D is Wrong - This function would be performed by Aux Building area monitors RU-8,
9 or 10
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
A 22 gpm leakrate has been verified.
Pressurizer level is 52% and stable.
Charging pumps A and B are running.
Letdown flow is 50 gpm.
The leak is at the discharge of the Charging pumps.
In accordance with 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate, the CRS has directed that all charging
pumps be stopped.
Which one of the following actions or requirements must be performed?
A. An immediate Reactor trip is required.
B. Ensure letdown is isolated in order to prevent purification IX resin damage.
C. Seal Injection must be restored within 10 minutes or the Reactor Coolant pumps
must be secured.
D. Comply with the actions of LCO 3.4.14, RCS Operational Leakage due to
“identified leakage” being in excess of 10 gpm.
A is Wrong - TRIP is required for a more severe leak. Pzr level dropping with all
available charging pumps running and LD isolated. Which is where Examinee may
believe they are headed
B is Correct - CH-515 will auto close at approx. 450 °F if the crew doesn’t perform
actions first
C is Wrong - This the action for a loss NCW to the RCPs
D is Wrong - This is a connecting system and not part of RCS leakage.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is in Mode 3 following an automatic Reactor trip.
A manual SIAS/CIAS has been initiated.
Pressurizer level is 35% and slowly lowering.
Pressurizer pressure is 1900 psia and slowly lowering.
Safety Injection flow is 0 gpm.
HPSI pump “A” breaker tripped due to a ground fault and 86 lockout.
DG “B” is running unloaded at 60.1 Hz and 4150 volts.
PBB-S04 normal supply breaker, PBB-S04K, has a brighter than normal green light illuminated.
Containment pressure is 1.5 psig and slowly increasing
In the current condition Safety Injection flow can be …
A. established by energizing PBB-S04 with the “A” DG.
B. verified adequate when RCS pressure lowers to approximately 1600 psia.
C. established by performing an RCS cooldown and de-pressurization to below
LPSI pump shut-off head.
D. established by placing the “B” DG in override and adjusting it’s output voltage
until the minimum voltage requirement is satisfied.
A is Wrong - A DG breaker will not close on bus with an 86 on the normal supply
breaker
B is Wrong - B DG output breaker will not close on the PBB-S04 bus with a faulted
normal supply breaker
C is Correct - per the FRP Depressurize the RCS by RCS Heat Removal (IC-2, step 3b
D is Wrong - The DG already meets minimum voltage requirements 4080 volts and
the examinee should realize the DG output breaker is locked out with a fault on the
normal supply breaker
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has been manually tripped in preparations for a refueling outage.
The plant is currently being maintained in Mode 3, normal operating pressure and temperatures.
A Loss of Offsite Power occurs.
Which one of the following correctly represents RCS parameters while the Reactor Coolant pumps are in
COASTDOWN?
A. Steam Generator DPs lower and Core DP lowers.
B. Steam Generator DPs lower and Core DP is unchanged.
C. Steam Generator DPs are unchanged and Core DP lowers.
D. Steam Generator DPs are unchanged and Core DP is unchanged.
A is Correct -
B, C and D are Wrong -
Given the following plant conditions:
Unit 1 is at 100% power in a normal lineup.
All RCP seal injection controllers (CHN-FIC-241-244) are in automatic.
2 charging pumps are in operation.
Which one of the following would cause the output signal of CHN-FIC-244, 2B RCP controller, to lower?
A. A charging pump trips.
B. An inadvertent CIAS has occurred.
C. A different RCP’s seal injection control valve has failed closed.
D. A loss of instrument air to the CHN-FIC-244, 2B RCP controller.
looking to raise seal injection flow to that RCP.
A is Correct - A loss of a charging pump will cause all RCP’s seal Injection flow to
lower and each controller including CHN-FIC-244 will lower output to increase flow
back to setpoint.
B is Wrong - CIAS closes various Letdown valves but will have no effect on
charging.
C is Wrong - A different RCP’s Seal Injection control valve failing closed will cause
the remaining Injection flow to rise and the controller will increase output to lower
flow.
D is Wrong - CHN-FIC-244 fails open on a loss of IA therefore the controller to raise
output in an attempt to lower Seal Injection flow.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is currently at 20% power.
All control systems are in their normal automatic alignment.
Pressurizer level control is selected to Channel “Y”.
T-hot instrument, RCN-TT-111X fails high.
Which one of the following conditions will or could occur?
