2012 Flashcards
Which ONE of the following describes ALL the available locations that ALL (4) RTSG breaker positions can be verified after a Reactor Trip.
(1) PPS Status Panel
(2) Supplemental Protection Logic Actuation (SPLA) Cabinets
(3) B05 Phase Current Lights
(4) Locally at the Breaker
A. 1 and 4 Only
B. 1, 2 and 4 Only
C. 2, 3 and 4 Only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
A. Incorrect: Each SPLA Cabinet has indication of their respective RTSG Breaker
B. Correct: RTSG Breaker position can be verified at these 3 locations
C. Incorrect: PPS status panels do proved indication and the phase current Lights on B05 only show the status of C and D legs not individual breakers
D. Incorrect: Phase current Lights on B05 only show the status of C and D legs not individual breakers
Given the following conditions: Unit 1 RCS pressure is at 2000 psia. A Pressurizer safety/relief valve is leaking to the RDT. The RDT is at 10 psig. Which ONE of the following describes the temperature of the fluid downstream of the relief valve? A. 215°F B. 230°F C. 240°F D. 280°F
Directions on how to use Mollier Diagram and Steam Tables to determine tailpipe temperature of a
leaking PSV.
1. Find the enthalpy of the saturated vapor using Mollier diagram or Table 2.
2. Plot this on the Saturation Line.
3. Draw a horizontal (constant h) line to the pressure that corresponds to where the device is relieving
to.
4. If this point lies below the saturation line, follow the pressure line up the saturation line to determine
the temperature. If above, compare the point to the Constant Temperature lines.
Any choice is plausible if the examinee does not obtain the specific enthalpy for 2000 psia or is off on
drawing the lines to the correct values.
A. Incorrect: 215 0F corresponds to a RDT pressure of 15 psig if you go down on the curve.
B. Incorrect: 230 0F corresponds to a RDT pressure of 20 psig if you don’t move on the curve.
C. Correct: Steam Tables diagram for a RCS press of 2000 psia and a RDT pressure at 10 psig is
240 0F.
D. Incorrect: 280 0F corresponds to a RDT pressure of 50 psig.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
Sub-Cooled Margin is 36°F and lowering slowly.
Containment Pressure is 2.7 psig and rising slowly.
Pressurizer level is 20% and lowering slowly.
RCS Pressure is 1780 psia and lowering slowly.
SG #1 level is 28% WR and rising slowly.
SG #2 level is 30% WR and rising slowly.
SPTAs are in progress.
NO ESFAS Actuations have occurred.
Which ONE of the following describes the ESFAS Actuations the RO must manually initiate?
A. SIAS and CIAS ONLY due to exceeding the low pressurizer pressure setpoint.
B. SIAS and CIAS ONLY due to exceeding the high containment pressure setpoint
C. SIAS, CIAS and MSIS ONLY due to exceeding the low pressurizer pressure setpoint.
D. SIAS, CIAS and MSIS ONLY due to exceeding the high containment pressure setpoint.
A. Correct: SIAS, CIAS and MSIS setpoint is > 3.0 psig in CTMT. SIAS and CIAS setpoint < 1837 psia
PZR Pressure.
B. Incorrect: SIAS/ CIAS setpoint is > 3.0 psig in CTMT.
C. Incorrect: SIAS and CIAS setpoint < 1837 psia PZR Pressure. MSIS is on High Cntmt pressure or
Low SG pressure.
D. Incorrect: SIAS/CIAS and MSIS setpoint is > 3.0 psig in CTMT.
Given the following conditions:
A LOCA event results in a Reactor trip.
Containment Pressure is 3.5 psig and rising.
The SPTAs are in progress.
RCS Subcooling indicates 20 °F.
Which ONE of the following describes the guidance regarding the operation of the RCPs?
