2013 Flashcards
Given the following conditions:
• The BOP operator reports a degrading vacuum in the main condenser.
• The CRS has entered 40AO-9ZZ07, Loss of Condenser Vacuum.
Subsequently
• The Reactor is tripped due to the degrading vacuum.
• Alarm window 6A16B, SBCS COND INTLK, has annunciated.
• Alarm window 6A16D, COND VAC LO has annunciated.
• Condenser backpressure is 14.0” HgA (all shells).
What actions are required to control the listed secondary parameters?
Steam Generator level can be maintained by (1)
RCS temperature can be maintained by (2)
A. (1) AFW only (2) ADVs only
B. (1) AFW or MFW (2) ADVs only
C. (1) AFW only (2) ADVs or SBCVs
D. (1) AFW or MFW (2) ADVs or SBCVs
A Wrong AFW is correct but SBCVs 7 and 8 are not effected by the interlock since they go to
atmosphere
B Wrong MFW trips at 13.5 inches
C Correct MFW turbine trips at 13.5 inches and Tcold can be controlled by either SBCVs 7 & 8
or ADVs.
D Wrong MFW pump turbine trips at 13.5 inches.
Given the following conditions:
• PZR pressure is 1345 psia and slowly lowering.
• PZR level is 60% and slowly rising.
• RCS temperature is 562°F and stable.
• SIAS/CIAS/MSIS have been manually actuated on trend.
• RCPs 1A and 2A were stopped as directed by the Standard Post Trip Actions.
• Containment pressure is 2.8 psig and slowly rising.
• Containment temperature is 140°F and slowly rising.
• HPSI train “A” valves have been throttled.
• RDT pressure is 2.8 psig and rising.
The event in progress is a (1) and the crew must (2) .
A. (1) RCS cold leg break
(2) stop the 1B and 2B RCPs and raise HPSI flow
B. (1) RCS cold leg break
(2) throttle HPSI train “B” valves to control pressurizer level
C. (1) Pressurizer steam space leak
(2) stop the 1B and 2B RCPs and raise HPSI flow
D. (1) Pressurizer steam space leak
(2) throttle HPSI train “B” valves to control pressurizer level
A Wrong A LOCA is occurring but it is through the Pzr not a cold leg. Stopping the RCPs
and raising HPSI flow is correct for the loss of subcooling margin, ~21°F. RCS
cold leg break is credible because lowering PZR pressure (1st bullet), manual
initiation of SIAS/CIAS/MSIS (4th bullet), increasing CNTMT pressure (6th bullet),
and increasing CNTMT temperature (7th bullet) support this diagnosis.
B Wrong A LOCA is occurring but it is through the Pzr not a cold leg. May think that
throttling HPSI is correct since Pzr level is raising. RCS cold leg break is credible
because lowering PZR pressure (1st bullet), manual initiation of SIAS/CIAS/MSIS
(4th bullet), increasing CNTMT pressure (6th bullet), and increasing CNTMT
temperature (7th bullet) support this diagnosis.
C Correct The event in progress is a Pzr Steam space leak as indicated by increasing
Pzr and RDT levels with increasing containment temps and pressure.
Stopping the RCPs and raising HPSI flow is correct for the loss of
subcooling margin, ~21°F.
D Wrong The event in progress is a Pzr Steam space leak as indicated by increasing Pzr
and RDT levels with increasing containment temps and pressure. May think that
throttling HPSI is correct since Pzr level is raising.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating 100% power.
• A 5.0 gpm RCS leak has developed.
When using the ERFDADS Leakrate Program to monitor leakrate, indicated leakrate will be….
A. less than actual leakrate for at least 7.5 minutes.
B. less than actual leakrate for at least 15 minutes.
C. greater than actual leakrate for at least 7.5 minutes.
D. greater than actual leakrate for at least 15 minutes.
A Correct Leakrate will take 7.5 minutes to reach and stabilize at the current leakrate if
examinee does not understand the process they may think it works like the
algorithm which goes high then comes down to the actual leakrate.
C Wrong Leakrate will take 7.5 minutes to reach and stabilize at the current leakrate
B Wrong Examinee may choose the 15 minute distracter since is the procedural guidance
D Wrong on how long to let the program run before reporting leakrate.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 automatically tripped from 100% power.
• RCS T-cold is 558°F and slowly lowering.
1. Which ONE of the following would be the first to satisfy an Entry Condition for 40EP-9EO03,
Loss of Coolant Accident?
2. Given those conditions, identify the required action(s).
A. 1. Pressurizer pressure is 1820 psia.
2. Immediately trip all 4 RCPs if not already secured.
B. 1. Pressurizer pressure is 1847 psia.
2. Immediately trip all 4 RCPs if not already secured.
C. 1. Pressurizer pressure is 1820 psia.
2. Check that SIAS is actuated.
D. 1. Pressurizer pressure is 1847 psia.
2. Check that SIAS is actuated.
A Wrong Part 2 is wrong the trip 2/ Leave 2 should be used but the requirements to trip 4
RCPS (< 24°F or CS flow) have not been met. Plausible because part 1 is
correct and securing 4 RCPs criteria is identified in the LOCA procedure.
B Wrong Part 1 is wrong because this is above the automatic SIAS setpoint of 1837 psia.
Part 2 is wrong the trip 2/ Leave 2 should be used but the requirements to trip 4
RCPS (< 24°F or CS flow) have not been met. Plausible because part 1 is
similar to the actual SIAS setpoint of 1837 psia and securing 4 RCPs criteria is
identified in the LOCA procedure.
C Correct 1820 psia is below the SIAS automatic setpoint of 1837 psia for LOCA
entry.
Per 40EP-9EO03:
1.0 ENTRY CONDITIONS
1. The Standard Post Trip Actions have been performed. or
BOTH of the following conditions exist:
• A LOCA initiated from Mode 3 or Mode 4
• LTOP is NOT in service and
2. Plant conditions indicate that a Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred. ANY
or all of the following may be present:
• Pressurizer level low (for a break in the pressurizer, the level may be high)
• SIAS automatically actuated
• Rise in containment pressure, temperature, radiation, humidity, and level
• High Reactor Drain Tank level, temperature, or pressure
D Wrong Part 1 is wrong because this is above the automatic SIAS setpoint of 1837 psia.
Plausible because part 1 is similar to the actual SIAS setpoint of 1837 psia.
Also plausible because Part 2 is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was manually tripped from 100% power
• All 4 RCPs were secured due to a loss of Nuclear Cooling Water.
Assuming no additional Operator actions, which one of the following represents the operational
implications of this condition?
A. Low Tave will require manual control of SBCS due to Quick Open block being
generated
B. High Tave will require manual control of the SBCS due to overcooling if left in
automatic control
C. Low Tave will require manual Feedwater control due to the low Refill demand
while in Reactor Trip Override
D. High Tave will require manual Feedwater control due to the high Refill demand
while in Reactor Trip Override
A Wrong Group X QO block would be generated if Tave is < 573.5 degrees. Quick Open is
blocked on low Tave. Both parts are wrong.
B Wrong Tave will go high but SBCS operates on Tcold which will be maintained on
program
C Wrong Low temp would cause low refill demand but in this case Tave goes high
D Correct
With a constant Tcold, Thot will elevate when Natl Circ is being established.
higher than normal Tave will cause RTO to feed excessively requiring Opera
to take manual control of Downcomers.
Given the following conditions:
Initial Conditions:
• Unit 1 is in Mode 5.