A. A continuous turbine runback demand to the Reactor Cutback System would be
generated in case of a main feedpump trip.
B. A Quick Open signal is blocked in the Steam Bypass Control System to prevent
an excessive cooldown if a reactor trip were to occur.
C. A high rate insertion demand will be generated by the Control Element Drive
Mechanism Control System and will drive CEAs inward if CEDMCS is in Auto
Sequential.
D. A high level error signal will be generated by the Pressurizer Level Control
System, letdown control valves will maintain a minimum flow to avoid thermal
shock of the RCS charging nozzle.
A is Wrong - High T-ave prevents Turbine Runback
B is Wrong - High T-ave prevents a Quick Open block
C is Wrong - High insertion demand will be generated but the AMI (5°F T-ave
deviation) will prevent CEA movement if in Auto Sequential
D is Correct - High Tave generates a high level program setpoint. Level at 20% power
is approximately 34% pzr level so letdown will go to minimum flow to raise level.
Letdown flow must be maintained high enough to pre-heat charging flow injecting to
the 2A loop.
What are the power supplies to the Shutdown Cooling Isolation valves, SIA-HV-651 (a) and SIC-HV- 653 (b) ? A. (a) 480 VAC Class LC, PG (b) 480 VAC Class LC, PG B. (a) 480 VAC Class LC, PG (b) 125 VDC Class MCC, PK C. (a) 480 VAC Class MCC, PH (b) 480 VAC Class MCC, PH D. (a) 480 VAC Class MCC, PH (b) 125 VDC Class MCC, PK
A is wrong - B is wrong - C is wrong - D is CORRECT - SI-651 is supplied by a class MCC (PH) and SI-654 is supplied by class DC (PK) thru an inverter N43
Given the following plant conditions:
Containment pressure (NR) Channel A 3.2 psig.
Containment pressure (NR) Channel B 2.7 psig.
Containment pressure (NR) Channel C 3.1 psig.
Containment pressure (NR) Channel D 2.6 psig.
What is the effect on the Emergency Core Cooling System?
A. No CIAS/SIAS actuation, no Safety Injection pumps or valves have gone to their
actuated condition.
B. Full CIAS/SIAS actuation, both trains of Safety Injection pumps and valves are in
their actuated condition.
C. “A” train CIAS/SIAS actuation, only the “A” train Safety Injection pumps and
valves have gone to their actuated condition.
D. “A” train 1-3 Half Leg CIAS/SIAS actuation, only the “A” train Safety Injection
valves have gone to their actuated condition, no pumps are running.
Justification: CIAS/SIAS setpoint is 3.0 psig, channels A and C have exceeded
setpoint
A is Wrong - If this had been actuation relays instead of matrix relays this would be a
correct answer
B is Correct - Any 2 of 4 matrix relays will cause full actuation of CIAS/SIAS
C is Wrong - Examinee may believe that an A and C signal will create only an “A”
train actuation
D is Wrong - This condition can occur on a loss of power to the initiation circuits
Given the following conditions: Unit 1 is operating at 100% power. Reactor Coolant pump 1A has a degraded 3rd seal. The crew has verified a 12 gpm leakrate per the Excessive RCS Leakrate procedure. Referring to the table below which set of trends would you expect to observe over the next 15 minutes? Volume Control Tank level (42%) Reactor Drain Tank level (61%) Pressurizer level (52.5%) Containment temperature (90°F) and humidity (4%) A stable increasing lowering stable B lowering increasing stable stable C stable stable stable increasing D lowering stable lowering increasing A. A B. B C. C D. D
Justification: VCT level will drop due to the loss of inventory. Pzr level will remain
stable as letdown flow lowers. RDT level will increase as the RCS fluid flows past the
failed seal. Containment temp and humidity are unaffected as failed RCP seal flow is
collected in the RDT. 12 gpm is not enough to cause the RDT rupture disc to release
in 15 minutes.
A is Wrong -
B is Correct -
C is Wrong -
D is Wrong -
Given the following plant conditions:
The reactor is tripped due to an Excessive Steam Demand event.
HPSI pumps are running, with Safety Injection valves full open.
The “always running” charging pump continues to run.
Pressurize pressure is 2280 psia and increasing.
RCPs 1A and 2A were secured when RCS pressure dropped below the SIAS setpoint.
Pressurizer level is now above the indicating range.
With no Operator action, these conditions will result in a high pressure in the ….
A. Equipment Drain Tank but can be mitigated by initiating auxiliary spray to lower
RCS pressure.