A. Trip Two RCPs now (in SPTAs).
B. Trip Four RCPs now (in SPTAs).
C. The CRS shall not direct tripping of RCPs until an ORP is entered.
D. The running RCPs shall remain operating until saturation conditions exist (0 oF subcooling).
A. Incorrect – All RCPs are to be secured with subcooling < 24 0F. Candidate may confuse the trip 2
leave 2 strategy with RCS pressure remaining below the SIAS setpoint.
B. Correct – This is the SPTA contingency for loss of subcooling. RCPs should not be operated
without adequate subcooling.
C. Incorrect – The expectation is that these pumps will be secured prior to exiting the SPTAs.
Candidate may think that this is an early step of the LOCA EOP.
D. Incorrect – This does not meet the standards set by the EOP Technical Guideline. Candidate may
understand loss of subcooling as < 0 0F subcooling, not the procedurally directed < 24 0F.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
East and West switchyard voltage dropped to 516 kV.
East and West Bus switchyard Low-Low voltage alarms are locked in.
Which ONE of the following auto/manual action(s) is taken at this time to protect Engineered Safety
Function (ESF) equipment from a “double sequencing” event?
A. Water Reclamation Facility supply breakers will trip open.
B. Start both DGs and maintain them paralleled with offsite power
C. Block the NAN-S01/S02 to NAN-S03/S04 fast bus transfer capability.
D. Ensure that the Main Generator’s gross MVAR output is greater than zero.
A. Incorrect. WRF breakers will auto trip with a low voltage and SIAS actuation
B. Incorrect. An option is to start load DG and isolate class buses from offsite power.
C. Correct. actions directed by 41ST-1ZZ02, appendix G
D. Incorrect. ST directs that gross MVAR be less than 0 such that PVNGS is not supporting
switchyard voltage.
Given the following conditions:
Initial Conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Charging has been secured due to a leak downstream of the Charging Pumps.
40AO-9ZZ04, RCP Emergencies, has been entered.
Subsequently:
The Unit trips due to a LOCA.
Pressurizer pressure is currently 1500 psia and stable.
Containment pressure is 2.1 psig and slowly increasing.
Pressurizer level is 20% and stable.
RCS T-cold is 560°F.
RCS T-hot is 563°F.
RCP 1A seal 2 outlet temperature is 260°F.
RCP 2A seal 2 outlet temperature is 252°F.
Safety Injection flow is adequate.
RCPs 1A/2A have been secured.
Which ONE of the following actions is procedurally required?
A. Trip the 1B/2B RCPs to prevent pump cavitation.
B. Initiate CIAS, containment pressure is greater than setpoint.
C. Isolate Seal bleedoff to the 1A/2A RCPs to prevent seal damage.
D. Override and energize the class pressurizer heaters to restore pressurizer pressure.
A. Incorrect: subcooled margin and NPSH requirements are met
B. Incorrect: containment pressure is less than setpoint of 3.0 psig
C. Correct: RCP in stby with no seal injection requires that the Bleed Off valve be closed prior to
exceeding 250 degrees on Seal 2 outlet temperature
D. Incorrect: PZR level is less than 25%, heater cutout
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is in Mode 4.
LPSI pump “B” is providing SDC flow.
RCS temperature 325°F.
Auxiliary Spray valve “B” fails open and the following conditions are observed.
LPSI pump “B” amps and flow are oscillating.
Window 2B06A, SDC TRAIN A/B FLOW LO is alarming.
This is an indication of…
A. LPSI pump B “cavitating”.
B. LPSI pump B in a “runout” condition.
C. CHB-HV-530 (RWT to Train B SI Pumps) closing.
D. an inadvertant B train Recirculation Actuation Signal (RAS).
A. Correct: these are classic cavitation indications with lowering PZR pressure and stable temperature
B. Incorrect: run out would be high amps and high flow
C. Incorrect: SDC suction is thru SI-HV-655 and LPSI suction valve SI-HV-692 is closed isolating SDC
flow from RWT
D. Incorrect: RAS would trip the LPSI pump
Given the following initial conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
SIAS/CIAS have automatically initiated.
Pressurizer pressure is 1800 psia and stable.