• RCS level is 103 feet 6 inches.
• RCS temperature is 140ºF.
• LPSI pump B is providing Shutdown Cooling flow at 4500 gpm.
Current Conditions:
• RCS level has slowly dropped to 102 feet 8 inches.
• LPSI pump B amps are oscillating.
• Shutdown Cooling flow is oscillating.
Which ONE of the following actions is directed by the Lower Mode Functional Recovery
Procedure?
A. Run LPSI and CS pumps in parallel to lower RCS temperature.
B. Reduce LPSI pump B flow to minimize vortexing at the pump suction.
C. Shift SDC to CS pump B due to its lower suction pressure requirements.
D. Place LPSI pump A in service and vent the B SDC train to remove entrapped
gases.
A Wrong This may help lower temperature eventually but would further lower LPSI pump
suction pressure
B Correct Reducing flow would increase LPSI pump suction pressure and reduce
vortexing and is directed by HR-2
C Wrong CS pump B has higher pressure and temperature requirements when placed on S
Examinee may confuse this with lower suction pressure requirements
D Wrong This may be done eventually but with lowering level it is not directed to swap train
the reason for the lowering level is determined
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 had been operating at 100% power.
• A manual reactor trip was initiated due to lowering pressurizer level and pressure.
• Standard Post Trip Actions are being performed.
• No manual operator actions have been taken.
• All 8 RCP “LO NCW FLOW” alarm windows on B04 have actuated.
Which ONE of the following conditions would have caused these alarms?
A. 8.5 psig in containment.
B. 1837 psia in the pressurizer.
C. Refueling Water Tank level has lowered to 9.4%.
D. High alarm on RU-6 (Nuclear Cooling Water radiation monitor).
A Correct NCW valves isolate on CSAS signal 8.5 psig in containment
B Wrong 1837 psia initiates a SIAS/CIAS – starting SI pumps and closing Containment
Isolation valves
C Wrong 9.4 % initiates RAS which stops LPSI pumps and closes SI miniflow valves
D Wrong This alarm is associated with RCS leakage into the NCW system via RCP
Cooling. Examinee could believe that this RU has auto actions as some others
like RU-29/30 (CREFAS), RU-31/145 (FBEVAS) and RU-141 (thru filter mode).
Given the following initial conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Pressurizer pressure is 2250 psia and stable.
• Pressure Master Controller, RCN-PIC-100, output is currently 16%
Subsequently:
• Pressure Master Controller, RCN-PIC-100, slowly fails to 100% output.
Main spray valves, RC-100E and RC-100F will respond by going from full…
A. closed at 33% output to full open at 50% output.
B. open at 33% output to full closed at 50% output.
C. closed at 50% output to full open at 100% output.
D. open at 50% output to full closed at 100% output.
A Correct PPCS operates from 33 to 50% output for spray control closed to open
B Wrong This controller is reverse acting such that more output lowers RCS pressure. Because it
controls both the spray and heater output, it is plausible that with a greater output
spray valves could be going closed
C Wrong Controller range is 0 – 50% output but the controller output uses the entire range of 0
D Wrong – 100% making C and D plausible.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• RCP 1A has tripped.
• All 4 PPS channels SG-1 “LO FLOW” have actuated.
• Leg 1-3 phase current lights are extinguished.
• Leg 2-4 phase current lights are illuminated.
Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the status of the Reactor Trip Switchgear (RTSG)
breakers and actions to trip the reactor?
A. At least one RTSG breaker has opened and only NGN-L10 must be tripped to
de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
B. At least one RTSG breaker has opened and both NGN-L03 and L10 must be
tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
C. At least two RTSG breakers have opened and only NGN-L10 must be tripped to
de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
D. At least two RTSG breakers have opened and both NGN-L03 and L10 must be
tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
A Wrong One RTSG breaker is correct but if the examinee applies electric bus logic they
may believe that L03 supplies the A/C train and L10 supplies the B/D train.
B Correct This light would be out with either the B or D RTSG being tripped and both
L03 and L10 must be tripped to de-energize the CEDMCS bus.
C/D Wrong Due to the setup of the RTSG breakers one phase current light out only ensures
that one RTSG breaker has opened in the extinguished loop. The examinee may
associate the phase light with both breakers being tripped.
Following a reactor trip Unit 1 has the following conditions:
• Pressurizer pressure is 1600 psia and increasing.
• PZR level is 28% and increasing.
• Containment pressure is 0.3 psig and stable.
• SG #1 pressure is 1090 psia and stable.
• SG #2 pressure is 1100 psia and stable.
• SG #1 level is 70% WR and rising.
• SG #2 level is 60% WR and stable.
• RCS T-cold is 560°F and slowly lowering.
• Containment temperature is 90°F and stable.
• HPSI flow is 150 gpm to each loop.
• SIAS/CIAS have initiated.
The CRS has come to the step in the Emergency Operating Procedure regarding throttling HPSI
flow and finds the following:
CAUTION
Throttling HPSI injection valves will cause erosion damage to downstream piping
The correct mitigating EOP for these conditions is (1) and throttling HPSI injection valves to
lower HPSI flow (2) .
A. (1) LOCA (2) is permitted but should be avoided.
B. (1) SGTR (2) is permitted but should be avoided.
C. (1) LOCA (2) is only permitted by fully closing the HPSI valves.
D. (1) SGTR (2) is only permitted by fully closing the HPSI valves.
A Wrong NO change in Cntmt parameters = not a LOCA
B Correct Full closed is preferred but throttling is permitted based on plant conditions
C Wrong NO change in Cntmt parameters = not a LOCA
D Wrong The tech guide states that throttling is permitted based on plant conditions
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power.
• SIAS/CIAS and AFAS-1 have automatically initiated.
• Steam Generator #1 pressure is 745 psia and lowering.
• Steam Generator #1 level is 8% WR and lowering.
• Steam Generator #2 pressure is 760 psia and lowering.
• Steam Generator #2 level is 30% WR and lowering.
• Auxiliary feedwater flow is 1800 gpm to steam generator #1.
• Auxiliary feedwater flow is 0 gpm to steam generator #2.
Which ONE of the following is the correct condition and proper Operator actions?
A. MSIS has failed. Initiate a manual MSIS immediately.
B. AFAS-2 has failed. Initiate a manual AFAS-2 immediately.
C. MSIS has failed. Obtain CRS permission, then immediately initiate an MSIS.
D. AFAS-2 has failed. Obtain CRS permission, then immediately initiate an AFAS-2.
A Correct MSIS setpoint of 955 psia has been exceeded the operator is required to
initiate ESFAS actions that have failed. Initiation of failed automatic
emergency systems is a license requirement for Reactor Operators.
B Wrong AFAS setpoint of 25% WR has not been exceeded
C Wrong MSIS setpoint of 955 psia has been exceeded the operator is required to initiate
ESFAS actions that have failed not wait for CRS permission.
D Wrong AFAS setpoint of 25% WR has not been exceeded
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
• An inadvertent “A” train SIAS occurred following the trip.
• The CRS has diagnosed a LOAF (Loss of all Feed).
• The CRS directs you to start AFN-P01, Start-Up Aux Feedpump.
• AFN-P01 suction valves CTN-HV-1 and 4 are both open.
• You have gone to “START” one time using its handswitch (AFN-HS-11).).
