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GI module - 4th year > 2014 module exam > Flashcards

2014 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

A 7-year-old boy is suffering from severe diarrhoea and weight loss. Investigations showed that he has IgA deficiency. What is the causative agent?

a. Giardiasis
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Entamoeba histolytica

A

a. Giardiasis

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2
Q

Mutation of which gene will make patients with colorectal cancer not respondents to anti-epidermal growth factor antibodies?

a. MSH
b. MLH
c. KRAS

A

c. KRAS

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3
Q

Cells characterised by increased canalicular system (intracellular canaliculi)?

a. Chief cells
b. Mucus neck cells
c. Enteroendocrine cells
d. Parietal cells

A

d. Parietal cells

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4
Q

Which part of GI tract has a functional sphincter preventing fecal matter to pass from the colon?

A

rectum

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5
Q

A well-known case of chronic hepatitis B who is a drug addict comes with new episodes of hepatomegaly, raised liver enzymes and jaundice. On investigations he was found to have Hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B. What is the drug of choice to treat him?

A

Interferon

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6
Q

A 67-year-old woman presenting with significant weight loss, loss of appetite and vague abdominal pain. A biopsy was taken from her stomach showed signet ring cells filled with mucin. What is the diagnosis?

a. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
b. Neuroendocrine tumor
c. Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma

A

c. Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma

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7
Q

What is the diagnostic test that is used to confirm the species of Salmonella?

a. Urease test
b. Catalase test
c. H and O antigens
d. H2S production

A

c. H and O antigens

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8
Q

Which of the following is only seen in pancreas?

a. Centroacinar cells
b. Intercalated ducts
c. Pancreatic acinar cells
d. Interlobular cells
e. Main pancreatic duct
f. Accessory pancreatic duct

A

a. Centroacinar cells

(This question was an EMQ all these choices were available the correct answer was centroacinar (according to Dr. Narayana the question he sent mentioned that he wanted cells only and the choice pancreatic acinar cells was only acinar cells making only centroacinar cells as the correct answer) but the question in our exam was exactly the same as it is written we told him to check it and he said he will and if it had more than one answer he will make sure to correct it but as always they posted the grades before he even replied)

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9
Q

What is the function of hemopexin?

a. Transform ferric to ferrous
b. Breakdown of porphyrin to heme
c. Binds heme and transports it so that it’s not free in circulation

A

c. Binds heme and transports it so that it’s not free in circulation

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10
Q

Around which structure does ischemia affect the most in hepatic lobules?

a. Portal venule
b. Central vein

A

b. Central vein

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11
Q

Which congenital malformation/embryological abnormality is associated with excessive growth of tissue around the second part of the duodenum?

A

Annular pancreas

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12
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pancreatitis?

a. fibrosis and atrophy of pancreatic tissue
b. Total loss of islets cells of Langerhans

A

a. fibrosis and atrophy of pancreatic tissue

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13
Q

Which analyte is raised in the following scenarios?
A patient with fetor hepaticus and asterixis, who went into comma?

a. Ammonia
b. GGT
c. AST
d. Acidic phosphatase
e. Albumin
f. AFP

A

a. Ammonia

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14
Q

Which analyte is raised in the following scenarios?
A 45-year-old female with a severe colicky pain on her right hypochondriac region. She was scheduled to undergo an emergency cholecystectomy?

a. Ammonia
b. GGT
c. AST
d. Acidic phosphatase
e. Albumin
f. AFP

A

b. GGT

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15
Q

An esophageal biopsy taken from a patient having heartburn and dysphagia showed basal cell hyperplasia, papillae elongation, and intraepithelial neutrophils. What is the diagnosis?

a. Barrett’s Esophagus
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the Esophagus
c. Reflux esophagitis

A

c. Reflux esophagitis

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16
Q

An esophageal biopsy from an old man with a long history of GERD showed some stratified squamous epithelium along with columnar epithelium with goblet cells. What is the diagnosis?