RCS T-cold is 562 degrees and stable.
Containment pressure is 0.5 psig and stable.
Containment temperature is 115 degrees and stable.
RU-6, Nuclear Cooling Water Radiation Monitor is alarming.
Subsequently the CRS enters 40EP-9EO03, LOCA and directs the following actions.
Stop all RCPs.
Close the Nuclear Cooling Water Containment Isolation valves.
Why were the RCPs secured?
A. Loss of Seal Injection
B. Loss of RCS subcooling.
C. Harsh containment conditions.
D. Loss of cooling water to the RCPs.
A. Incorrect. Seal Injection has an automatic isolation on low temperature, examinee may also believe
that it isolates due to a SIAS/CIAS as numerous other CVCS valves.
B. Incorrect. Examinee will have to verify the status of subcooling with the reduced RCS pressure. 564
degrees + 24 = 588 = 1409 psi
C. Incorrect. Examinee will have to verify containment conditions
D. Correct. Examinee will have to know the cooling source of the RCPs and the requirement to secure
them.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is at 30% power while shutting down in preparations for a refueling outage.
Rx coolant pump 1A has tripped
The reactor did not Automatically trip
All attempts to trip the Rx from the control room has failed.
Assuming NO other operator actions, initiating an 80 GPM boration would add…
A. Positive Reactivity to the core and cause RCS Temp to Increase
B. Positive Reactivity to the core and cause RCS temp to decrease
C. Negative reactivity to the core and cause RCS temp to increase
D. Negative reactivity to the core and cause RCS temp to decrease
A. Incorrect
B. Incorrect
C. Incorrect
D. Correct
Given the following conditions:
Unit 2 was tripped due to a Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
RCS pressure is 895 psia.
RCS subcooling is 55°F.
Steam Generator #1 pressure is 890 psia.
RU-4 in high alarm.
Steam generator #1 is isolated.
Steam generator #1 level is 78% NR and rising slowly.
Steam generator #2 level is 50% NR and steady.
Which ONE of the following is the preferred method to control level in the isolated steam generator with a
ruptured tube?
A. Steam the #1 steam generator to atmosphere via the ADVs.
B. Bypass the MSIV and steam the #1 steam generator to the condenser.
C. Line-up high rate blowdown to the condenser from #1 steam generator.
D. Lower RCS pressure below #1 steam generator pressure and allow backflow to the RCS.
A. Incorrect: This will lower SG pressure to further below RCS pressure which will increase SG level
and spread more contamination.
B. Incorrect: This will lower SG pressure to further below RCS pressure which will increase SG level,
steaming to the condenser would minimize the chance of release to the environment, but still
spread the contamination to the secondary.
C. Incorrect: Blowdown will lower level, but spread contamination to the secondary.
D. Correct: This will lower RCS pressure and reduce level of the SG by moving water into the RCS.
Contamination will be limited by putting the contaminated water back in the RCS.
If there is a station “Blackout” the class (PK) batteries are designed to maintain rated voltage for UP TO
…
A. 2 hours to provide continuous DC during a Design Basis Event.
B. 4 hours to provide continuous DC during a Design Basis Event.
C. 2 hours to provide sufficient power for the protection and control of transformers and switchgear.
D. 4 hours to provide sufficient power for the protection and control of transformers and switchgear.
A. Correct: 2 hours and concurrent DBE-LOCA concurrent with BO as found in FSAR
B. Incorrect: 4 hours is the old rating for the non-lass NK batteries
C. Incorrect: power for the protection and control of transformers is for the non-class NK batteries,
examinee may choose this believing that the ESF transformers use class power
D. Incorrect: 4 hours is the old rating for the non-lass NK batteries
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a LOOP.
EDG ‘A’ Tripped on Low Lube Oil Pressure.
Which ONE of the following describes the operational status the the PZR Backup Heaters?