Which ONE of the following is correct, AFN-P01 is …
A. running and feeding both Steam Generators.
B. running but not feeding either Steam Generator.
C. not running, AFN-P01 can be started by going to “STOP” then “START”.
D. not running, AFN-P01 can be started by going to “START” one more time.
A Wrong This would be the option normally; this pump has no auto start feature so going to
start is plausible answer. Will not start due to the SIAS actuation blocking the starting
circuit.
B Wrong
C Correct Going to stop will pick up the SIAS OR then going to start again will start the pump.
D Wrong This would be the correct action for resetting an 86 lockout condition so the examinee
may choose this option.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of offsite power.
• DG “A” is under clearance for planned maintenance.
• The RO reports that Essential Spray Pond Pump “B” has both a white and blue light
illuminated on the SESS panel.
1. What is the appropriate EOP to enter?
2. What is the required action and reason for that action?
A. 1. 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC
2. Place all the charging pump handswitches in Pull to Lock to prevent an
uncontrolled restoration of RCP seal injection.
B. 1. 40EP-9EO07, LOOP/LOFC
2. Isolate Seal Injection to prevent a rapid cooldown of the RCP seals.
C. 1. 40EP-9EO08, Blackout
2. Place all the charging pump handswitches in Pull to Lock to prevent an
uncontrolled restoration of RCP seal injection.
D. 1. 40EP-9EO08, Blackout
2. Isolate Seal Injection to prevent a rapid cooldown of the RCP seals.
A Wrong Candidate is given the Loss of Offsite power, if they do not recognize that the
SESS panel is telling them that DG ‘B must be secured they may stay in
LOOP/LOFC procedure. LOOP is a credible choice.
B Wrong
C Correct Candidate must determine that the Blackout procedure must be entered
due the loss of Spray Pond flow to DG “B”. Charging pumps are placed in
PTL to prevent the uncontrolled restoration of RCP seals as stated in the
BO tech guide.
D Wrong Blackout is correct but the reason given is a correct action and condition from
the LOOP procedure making this a credible distracter.
Referring to the provided picture of Board 1, which ONE of the following describes the status of the
electric plant? (No operator actions have been taken)
A. Normal full power lineup.
B. DG “B” is in test run paralleled with offsite power.
C. DG “B” is in emergency run providing power to PBB-S04.
D. DG “B” is running due to only an AFAS, SIAS or CSAS actuation.
A Wrong The breaker from NBNX04 is open this is the normal power supply to PBBS04.
B Wrong DG is tied to PBBS04 but it is not connected to offsite power.
C Correct With offsite power disconnected, DG “B” is in emergency run to energize PBBS04
D Wrong AFAS/SIAS/CSAS start the DG but do not energize the PBBS04
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• A fault occurs on PKA-M41 and the Class DC bus is de-energized.
With no operator action, which ONE of the following describes the expected condition of the “A”
train Instrument Inverter, PNA-N11 and Instrument Bus, PNA-D25?
The AC output breaker on PNA-N11 is (1) and PNA-D25 is (2) ?
A. (1) open (2) energized
B. (1) closed (2) energized
C. (1) open (2) de-energized
D. (1) closed (2) de-energized
A Wrong PNA-D25 would be energized in Units 2 and 3 but not U-1
B Wrong
C/D Wrong PNA-D25 will be de-energized due to NO auto transfer capability in U-1 but
the AC output breaker opens on high amp output not on a DC low voltage
supply
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) event.
• The crew has cross connected Essential Cooling Water (EW) system “A” to Nuclear Cooling
Water per Standard Appendix 63.
Which ONE of the following describes the reason for throttling closed EWA-HCV-53 (SDCHX ‘A’
Outlet Isolation) to a minimum EW system flow of 8500 gpm or until the RCP LO NC FLOW alarms
are clear?
A. Maintain operability of the EW “A” system.
B. Provide the NCW priority loads with adequate flow.
C. Ensure adequate flow to the Fuel Pool Heat Exchangers.
D. Prevent EW pump damage due to operating in a runout condition.
A Wrong EW is INOP when cross tied. Examinee may think throttling flow will maintain
operability
B Correct This is to ensure adequate flow to NCW priority loads.
C Wrong One train of EW not sized to provide both NCW and Fuel Pool cooling; this would
require aligning the other train.
D Wrong Not for runout but examinee could believe this to be true when taking systems out
of normal alignment.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• A grid disturbance has caused grid voltage to drop.
• Grid frequency is stable at 60 Hz.
• The Main Generator is responding per design.
Which ONE of the following would be an operational implication of this condition?
The Main Generator…
A. could lose synchronism (pole slippage). The Maximum Excitation Limit (MEL)
circuit will act to mitigate the over-excitation condition.
B. field could be damaged due to overheating. The Maximum Excitation Limit (MEL)
circuit will act to mitigate the over-excitation condition.
C. field could be damaged due to overheating. The Underexcited Reactive Ampere
Limit (URAL) will act to mitigate the under-excitation condition.
D. could lose synchronism (pole slippage). The Underexcited Reactive Ampere
Limit (URAL) will act to mitigate the under-excitation condition.
A Wrong Pole slippage is indicative of underexcitation in this case the generator will act to raise
voltage and cause overexcitation
B Correct With a low voltage the AC regulator will attempt to raise voltage the MEL circuits will
act to limit the increase and activate a trip timing circuit if voltage goes beyond limits
C Wrong Part one is correct but URAL is for underexcited conditions
D Wrong Both parts are wrong but these are plausible conditions.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was at 15% power.
• Reg Groups 4 and 5 CEAs began moving OUT uncontrollably.
• The CRS implemented 40AO-9ZZ11, CEA Malfunctions.
• CEDMCS was placed in “STANDBY.”
• The cause of the malfunction has been corrected and CEAs can be moved..
• THREE (3) CEAs in Reg Group 4 are now deviating from other CEAs in the group by less
than 6.6 inches.
• The CRS directs the RO to align the CEAs to the group.
Referring to the attached MCB picture, which ONE of the following identifies the switch
manipulations required by the RO to realign the CEAs?
A. INDIVIDUAL CEA SELECTION switch ONLY.
B. GROUP SELECT and MODE SELECT switches ONLY.
C. GROUP SELECT, MODE SELECT, and INDIVIDUAL CEA SELECTION
switches ONLY.
D. GROUP SELECT, PS GROUP SELECT, MODE SELECT, and INDIVIDUAL
CEA SELECTION switches.
A Wrong Must also manipulate MODE SELECT, and INDIVIDUAL CEA SELECTION
switches. Plausible because this is one of the switches required to realign the
CEAs.
B Wrong Must also manipulate INDIVIDUAL CEA SELECTION switch. Plausible
because these two switches are required to realign the CEAs.
C Correct GROUP SELECT must be changed from 5 to 4.
MODE SELECT must be changed from SB to MI.
INDIVIDUAL CEA SELECTION must be changed to the three different CEAs
to maintain a maximum of 2 step overlap.
D Wrong PS GROUP SELECT is NOT required to be manipulated. Plausible because
this is one of the four switches used to manipulate CEAs.
Given the following plant conditions:
• An event has occurred that requires an emergency boration.
• The crew has established a boration through CHN-UV-514, Boric Acid Makeup to
Charging Pumps, with a Boric Acid Makeup pump running.
Subsequently
• NHN-M1528, power to CHN-UV-514, trips open.
• CHN-LT-227, VCT level transmitter, fails LOW.
• CHN-LI-226, VCT Level, reads 48%.
Which ONE of the following describes the impact of these conditions on the emergency boration
flowpath?
A. The crew must manually open CHE-UV-514 to establish an emergency boration
flowpath.