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

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17
Q

Which of the following cells if found indicates intestinal metaplasia in the stomach?

a. Giant cells
b. Neuroendocrine cells
c. Goblet cells

A

c. Goblet cells

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18
Q

Which structure connects lymphatics of the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

a. Anterior coronary ligament
b. Posterior coronary ligament
c. Ligamentum venosum
d. Left triangular ligament
e. Falciform ligament

A

e. Falciform ligament

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19
Q

Which of the following palate muscles is innervated by the mandibular nerve?

a. Levator veli palatini
b. Tensor veli palatini
c. Musculus uvulae
d. palatoglossus

A

b. Tensor veli palatini

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20
Q

Which of the following nerves carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

a. pelvic splanchnic nerves
b. superior hypogastric plexus

A

a. pelvic splanchnic nerves

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21
Q

In case of inflammation in the lesser sac what would prevent the extension of fluid formed in the lesser sac anteriorly?

a. Transverse colon
b. Stomach

A

b. Stomach

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22
Q

A patient with hepatitis suffers from a pain in his right upper quadrant. What is the nerve(s) that is responsible for this localized pain?

a. Lower thoracic nerves
b. Phrenic nerve

A

a. Lower thoracic nerves

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23
Q

Which of the following is a structure through which the lesser sac can extend to?

a. Transverse colon
b. Lienorenal ligament
c. Greater omentum

A

c. Greater omentum

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24
Q

A 1-year old baby is having fever with severe diarrhea and vomiting. Electron microscope of his stools showed wheel like structures. What is the diagnosis?

a. Norovirus
b. Astrovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Rota virus

A

d. Rota virus

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25
Q

A biopsy from the sublingual gland showed cystic spaces filled with eosinophilic hyaline material. What is the diagnosis?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

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26
Q

Oral vesicles showed ground glass appearance with nuclear inclusions and molding. What is the diagnosis?

A

Herpes simplex virus

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27
Q

What structure can be palpated in order to locate McBurney’s point?

a. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
b. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)

A

a. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

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28
Q

Which structure is at the Level of L4 vertebra?

a. Xiphoid process
b. Costal margin
c. Iliac crest

A

c. Iliac crest

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29
Q

Which of the following receives fibers from the greater splanchnic nerve?

a. Celiac ganglion
b. Superior mesenteric ganglion
c. Inferior mesenteric ganglion

A

a. Celiac ganglion

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30
Q

A congenital malformation involving a persistent cloacal membrane?

A

Imperforate anus

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31
Q

A patient was diagnosed with stage 1 hepatic adenocarcinoma. The surgeon intended to excise VII segment of the liver. Which structure will guide him to do so?

a. Left hepatic vein
b. Portal vein
c. Right hepatic vein

A

c. Right hepatic vein

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32
Q

An autopsy of a 42 years old man who had a car accident and died after 2 Days was done. The stomach had ulcerated and haemorrhagic surface. What is the pathology behind it?

a. Curling ulcer
b. Chronic active gastritis
c. H.pylori
d. Chemical gastritis

A

a. Curling ulcer

FYI curling ulcer is also known as stress ulcer

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33
Q

Which of the following is a structure with a feature that allows nutrients to pass from hepatocytes to blood?

A

Sinusoids

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34
Q

Which of the following structures is stimulated by CCK?

A

Pancreatic acinar cells

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35
Q

After passive and active increase in pressure inside the rectum, the internal anal sphincter relaxes. What happens next if one doesn’t want to defecate and the external anal sphincter remained contracted?

A

Relaxation of rectum

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36
Q

Which of the following will be affected the least in case of inferior mesenteric artery blockage?

a. Cecum
b. Sigmoid colon
c. Descending colon

A

a. Cecum

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37
Q

During drainage of an abscess in ischioanal fossa, the surgeon injured the muscle at the apex of the ischioanal fossa. Which muscle in the pelvic floor is responsible for rectal continence?

a. Internal anal sphincter
b. Illiococcygeus
c. ischiococcygeus
d. Puborectalis

A

d. Puborectalis

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38
Q

Which of the following causes diet induced carcinoma?

a. Inhibition of IGF-1 synthesis
b. Formation of nitrosamine
c. Scavenge/chelation of free radicals

A

b. Formation of nitrosamine

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39
Q

Which function is affected if the thoracic duct is cut?

a. Transport of minerals
b. Absorption of carbohydrates
c. Absorption of proteins
d. Transport of lipid
e. Transport of vitamins

A

d. Transport of lipid

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40
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterised by oral mucosa pigmentation?