________ Backup Heater Banks(s) is/are available.
A. ZERO (0)
B. ONE (1)
C. TWO (2)
D. FOUR (4)
A. Incorrect: NBN-S01/S02 and PBA-S04 are de-energized due to the LOOP and the ‘A’ EDG tripped.
These provide power to all other Backup and Proportional Heaters. B class heaters powered from
DG “B” are still available.
B. Correct: Non class heaters come from NGN-L11/12 which are lost on the LOOP. PBB-S04 is the
only energized 4160V bus. There are only two banks of class backup heaters. “A” train lost power
with the DG tripping. The B Class Backup Heater bank is the only bank with power.
C. Incorrect: NBN-S01/S02 and PBA-S04 are de-energized due to the LOOP and the ‘A’ EDG tripped.
These provide power to all other Backup and Proportional Heaters.
D. Incorrect: NBN-S01/S02 and PBA-S04 are de-energized due to the LOOP and the ‘A’ EDG tripped.
These provide power to all other Backup and Proportional Heaters.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
120VAC IE PNL D27 Inverter C Trouble Alarm was received in the Control Room.
The area operator reports that DC power to 120VAC Class IE Inverter PNC-N13 has been lost.
Which ONE of the following describes the restoration of power to PNC?
PNC 120VAC power is restored by…
A. an auto shift to the battery.
B. a manual shift to the battery.
C. an auto shift to the voltage regulator.
D. a manual shift to the voltage regulator.
A. Incorrect: The battery is the normal supply to the inverter. Unit 1 is not equipped with a static
transfer switch.
B. Incorrect: The battery is the normal supply to the inverter. If the normal power supply was the
voltage regulator, a manual transfer to the battery would be required.
C. Incorrect: This would be correct in Unit 2 or 3 which is equipped with a Static Transfer switch that
would automatically transfer to the voltage regulator.
D. Correct: Unit 1 is NOT supplied with a Static Transfer switch as in Unit 2 and Unit 3. Therefore on
a loss of Power to the Inverter the operator must manually transfer the power supply from the
inverter to the voltage regulator.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Offsite Power, LOOP.
No ESFAS actuations have been initiated.
AFN-P01 (Essential Steam Driven AFW pump) is supplying feed to the SGs.
The Control Power Transfer Switch (PBA-U01) is selected to it’s alternate feed source from PKAH11.
SG pressure is being controlled with ADVs SGA-HV-179/184.
Both DGs are supplying their respective buses.
With no other Operator actions, what is the immediate operational implications of a loss of the “A” battery
charger, PKA-H11?
A. ADVs (SGA-HV-179/184) will fail closed.
B. DG “A” output breaker (PBA-S03B) can not be tripped from the control room.
C. Downcomer containment isolation valves SGA-UV-172 and SGA-UV-175 fail closed.
D. AFN-P01 (Non Essential Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump) can not be tripped from the control room.
A. ADV will lose their permissive as the “A” battery dies and fail closed, NOT IMMEDIATELY
B. DG “A” output breaker can not be tripped on a loss of PKA-M41/D21. NOT IMMEDIATELY
C. Downcomer Isolation fail open on a loss of power. The economizer isolations would close
immediately if aligned to their alternate source PKA-M41.
D. The alternate supply for AFN-P01 is directly from the battery charger.
OPTRNG_
Given the following conditions:
Initial Conditions:
Unit 2 has tripped from 100% power.
SG #1 is 1000 psia and lowering.
SG #1 is 40% WR and lowering.
SG #2 is 800 psia and lowering.
SG #2 is 10% WR and lowering.
PZR level is at 30% and slowly lowering.
Containment Pressure is 1 psig and rising.
At the time that the ORP is entered the conditions are as follows:
Containment pressure peaked and is stable at 9.8 psig.
Containment temperature is 185°F.
PZR level is 18% and rising.
RVUH level is 67%.
RCS subcooling is 98°F.
SG #1 is at 34% WR (rising) and being fed from AFW at 500 gpm.
SG #2 is below the indicated level.
Both HPSI pumps are injecting into the RCS.