B. The crew must manually open CHE-HV-536 to establish an emergency boration
flowpath.
C. The emergency boration flowpath will be maintained through a single suction
flowpath (via CHN-UV-514) to the charging pumps.
D. The emergency boration flowpath will be maintained through two suction
flowpaths (via CHN-UV-514 and CHN-HV-536) to the charging pumps.
A Wrong Incorrect because CHE-HV-536 will automatically open on a Low-Low VCT
level, coincident with a loss of power to CHN-UV-514, to maintain an
emergency boration flowpath. See Page 77 of the PVNGS Operator
Information Manual. Plausible because CHE-UV-514 is a “fail-close” valve
B Wrong Incorrect because CHE-HV-536 does not need to be manually opened. It will
automatically open on a Low-Low VCT level, coincident with a loss of power to
CHN-UV-514. Plausible because CHE-HV-536 may be manually opened under
certain conditions in 40AO-9ZZ01.
C Wrong Incorrect because when CHE-HV-536 opens, there will be a parallel suction
path to the charging pumps since CHN-UV-514 is already open per 40AO-
9ZZ01. Plausible because, under most circumstances in 40AO-9ZZ01, there is
a single suction source to the charging pumps.
D Correct CHN-UV-514 is open per the given conditions. When power is lost to
CHN-UV-514, it will remain open since it is an MOV. Also, CHE-HV-536 will
automatically open on a Low-Low VCT level, coincident with a loss of
power to CHN-UV-514. This will result in parallel suction flowpaths to the
charging pumps.
The Functional Recovery Procedure directs feeding a ruptured and faulted Steam Generator at
1360 - 1600 gpm.
Which ONE of the following describes the primary purpose of this action?
A. Rapidly depressurize the RCS.
B. Rapidly depressurize the affected SG.
C. Reduce the associated radioactive release.
D. Equalize pressure between the SG and the RCS.
A Wrong This action would help to depressurize the RCS. Depressurizing the RCS is one
of the actions to help stop the spread of contamination found in the FRP,
making this answer plausible.
B Wrong This action will depressurize the SG making it plausible.
C Correct This action is taken due the loss of Containment Integrity to limit the
radioactive release.
D Wrong Incorrect because equalizing pressure is not the reason for establishing 1360-
1600 gpm AFW flow. Plausible because equalizing pressure is one of the goals
for a SGTR.
Given the following plant conditions:
• Unit 3 is in a Refueling Outage.
• The Containment LSRO is in the process of loading a fuel bundle into the core.
• The count rate on Startup Channel #1 increases by a factor of 5.
• The count rate on Startup Channel #2 increases by a factor of 3.
• No RMS alarms or trends are present in the Control Room.
Which ONE of the following is the correct required response to this event?
A. Withdraw the last inserted fuel assembly and observe Startup Channel response.
B. Stop all fuel movement and order an evacuation of non-essential personnel from
containment.
C. Stop all fuel movement and initiate a CPIAS, Containment Purge Isolation
Actuation Signal.
D. Fuel movement may continue provided that the Operability of Startup Channel #2
is confirmed.
A Correct Per 72IC-9RX03, Core Reloading, Step 6.2.21.4:
IF during insertion of a fuel assembly, the sustained count rate from either
startup channel increases by a factor of five (5) from the last stable counts,
excluding anticipated changes due to spatial effects, THEN withdraw the
fuel assembly immediately.
Lesson Plan NKA02C021601, Refueling Operations, Page 19:
If during insertion of a fuel assembly the neutron count rate from either
startup nuclear channel increases by a factor of five from the last counts
stable value, excluding anticipated changes due to spatial effects (such as
insertion of an irradiated fuel assembly near a detector), immediately
withdraw the fuel assembly and observe the startup channel response.
B Wrong An evacuation is not required in 72IC-9RX03, Core Reloading. Plausible since
evacuate may be called for in other fuel handling procedures, such as
40AO-9ZZ22, Fuel Damage. Also plausible because 40OP-9ZZ23, Outage
GOP, contains evacuation guidance in Appendix G - Containment Evacuation.
40OP-9ZZ23 is applicable under the conditions of the stem.
C Wrong Incorrect since fuel movement is not immediately stopped. The last assembly
must be immediately removed.
D Wrong Incorrect since confirmation on both channels would not mitigate the conditions.
Plausible because confirmation of a similar indication on the other channel is
addressed in Step 6.2.21.6 of 72IC-9RX03 as follows:
Given the following conditions:
• A lowering vacuum condition has caused the Operating Crew to enter 40AO-9ZZ07, Loss of
Condenser Vacuum.
• The Secondary Operator has transferred load to steam dump valves 1007 and 1008.
• Main Generator output is approximately 600 MWe.
• An Area Operator reports that air is being drawn past the vacuum breaker for the ‘B’ Condenser
Shell and they are unable to fill it with water.
• Vacuum continues to degrade and passes 7” HgA.
Based on these conditions, the Operating Crew should…
A. trip the Reactor.
B. reduce Turbine load to 410 MWe
C. initiate a RPCB to rapidly reduce Turbine load.
D. trip the Turbine and continue efforts to correct the problem.
A Correct Per 40AO-9ZZ07, Appendix F, Reactor Trip Criteria:
CONDITION 1
BOTH of the following conditions are met:
• Condenser pressure > 7 inches HgA and rising in any shell
• Main Generator sync’d to the grid
IF ANY of the conditions exist,
THEN trip the Reactor and GO TO 40EP-9EO01, Standard Post Trip Actions.
B Wrong Incorrect because, under these conditions, a Reactor trip is required. Plausible
because lowering load is an action taken in 40AO-9ZZ07 and 410 MWe is part of
Condition 4 Reactor trip criteria in 40AO-9ZZ07, Appendix F; and it is part of
Turbine trip criteria in 40AL-9RK6A, Window 6A16D.
C Wrong Incorrect because, under these conditions, a Reactor trip is required. Plausible
since an RPCB is one method of quickly reducing plant load. Also plausible
since plant load may be reduced via a RPCB during a condenser tube leak.
D Wrong Per 40AO-9ZZ07, Appendix F, Reactor Trip Criteria, the correct action is to trip
the Reactor. Plausible since the Diagnostics page would require a Main Turbine
trip if power was less than 12%.
Given the following conditions:
• The Unit 3 Control Room has been evacuated due to a FIRE.
• The CRS is implementing 40AO-9ZZ19, Control Room Fire.
• The RO has been directed to perform Appendix A, Primary Reactor Operator Actions.
Which ONE of the following describes the operational impact after Appendix A is complete?
A. EDG ‘A’ will be running.
B. ALL charging pumps will be secured.
C. Spurious operation of MSIVs will be prevented.
D. Local operation of Train ‘A’ equipment will be isolated from the Control Room.
A Wrong The action is to secure, not to start EDG ‘A.’ Plausible because DGs are
evaluated in 40AO-9ZZ19.
B Wrong CCP ‘B’ is to remain in operation to ensure seal injection to the RCP seals.
Plausible because Charging Pumps A & E are secured in Appendix B (Steps 7 &
8) in 40AO-9ZZ19. Additionally, plausibility is established since Charging Pump
B breaker is opened in Appendix E (Step 7) of 40AO-9ZZ19; it is then reclosed in
Step 17. Under the given conditions, Appendix E will not be performed.
C Correct This is accomplished by opening the DC supply breakers on PKA-M41 in
the DC Equipment Room.