B. Equipment Drain Tank but can be mitigated by venting the pressurizer utilizing
Reactor Coolant Gas Vent System.
C. Reactor Drain Tank but can be mitigated by throttling closed the HPSI injection
valves to reduce RCS makeup flow.
D. Reactor Drain Tank but can be mitigated by increasing secondary plant heat
removal to control RCS temperature.
Justification: The Pzr must be solid or Pressure would not be increasing. The
safeties relieve to the RDT. The EDT does collect coolant from primary systems, so it
is plausible as a distracter
A is Wrong - EDT is incorrect. A solid RCS means auxiliary spray is not an effective
means of pressure control
B is Wrong - EDT wrong but physically venting the PZR could work and can be found
in procedures
C is Wrong - RDT is correct and examinee may want to apply the normal level control
of throttling HPSI valves but the running charging pump is increasing RCS pressure.
D is Correct - Reliefs go to the RDT and then ESD provides guidance to control RCS
temperature
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is in Mode 3 following a Reactor trip.
You are a “license trainee” on shift.
Nuclear Cooling Water pump, NCN-P01A needs to be tagged out for scheduled maintenance.
As a license trainee you may manipulate NCN-HS-1 …
A. only under the direct supervision of a licensed operator.
B. in the current mode since this is not an “Irretrievable Action”.
C. at any time since this action does not directly affect reactivity or power level.
D. provided that this action causes no change in system status, NCN-P01B already
is in service.
A is Correct - step 5.1.6
B is Wrong - there is procedure guidance for these actions examinee may believe
manipulations are permitted in mode 3
C is Wrong - this action never directly affects power level
D is Wrong - no change in system status examinee may believe this is permitted.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is at 100% power.
Pressurizer pressure is 2100 psia and lowering.
Pressurizer backup heaters are energized.
Pressurizer Pressure Master Controller RCN-PIC-100 is in AUTO with 0% output.
Pressure Control Channel X/Y selector, RCN-HS-100 is selected to channel X .
Which one of the following malfunctions or conditions would cause these conditions in the Pressurizer
Pressure Control system?
A. Pressurizer main spray valves have failed open.
B. Pressure transmitter RCN-PT-100X has failed high.
C. Pressure Spray Control RCN-PIK-100 has failed low.
D. Pressurizer Pressure Master Controller RCN-PIC-100 has failed low.
A is Correct - spray valves failed open = low pressure and full 0% output of master
controller
B is Wrong - 100X failing high would cause low pressure conditions but the RCNPIC-
100, master controller, would have 50% output for full spray
C is Wrong - failing low would be no output = no spray flow
D is Wrong - examinee could believe that 0% output is correct for full spray flow vs
full proportional heater output
Which one of the following conditions will cause the calculated value of Departure from Nucleate Boiling
Ratio (DNBR) to come closer to the Reactor Trip setpoint.
A. Grid frequency increases slightly.
B. Pressurizer pressure is increased by 15 psia.
C. Power is increased with CEAs remaining ARO.
D. RCS temperature is lowered while maintaining power constant.
A is Wrong - Freq. increases flow increases DNBR better
B is Wrong - Pressure increases DNBR better
C is Correct - power increases, CEAs unchanged DNBR worse
D is Wrong - temperature lowers DNBR better
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is at 100% power.
Channel “C” parameter 5 HI PZR PRESS is bypassed for I&C maintenance.
Channel “B” HI PZR PRESS has just tripped due to an instrument failure.
Which one of the following correctly describes the status of the Reactor Protection System if the Channel
“B” parameter 5 bypass pushbutton is depressed?
A. Both Channels “B & C” are in bypass.
B. Neither Channel “B or C” is in bypass.
C. Channel “B” parameter 5 goes in bypass, Channel “C” comes out of bypass.
D. Channel “C” parameter 5 stays in bypass, Channel “B” parameter 5 is not in
bypass.
Justification: The highest priority channel is the only one that will be in bypass. The
Lower channel “C” will come out of bypass
A, B and D are Wrong -
C is Correct - -
The "A" train BOP/ESFAS cabinet, SAA-C02A, has two power supplies which are ... A. PHA-M31 and PNC-D27 B. PHA-M31 and PKA-D21. C. PNA-D25 and PNC-D27 D. PNA-D25 and PKA-D21.
A is Wrong -
B is Wrong -
C is Wrong -
D is Correct - PNA and PKA are correct