Based on these conditions, you should obtain CRS concurrence and throttle HPSI…
A. immediately.
B. when PZR level reaches 33%.
C. when RVUH is equal to 100%.
D. when SG #1 Level is 45%-60% NR.
A. Correct – PZR level requirement is > 15% for Harsh CTMT conditions.
B. Incorrect – PZR level requirement for throttling HPSI is > 15% level when in Harsh CTMT
conditions. 33% is the normal PZR Level Band per SPTAs
C. Incorrect – RVUH level must be greater than 16% to throttle HPSI, which it is. Candidate may not
understand RVUH and Plenum relationship.
D. Incorrect – The SG requirement is RESTORING to 45-60% NR level. Candidate may believe that
SG levels must be in the band.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is tripped from 100% power.
• Containment Pressure is 1.7 psig and rising.
• Containment Temperature is 120 0F and rising.
• Containment Humidity is rising.
• Containment sump levels are rising.
• PZR Pressure is 2250 psia and rising.
• PZR Level is 58% and rising.
• Tcold is 568 0F and rising.
• Subcooled Margin is 58 0F and lowering.
• SG 1 and 2 levels are 30% WR and lowering. Which ONE of the following describes the ongoing
event?
A. RCS Cold Leg LOCA.
B. PZR Steam Space LOCA.
C. Feedline Break (ESD) inside containment.
D. Steam Line Break (ESD) Inside Containment
A. Incorrect: CTMT parameters changing are indicative of a LOCA inside the CTMT, Sub
lowering is indicative of a LOCA. Tc and PZR parameters would lower.
B. Incorrect: CTMT parameter and PZR level rising support the PZR Steam Space LOCA as does
lowering subcooling. PZR Pressure would be lowering.
C. Correct: All of these parameters support the Feedline Break inside CTMT.
D. Incorrect: CTMT parameters support the Steam Line Break inside CTMT. Subcooling would rise,
Pressure and Level would lower. ESD procedure will mitigate both the Feedline and Steam Line
breaks.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 has experienced a Loss of Instrument Air (IA) to the Containment.
The CRS is implementing 40AO-9ZZ06 (Loss of Instrument Air).
Which ONE of the following valve handswitches must be taken to CLOSE prior to restoring IA to
Containment per 40AO-9ZZ06?
A. CHA-HV-507 (RCP Bleedoff Isolation to RDT)
B. CHA-UV-516 (Letdown to Regen Hx Isolation)
C. WCB-UV-61 (CHW Return HDR Inside CNTMT Isol VLV)
D. NCB-UV-403 (NCW CNTMT Downstream Return Isol VLV)
A. Incorrect: This is an IA operated valve inside the CTMT that fails open to allow Seal Bleed Off to
the RDT, it is not to be closed.
B. Correct: Per step 4 of section 3.0, this valve will fail closed but if the handswitch is not taken to
close the valve will open upon restoration of IA and possibly lead to damage of the letdown IXs.
C. Incorrect: This valve is a Motor Operated Valve that will not be affected by the loss of IA, it is the
inside CTMT isolation valve for WC.
D. Incorrect: This valve is a Motor Operated Valve that will not be affected by the loss of IA, it is the
inside CTMT isolation valve for NC.
Given the following conditions: Unit 3 is operating at 80%. Group 5 CEAs at 120 inches withdrawn. All others CEAs at UEL. Selected CEA is # 14. Selected CEA Group is # 5. A malfunction causes CEA 15 to move 12 steps out before STANDBY is selected and motion stops. Based on this event the pulse counter selected Group position reads... A. 120 inches. B. 122.25 inches. C. 124.5 inches. D. 129 inches.
A. Incorrect: examinee may believe that that the pulse counter uses lowest CEA position (CPCs)
B. Correct: group position is the average position. 129 + 120 + 120 + 120 = 489/4 = 122.25
C. Incorrect: examinee may believe that the pulse counter uses average of high/low
D. Incorrect: examinee may believe that pulse counter uses highest cea position (CPCs)
Given the following conditions:
Multiple channels of CPCs (Lo DNBR) have trip lights illuminated on B05.