D Wrong Train ‘B’ is the train that has disconnect switches installed. Appendices A and B
are used to isolate Train ‘B’ equipment from the control room to prevent fire
related operation while allowing for remote operation as well as
disabling/de-energizing other equipment to prevent fire initiated operations.
Given the following plant conditions:
• Unit 1 was at 80% power.
• Due to toxic gas intrusion SM and CRS have directed the evacuation of the Control
Room.
Which ONE of the following describes an action that is completed PRIOR to evacuating the
Control Room and the reason?
A. Ensure that Emergency Boration is established if all full strength CEAs did not
fully insert.
B. Initiate an MSIS to prevent over-pressurizing the Main Condenser in the event
that a loss of vacuum occurs.
C. Initiate an MSIS to prevent an uncontrolled cooldown in the event a steam
bypass control valve fails open once the crew is at the Remote Shutdown
Panel.
D. Check that all full strength CEAs are inserted to determine if charging pump
suction must be aligned to the RWT once the crew is at the Remote Shutdown
Panel.
A Wrong Incorrect because the boration will occur after the CR is evacuated. Plausible
because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because it is the 1st action taken
once the operators are at the RSP.
B Wrong Incorrect because an MSIS is not initiated until after the CR is evacuated. See
Steps 17 and 32 of 40AO-9ZZ18.
C Wrong Incorrect because an MSIS is not initiated until after the CR is evacuated. See
Steps 17 and 32 of 40AO-9ZZ18. Plausible because an MSIS is initiated prior
to leaving the CR in the event of a CR Fire. See Step 3 of 40AO-9ZZ19,
Control Room Fire. The 2nd part is plausible because it could be true.
D Correct CEAs are checked inserted at Step 3 of 40AO-9ZZ18, Shutdown Outside
Control Room. Steps 7 & 8 direct operators to the RSP. Step 9 directs
the CRS to borate to the charging pump suction from the RWT.
Given the following conditions:
• The Reactor has tripped due to a LOCA.
• All RCPs are secured due to low RCS subcooling.
• Initial HPSI flow to each cold leg is 300 gpm.
Subsequently
• SIB-P02, HPSI Pump ‘B’ trips.
Which ONE of the following identifies the expected flowrates on the instruments listed below?
FT-331, HPSI TO 1A FLOW (SIA-FI-331)
FT-321, HPSI TO 2B FLOW (SIB-FI-311-1)
FT-331 FT-321
A. Approximately 75 gpm 0 (ZERO) gpm
B. Approximately 150 gpm 0 (ZERO) gpm
C. Approximately 75 gpm Approximately 75 gpm
D. Approximately 150 gpm Approximately 150 gpm
A Wrong Incorrect because FT-331 will read approximately 150 gpm, not 75, and
because FT321 will read approximately 150 gpm, not ZERO. Also plausible
because a novice operator may deduce that since a Train B pump tripped, the
“SIB” indicator will not indicate flow. ZERO flow is also possible because the
associated flow indicator would read ZERO gpm if a LPSI pump tripped.
B Wrong Incorrect because FT-321 will read approximately 150 gpm, not ZERO.
Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because a novice
operator may deduce that since a Train B pump tripped, the “SIB” indicator will
not indicate flow. ZERO flow is also possible because the associated flow
indicator would read ZERO gpm if a LPSI pump tripped.
C Wrong Incorrect since FT-331 will read approximately 150 gpm, not 75. Plausible
because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may
deduce that, since 1 of 2 pumps tripped, the flowrate will be split between SIA
and SIB indicators.
D Correct Each Train of HPSI has redundant indicators which show injection flow to
each of the 4 cold legs.
Given the following conditions: • The Reactor has tripped. • An ESD has occurred on SG #1. • SG #1 has just reached dryout. The following indications are available to the Secondary Operator: • Loop 1 T-cold 392°F • Loop 1 T-hot 480°F • Loop 2 T-cold 460°F • Loop 2 T-hot 488°F The BOP operator is now manipulating Atmospheric Dump Valves, which one of the following is the target pressure for SG #2? A. 225 psia. B. 465 psia. C. 565 psia. D. 610 psia.
A Correct 225 psia is the saturation pressure for 392°F. IAW 40EO-9EP05, Excess
Steam Demand, the operating crew is required to stabilize RCS
temperature at the lowest Tcold. This is accomplished by controlling SG
pressure.
Per 40EO-9EP05, Step 14, Page 10:
14. Stabilize RCS temperature using the lowest Tc by performing the
following:
a. Maintain Tc within the P/T limits. REFER TO Appendix 2, Figures
b. Steam the least affected Steam Generator using ANY of the following:
• SBCS
• ADVs from the Control Room
• Appendix 18, Local ADV
Operation
c. Control feedwater to the least affected steam generator.
d. WHEN control is regained, THEN record the following:
Time: ______
RCS Tc: ______
PZR Pressure: ______
B Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 465 psia.
Plausible because 465 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 2
Tcold.
C Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 565 psia.
Plausible because 565 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 1Thot.
D Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 610 psia.
Plausible because 610 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 2Thot.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 was operating at 100% power.
• RCP 1A supply breaker trips.
• On the reactor trip, the DFWCS system fails.
• Operators take manual control of AFW and establish 350 gpm flow to each SG.
Which ONE of the following SG conditions should the Operator expect 10 minutes after the trip?
A. SG #1 will have a higher level than SG #2.
B. SG #2 will have a higher level than SG #1.
C. Loop 1 Tcold will be higher than Loop 2 Tcold.
D. Loop 2 Tcold will be higher than Loop 1 Tcold.
A Correct SG #2 will have a lower SG level because it is generating more steam due
to greater RCS flow.
B Wrong Incorrect since SG#1 will have a higher level due to the lower steaming rate.
C/D Wrong There will be no difference in temperature even though there is a difference in the
steaming rate. These are plausible distracters because there is a difference in the
steaming rate of the two loops. Also plausible because there are conditions such
as ESDs where Tcold will diverge after an MSIS is actuated.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is at 100% power.
• Alarm VCT TRBL (3A09A) actuates.
• The RO notes that VCT pressure is 5 psig and lowering slowly.
Which ONE of the following identifies (1) the required action and (2) the reason for that action?
A. (1) raise hydrogen pressure
(2) to prevent water from flashing inside the VCT
B. (1) raise hydrogen pressure
(2) to maintain charging pump NPSH
C. (1) raise nitrogen pressure
(2) to prevent water from flashing inside the VCT
D. (1) raise nitrogen pressure
(2) to maintain charging pump NPSH
A Wrong Incorrect because VCT overpressure is not maintained to prevent flashing
within the VCT – it helps prevent flashing in the charging pump suction.
Plausible because there are components within many systems that maintain a
pressure to prevent flashing. For example, in the CVCS, the two letdown
backpressure control valves maintain a backpressure to prevent flashing
upstream of the valves, to help prevent damage to the Letdown Heat
Exchanger. (Refer to L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem,
Page 29). Also plausible because the 1st part is correct.
B Correct Per 40AL-9RK3A, Panel BO3A Alarm Responses, Window 3A09A, Group C
(Volume Control Tank Pressure Hi-Lo), if VCT pressure is low, the
operators are directed to raise pressure using either the hydrogen
regulator or the nitrogen regulator. Since the Unit is at power, the
hydrogen regulator should be used since a hydrogen overpressure exists
on the VCT.
Per L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem, Page 38, one
function of the VCT is to maintain NPSH to the charging pumps. This is
accomplished by the hydrogen overpressure in the VCT while at power,
the head due to the height of water in the VCT, and VCT/charging pump
suction temperature. If pressure in the VCT drops, available NPSH will
be reduced.
C Wrong Incorrect because VCT overpressure is not maintained to prevent flashing
within the VCT – it helps prevent flashing in the charging pump suction.
Plausible because there are components within many systems that maintain a
pressure to prevent flashing. For example, in the CVCS, the two letdown
backpressure control valves maintain a backpressure to prevent flashing
upstream of the valves, to help prevent damage to the Letdown Heat
Exchanger. (Refer to L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem,
Page 29).
Also incorrect because, while at power, nitrogen would not be used to control
VCT pressure. Nitrogen is plausible because it is used to maintain VCT
pressure while the Unit is shutdown.
D Wrong Incorrect because, while at power, nitrogen would not be used to control VCT
pressure. Nitrogen is plausible because it is used to maintain VCT pressure
while the Unit is shutdown. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.
What is the power supply to the Low Pressure Safety Injection pump B, SIB-P01? A. NBN-S01, 4160 kV bus. B. NBN-S02, 4160 kV bus. C. PBA-S03, 4160 kV bus. D. PBB-S04, 4160 kV bus.
A Wrong 4160 kV buses but are not the power supply to LPSI pump B
B Wrong
C Wrong
D Correct Class 4160kV PBB-S04 is the correct source
In order to reset a SIAS that was manually initiated from B05, the operator MUST…
A. ONLY press either LOCKOUT RESET pushbutton at each Auxiliary Relay
Cabinet.
B. ONLY press both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons at each Auxiliary Relay
Cabinet simultaneously.
C. FIRST press the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet; then
press either LOCKOUT RESET pushbutton at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet.
D. FIRST press the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet; then
press both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons at each Auxiliary Relay Cabinet
simultaneously.
A Wrong Incorrect because the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet
must first be depressed. Plausible because it is partially correct in that either
pushbutton will reset the function.
B Wrong Incorrect because both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons do not have to be reset.
Plausible because a novice operator may not recall that either pushbutton will
accomplish the reset and conclude that, in many cases, both pushbuttons must
be depressed to reset a function.
C Correct IAW 40AO-9ZZ17, Appendix B, PPS-ESFAS Reset, Steps 5.2 (SIAS Initiation
Relay lamps will not be illuminated), PPS Initiation Path is reset first. Then, in
Appendix B, Step 6.1 (SIAS Actuation Signal lamps will not be illuminated), the
PPS-ESFAS actuation is reset at the Aux Relay Panels.
D Wrong Incorrect because both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons do not have to be reset.
Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because a novice
operator may not recall that either pushbutton will accomplish the reset and
conclude that, in many cases, both pushbuttons must be depressed to reset a
function.
Given the following plant conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• Diesel Generator ‘B’ is out of service for maintenance.
• Offsite power is lost.
• A LOCA occurs and the crew implements 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident.
• RCS pressure and Pressurizer level are dropping rapidly.
• RCS pressure is 1100 psia.
• The RO notes the following indications for HPSI Pump “A”.
150 Amps.
Discharge pressure is 1000 psig.
Discharge flow is 75 gpm per loop.
Based on these indications, there is a (1) and the operating crew should (2) to establish
HPSI flow.
A. (1) a sheared shaft on HPSI Pump ‘A’
(2) enter 40EP-9EO09, Functional Recovery, and restore power to PBB-S04
B. (1) a break in the HPSI Pump ‘A’ discharge header
(2) enter 40EP-9EO09, Functional Recovery, and restore power to PBB-S04
C. (1) a sheared shaft on HPSI Pump ‘A’
(2) remain in 40EP-9EO03 and restore power to PBB-S04 using 40AO-9ZZ12,
Degraded Electrical Power
D. (1) a break in the HPSI Pump ‘A’ discharge header
(2) remain in 40EP-9EO03 and restore power to PBB-S04 using 40AO-9ZZ12,
Degraded Electrical Power
A Wrong Incorrect because a sheared shaft would result in low amps on the pump.
Plausible because low discharge pressure and low flow are also indications of a
sheared shaft. Also plausible because the second part is correct.
B Correct High amps, low discharge pressure and low flow are indications consistent with a
discharge header pipe rupture. The FRP is structured to restore power to class
buses.
40DP-9AP16, Section 7.0.1, states:
The FRP might also be entered from an ORP if an ORP had been initially
selected but failed the Safety Function Status Check or the ORP selected is not
mitigating the event. If the Safety Function Status Check acceptance criteria are
not satisfied at any time, then the operator is directed to evaluate the need to
implement the FRP.
40DP-9AP16, Section 9.0, states: Each ORP has its own Safety Function Status Check (SFSC) which must be
used whenever the ORP is in use. The SFSC is used to check the status of safety
functions. By satisfying the SFSC acceptance criteria, the operating staff is
assured that the actions being taken are maintaining the plant in a safe condition.
If SFSC criteria are not satisfied, the operators will take corrective actions to
satisfy the safety functions, implement another ORP, or exit to the FRP.
Since the RCS Pressure Control Safety Function Acceptance Criteria are not met
(HPSI flow is in the Region Not Acceptable on Appendix 2), entry into the FRP is
required.
NOTE – K/A MATCH:
If the question was structured to ask for “predict impact of an ECCS header
rupture,” the answer would have to be similar to “reduced injection flow” and this
would have little discriminatory value. Therefore, to improve discriminatory
value, “reverse logic” was used to require the examinee to determine the event
and the mitigating action.
NOTE – APPROPRIATE LICENSE LEVEL
This question is at the RO level because the conditions in the stem provide the
Entry Conditions to a major EOP.
C Wrong Incorrect because a sheared shaft would result in low amps on the pump. Also
incorrect because the EOP User’s Guide requires entry into the FRP when a
Safety Function is not satisfied. Plausible because using 40AO-9ZZ12 would
work.
D Wrong Incorrect because the EOP User’s Guide requires entry into the FRP when a
Safety Function is not satisfied. Plausible because using 40AO-9ZZ12 would
work. Also plausible because the first part is correct.
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
• The #3 seal on Reactor Coolant Pump 1A has degraded.
• The crew has verified a 17 gpm leakrate per 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakrate.
• Reactor Drain Tank (RDT) pressure is 5 psig and increasing.
• RDT level is 56% and increasing.
• Volume Control Tank (VCT) level is 41% and lowering.
• Pressurizer level is stable.
Which ONE of the following identifies (1) the result if NO operator action(s) are taken and (2) the
required action to take to maintain parameters within limits?
A. (1) the RDT rupture disk will blow.
(2) vent the RDT to Containment.
B. (1) the RDT rupture disk will blow.
(2) vent the RDT to the gas surge header.
C. (1) charging pump suction will be lost.
(2) take manual control of makeup to the VCT.
D. (1) charging pump suction will be lost.
(2) align the Reactor Water Tank to the charging pump suction.
A Wrong Incorrect because 40AL-9RK3A requires that the RDT be vented to the gas surge
header. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because
venting to Containment is an option in 40AL-9RK3A.