The reactor failed to automatically trip.
The CRS has directed the RO to open the supply breakers for L03 and L10 for a minimum of 5
seconds.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for this action?
The 5 seconds allows time for the…
A. motor generator stop contacts to close.
B. CEAs to drop to the bottom of the core.
C. trip coils to actuate to open L03 and L10 breakers.
D. effects of the motor generator flywheel to taper off interrupting power to the CEAs.
A. Incorrect: MG stop contact does not get a signal to actuate, these actions remove power from the
MG set input, therefore no output.
B. Incorrect: CEAs do require to be inserted within 4 seconds per Tech Specs, but this is not the
reason for the 5 second wait.
C. Incorrect: Trip coils inside the breaker have no time delay associated with them, they open
instantaneously.
D. Correct: As the Load Center supplying power to the MG sets is de-energized, the MG set
flywheels will maintain the MG set output as inertial energy is dissipated.
OPTRNG_
Given the following conditions:
Unit 3 operating at 100% power.
RCN-LIC-110 (Pressurizer Level Master Controller) is in “REMOTE-AUTO”.
RCN-HS-110 (Level Control Selector Channel X/Y) is selected to channel ‘Y’.
RCN-HS-100-3 (Pressurizer Heater Control Selector Level Trip Channel) is selected to ‘X’.
A leak develops on the reference leg of RCN-LT-110Y (Level Transmitter 110Y). This leak exceeds
the capacity of the condensing chamber’s ability to keep the reference leg full.
Assuming NO operator action, which ONE of the following describes the plant response?
Pressurizer level indicates ….
A. low, presssurizer heaters will cut-out.
B. low, the standby charging pump will start.
C. high, letdown flow will be lost.
D. high, letdown flow will lower and stabilize at approximately 30 gpm.
A. Incorrect: PLCS senses a high level, the heaters cut out at 27% indicated level.
B. Incorrect:PLCS senses a high level, charging pumps will stop not start on deviation from setpoint.
C. Correct: The level control system will sense a high level. Letdown flow increases to maximum.
“Normally running” charging pump stops. Letdown will isolate due to the automatic closure of CHBUV-
0515 upon receipt of a hi-hi regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature.
D. Incorrect: The level control system will sense a high level. Letdown flow decrease initially to 30
gpm, but not stabilize.
Given the following conditions:
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
A waste gas system discharge is in progress.
RU-12 (Waste Gas Decay Tank Discharge) readings are stable.
RU-14 (Radwaste Building Ventilation Exhaust Filter Inlet) is in ALERT.
RU-15 (Waste Gas Area Combined Ventilation Exhaust) is in ALERT.
RU-143 (Plant Vent) readings are rising.
Which ONE of the following describes the event that is occurring?
A. Gas system discharge is exceeding limits, GRN-UV34A/B will auto CLOSE.
B. Gas system discharge is exceeding limits, GRN-UV34A/B will remain OPEN.
C. Waste Gas Decay Tank Leak is in progress, GRN-UV34A/B will auto CLOSE.
D. Waste Gas Decay Tank Leak is in progress, GRN-UV34A/B will remain OPEN.
a. Incorrect. RU-12 and RU-143 would both be rising or in alarm if a discharge was exceeding limits.
GRN-UV-34A/B auto close on RU-12 high alarm only.
b. Incorrect. RU-12 and RU-143 would both be rising or in alarm if a discharge was exceeding limits.
GRN-UV-34A/B auto close on RU-12 high alarm only.
c. Incorrect. ARM RU-14/15 and RU-143 would be rising or in alarm for GR system leak. GRN-UV-34A/B
auto close on RU-12 high alarm only.
d. Correct. ARM RU-14/15 and RU-143 would be rising or in alarm for GR system leak. GRN-UV-34A/B
auto close on RU-12 high alarm only.