B Correct Explanation: VCT level will drop due to the loss of inventory. Pzr level will
remain stable as letdown flow lowers. RDT level will increase as the RCS
fluid flows past the failed seal. Containment temp and humidity are
unaffected as failed RCP seal flow is collected in the RDT. The RDT rupture
disc blows at 120#. If no actions are taken to relieve the increasing
pressure, the rupture disc will eventually blow
Per the NOTE in 40AL-9RK3A:
If the reactor drain tank pressure continues to increase to 10 psig the RDT
vent to gas surge header valve CHN-UV-540 and RDT outlet containment
isolation valve CHA-UV-560, will close. At approximately 120 psid the RDT
rupture disc, CHN-PSE-12 will rupture.
Per the 40AL-9RK3A:
Unit 2 Only: Vent the RDT to the gas surge header using CHN-UV-540 to
maintain RDT pressure below 7 psig.
Units 1 and 3 Only: Vent the RDT to the gas surge header using
CHN-UV-540 to maintain RDT pressure below 10 psig
C Wrong Incorrect because the makeup capabilities exceed the given leak rate. VCT
level will be maintained above 34%, above the point where charging pump
suction is lost. The action is plausible because, if the VCT TRBL (due to LOW
level) actuates, 40AL-9RK3A, window 3A09A requires manual makeup.
D Wrong Incorrect because the makeup capabilities exceed the given leak rate. VCT
level will be maintained above 34%, above the point where charging pump
suction is lost. The action is plausible because, if the VCT LVL LO-LO alarm
actuates, 40AL-9RK3A, window 3A08B describes that the charging pump suction
will auto-swap to the RWT (when CHN-UV-514 opens)..
Which ONE of the following identifies (1) the normal and (2) the backup makeup source to the Nuclear Cooling Water Surge Tank? A. (1) Condensate Storage Tank. (2) Cooling Water Holdup Tank. B. (1) Condensate Storage Tank. (2) Reactor Makeup Water Tank. C. (1) Demineralized Water System. (2) Cooling Water Holdup Tank. D. (1) Demineralized Water System. (2) Reactor Makeup Water Tank.
A Wrong Incorrect because the CST is not the normal makeup to the NC Surge Tank.
Plausible because the CST supplies makeup to many surge tanks, such as the
Essential Chilled Water Surge Tank and the Essential Cooling Water Surge
Tank. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.
B Wrong Incorrect because the CST is not the normal makeup to the NC Surge Tank.
Also incorrect because the RMWT does not supply backup makeup. Plausible
because the CST supplies makeup to many surge tanks, such as the Essential
Chilled Water Surge Tank and the Essential Cooling Water Surge Tank. RMWT
is plausible because it is a source of pure makeup water for other tanks in the
Auxiliary Building, such as the Equipment Drain Tank and the VCT.
C Correct Per DWG 01-M-NCP-001 (upper left corner), the normal makeup source is
automatically supplied from Demineralized Water System via LCV 75. Backup
makeup is from the Cooling Water Holdup Tank via normally-closed manual
valve V070.
D Wrong Incorrect because the RMWT does not supply backup makeup. RMWT is
plausible because it is a source of pure makeup water for other tanks in the
Auxiliary Building, such as the Equipment Drain Tank and the VCT. Also
plausible because the 1st part is correct.
Given the following plant conditions:
• Unit 1 is MODE 4.
• An Inservice Test is being performed on containment penetration isolation valves using
73ST-9XI23, CP, EW, IA, and NC Valves – Inservice Test.
• The Close Stroke Time is slower than the Tech Spec Acceptance Criteria.
For this test, the valve stroke time is measured from handswitch operation to when the ___(1)___
and the crew must apply the requirements of LCO ___(2)___.
A. (1) green light is ON.
(2) 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations.
B. (1) green light is ON.
(2) 3.6.3, Containment Isolation Valves.
C. (1) red light goes OUT.
(2) 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations.
D. (1) red light goes OUT.
(2) 3.6.3, Containment Isolation Valves.
A Wrong Incorrect because stroke time is until the red light goes out, not when the green
light comes on. Plausible because each close stroke time test in 73ST-9XI23
contains the following step:
“Verify only the green light is on at…”
T.S. 3.9.3 is incorrect because it only applies during Refueling Ops.
T.S. 3.9.3 is plausible because 73ST-9XI23 specifically cites entry into this T.S.’s
actions when a Containment Purge Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE.
These valves are also tested in 73ST-9XI23.
Per 73ST-9XI23, Step 8.3:
IF any valve fails to satisfy the Technical Specification Acceptance Criteria OR is
otherwise determined to be Inoperable,
THEN perform the following:
8.3.1 Declare the valve Inoperable.
8.3.1.1 IF any Containment Purge Isolation Valve is determined to be Inoperable,
THEN observe the action requirements of LCO 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations.
B Wrong Incorrect because stroke time is until the red light goes out, not when the green
light comes on. Plausible because each close stroke time test in 73ST-9XI23
contains the following step: “Verify only the green light is on at…” Also plausible because the second part is
correct.
C Wrong T.S. 3.9.3 is incorrect because it only applies during Refueling Ops.
Plausible because the first part is correct. T.S. 3.9.3 is plausible because
73ST-9XI23 specifically cites entry into this T.S.’s actions when a Containment
Purge Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE. These valves are also tested
in 73ST-9XI23.
D Correct Per several NOTES in 73ST-9XI23:
Valve close stroke time is measured from handswitch operation to when the red
light goes out.
Per several Steps in 73ST-9XI23:
Measure stroke time from handswitch operation until red indication light goes out.
Per 73ST-9XI23, Step 8.3:
IF any valve fails to satisfy the Technical Specification Acceptance Criteria OR is
otherwise determined to be Inoperable,
THEN perform the following:
8.3.1 Declare the valve Inoperable.
Once a Containment Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE, T.S. 3.6.3 must
be applied.
Given the following plant conditions: • The Unit is operating at 100% power. • The selected Pressurizer pressure transmitter, PT-100Y, fails HIGH. Assuming NO operator action, which ONE of the following identifies the effect of this failure on the 1. Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) 2. Output of the Master Pressure Controller? A. 1) modulate signal biases downward 2) goes to MINIMUM output B. 1) modulate signal biases downward 2) goes to MAXIMUM output C. 1) permissive signal biases downward 2) goes to MINIMUM output D. 1) permissive signal biases downward 2) goes to MAXIMUM output
A Wrong Incorrect because the permissive signal will be biased downward, not the
modulate signal. Plausible because downward bias is correct for the permissive
signal. Also incorrect because the Master Pressure Controller goes to MAX, not
MIN. Plausible because it is a common misconception that the output of the
Master Pressure Controller acts “in reverse” of the direction of failure (HIGH
failure – LOW output; LOW failure – HIGH output).
B Wrong Incorrect because the permissive signal will be biased downward, not upward.
Plausible because downward bias is correct for the permissive signal. Also
plausible because the 2nd part is correct.
C Wrong Incorrect because the Master Pressure Controller goes to MAX, not MIN.
Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Plausible because it is a common
misconception that the output of the Master Pressure Controller acts “in reverse”
of the direction of failure (HIGH failure – LOW output; LOW failure – HIGH
output).
D Correct Per Lesson Plan NKASYC014306, Pressurizer Pressure Control System:
Selected Pressurizer pressure transmitter fails high:
• “Pressurizer Trouble” annunciator.
• “Pressurizer Pressure Hi-Lo” annunciator.
• “Turbine Bypass Demand” annunciator.
• SBCS affected:
• If PT-100X - Modulation signal biased downward (controller
demand generated).
• If PT-100Y - Permissive signal biased downward (permissive light
lit).
• Master Pressure Controller goes to Maximum output.
• Proportional heaters to minimum output.
• Pressurizer spray valve controller goes to maximum output.
• Spray valves go full open.
• All Backup heaters turn off.
• High Pressurizer pressure indication on B04.
Given the following conditions: • The core is at 150 EFPD. • Reactor Startup is in progress. As power increases above \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_, the High Log Power Bypass Permissive light \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_. A. (1) 10-2% (2) goes out B. (1) 10-2% (2) illuminates C. (1) 10-4% (2) goes out D. (1) 10-4% (2) illuminates
A Wrong Incorrect because the setpoint for the High Log Power Bypass Permissive is
10-4%, not 10-2%. Also incorrect because the light illuminates, not goes out.
Plausible because the Hi Log Power trip setpoint is 10-2%. Also plausible
because the light goes out as power drops below 10-4%.
B Wrong Incorrect because the setpoint for the High Log Power Bypass Permissive is
10-4%, not 10-2%. Plausible because the Hi Log Power trip setpoint is 10-2%.
Also plausible because the second part is correct.
C Wrong Incorrect because the light illuminates, not goes out. Plausible because the first
part is correct. Also plausible because the light goes out as power drops below
10-4%.
D Correct Per 41AL-1RK5A, Window 5A15B:
PT ID POSSIBLE CAUSE SETPOINT
SBJS10A Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch A l0-4% power
SBJS10B Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch B l0-4% power
SBJS10C Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch C l0-4% power
SBJS10D Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch D l0-4% power
Per 40OP-9ZZ03, Appendix F:
Appendix F - Bypassing High Log Power Trips
1.0 Bypassing High Log Power Trips.
1.1 WHEN the High Log Power Bypass Permissive light illuminates (HI LOG
PWR BYP PERM, B05A15B will alarm also),
THEN perform the following:
1.1.1 Bypass the High Log Power Trips for each Log Safety Channel on B05.
Given the following conditions:
• The Unit is operating at 100% one week after a refueling outage.
Which ONE of the choices below completes the following statement?
There are a total of ___(1)___ channels of ESF Matrix Logic and a loss of ALL of them will result
in exceeding the peak fuel centerline temperature Safety Limit of ___(2)___ in the event of a
Design Basis Accident?
A. (1) four
(2) 5022°F
B. (1) four
(2) 5080°F
C. (1) six
(2) 5022°F
D. (1) six
(2) 5080°F
A Wrong Incorrect because there are 6 ESF Matrix Relays, not four. Plausible because
there are 4 Initiation Relays. Also incorrect because the correct temperature
limit is 5080°F, not 5022°F. 5022°F is plausible because this would be correct
(5080 – 58 = 5022) for a burnup of 10000 MWD/MTU.
B Wrong Incorrect because there are 6 ESF Matrix Relays, not four. Plausible because
there are 4 Initiation Relays. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.
C Wrong Incorrect because the correct temperature limit is 5080°F, not 5022°F. 5022°F is
plausible because this would be correct (5080 – 58 = 5022) for a burnup of
10000 MWD/MTU. Also plausible because the 1st part is correct.
D Correct Per TS 2.1.1.2: In MODES 1 and 2, the peak fuel centerline temperature
shall be maintained < 5080°F (decreasing by 58°F per 10,000 MWD/MTU for
burnup and adjusting for burnable poisons per CENPD-382-P-A). Stem
states 1 week after startup.
Given the following conditions:
• Containment pressure Channel A is 3.4 psig.
• Containment pressure Channel B is 2.7 psig.
• Containment pressure Channel C is 3.1 psig.
• Containment pressure Channel D is 2.6 psig.
• Pressurizer pressure Channel A is 1845 psia.
• Pressurizer pressure Channel B is 1830 psia.
• Pressurizer pressure Channel C is 1832 psia.
• Pressurizer pressure Channel D is 1840 psia.
• SG 1 pressure Channel A is 980 psia.
• SG 1 pressure Channel B is 950 psia.
• SG 1 pressure Channel C is 970 psia.
• SG 1 pressure Channel D is 970 psia.
Assuming NO Operator actions, the SG sample valves are…
A. closed, due to both the MSIS and CIAS actuations.
B. closed, due to both the SIAS and MSIS actuations.
C. open, Hi containment trip setpoint has not been reached.
D. open, Lo SG pressure trip setpoint has not been reached.
A Wrong Incorrect because CIAS does not close these valves. Plausible because valves
will be closed (this part is correct). Also plausible because “MSIS” is correct.
B Correct 3.0 psig in Containment will initiate CIAS, SIAS and MSIS signals on 2/4
channels. Valves will be closed due MSIS (Containment press) and SIAS
(Pzr press). CIAS, although the same setpoint, does not close these valves.
C Wrong Incorrect because valves will be closed, not open. Also wrong because CIAS
initiates at 3 psig on 2/4 channels). Plausible because a novice operator may
confuse the setpoint for CIAS with that of the Containment Spray Actuation
Signal (CSAS) setpoint of 8.5 psig. See Operator Information Manual, Pages 48
and 49.
D Wrong Incorrect because valves will be closed, not open. Plausible because it is true
that Lo S/G pressure MSIS has not initiated (setpoint is 960 psig).
Given the following conditions:
• Unit 3 is operating at rated power.
• The “A” train CEDM cooling fans (A02A/A02C) are running.
THEN
• Alarm window 7A9B, CEDM ACU COOLS SYS TRBL, alarms.
• The Operator observes that both CEDM cooling fans A02A/A02C have brighter than normal
green lights.
Under these conditions, the “B” train CEDM fans should ___(1)___ and, if cooling is NOT restored,
then ___(2)___.
A. (1) start immediately
(2) the Reactor must be tripped within 10 minutes of loss of cooling.
B. (1) start within 2 minutes
(2) the Reactor must be tripped within 10 minutes of loss of cooling.
C. (1) start immediately
(2) the Reactor must be tripped within 40 minutes of loss of cooling.
D. (1) start within 2 minutes
(2) the Reactor must be tripped within 40 minutes of loss of cooling.
A Wrong Incorrect because B trains fan will NOT start immediately. There is time delay
installed in the auto start feature to allow time for damper closing. “Immediately”
is plausible because there are some standby HVAC fans (PZR Cooling Fan and
the Containment Normal ACU), that automatically start without a time delay.
The shutdown is plausible because 40AO-9ZZ20 requires a cooldown if cooling
flow cannot be restored; it just doesn’t have to be started within 40 minutes.
B Wrong The fans will start within 2 minutes. There is time delay installed in the auto start
feature to allow time for damper closing. The cooldown must be started within 10
minutes. Also plausible because the first half is correct.
C Wrong Incorrect because B trains fan will NOT start immediately. Also plausible because
the second half is correct.
D Correct The B train fans have a 2 minute time delay and 40AO-9ZZ20 directs a Reactor
trip if cooling not restored within 40 minutes.
40OP-9HC01, Containment HVAC (HC), Limitations and Precautions 3.13
states:
“When one set of CEDM fans is running, the other set may be spinning
backwards. A time delay agastat of 120 seconds is installed so that when the
set of running CEDM fans is shut down, that the other set won’t auto-start for 120
seconds (meaning the second set of fans is no longer running backwards.) There
should be no need to manually start the second set of fans unless 120 seconds has passed and they still haven’t started.”
40AO-9ZZ20, Section 10.0, Step 7 states:
IF at least one CEDM ACU Fan is NOT restored within 40 minutes of
the initial loss,
THEN perform the following:
a. Trip the reactor.