A

Addison’s disease

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41
Q

A very common type of polyps in old people that have no dysplasia or a malignant potential?

a. Inflammatory polyps
b. Hyperplastic polyps
c. Hamartomatus polyps

A

b. Hyperplastic polyps

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42
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

ETEC

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43
Q

An old patient with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis was taking NSAIDs for the past years. An endoscopy showed punched out ulcers and haemorrhagic lesions. What is the diagnosis?

A

Chemical gastritis

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44
Q

Which part of GIT absorbs most of water we drink?

a. Large intestine
b. Small intestine
c. Stomach

A

b. Small intestine

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45
Q

An autopsy showed profuse bleeding into the peritoneum, autolysis of viscera and omental fat necrosis. What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis

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46
Q

A drug given for a patient with chronic NSAID use to protect him from its adverse effects?

A

Misoprostol

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47
Q

An abdominal CT showed a large mass in the pancreas and there were multiple ulcers in the stomach and duodenum. What is the diagnosis?

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

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48
Q

Renal Transplant patient taking cyclosporine should avoid eating grapefruit, why?

a. Grape fruit inhibits the metabolism of the drug
b. There will be a risk of organ rejection

A

a. Grape fruit inhibits the metabolism of the drug

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49
Q

To which dermatome does the pain of appendicitis radiate?

a. T8
b. T9
c. T10
d. T11
e. T12

A

c. T10

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50
Q

A patient presents with severe diarrhea after 24 hrs of ingesting mayonnaise?

a. Salmonella Enteritidis
b. Staphylococcus Aureus

A

a. Salmonella Enteritidis

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51
Q

Which of the following hormones acts as a paracrine to increase the gastric secretion?

a. Gastrin
b. Histamine
c. CCK
d. Secretin

A

b. Histamine

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52
Q

What is the gold standard test to diagnose C. Difficile?

A

Tissue culture and toxin neutralization

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53
Q

A hormone that inhibits both G cells and parietal cells?

A

Somatostatin

54
Q

Which of the following stimulates exocrine fluid secretion of pancreas?

a. Secretin
b. CCK

A

a. Secretin

55
Q

Which of the following factors acts to decrease the amplitude and duration of slow waves of the stomach?

a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. Distension of the stomach

A

a. Secretin

56
Q

A gastrointestinal smooth muscle showed 12 slow waves per minute. Which part of GIT does this muscle represent?

a. Small intestine
b. Colon
c. Stomach

A

a. Small intestine

57
Q

Which of the following drugs decreases the motility of GIT?

A

Codeine

58
Q

Which of the following drugs is a stimulant purgative?

a. Senna
b. Bisacodyl

A

a. Senna

(this question was an EMQ with both choice “senna” and “bisacodyl” there bisacodyl was first considered as the correct choice after arguing that both are correct they said that they considered both correct, but some stupid guy made them consider only senna as correct since more students chose it……. No comment)

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

a. D2 antagonist
b. 5-HT antagonist

A

a. D2 antagonist

60
Q

A patient was diagnosed with stage III adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The tumor was found on the lesser curvature of the stomach close to the cardia. What is the first group of lymph node that will drain this area and have metastasis?

a. Gastro-omental lymph nodes
b. Celiac lymph node
c. Gastric lymph node
d. Pyloric lymph nodes
e. Pancreaticospleniclymph nodes

A

c. Gastric lymph node

61
Q

A patient comes with inability to rotate his trunk towards the right (to the right hip). Which muscles are affected?

a. Left external oblique and right internal oblique
b. Right external oblique and Left internal oblique
c. Right external oblique and right internal oblique
d. Left external oblique and right transversus abdominus
e. Right transversus abdominus and right internal oblique

A

a. Left external oblique and right internal oblique

62
Q

Which of the following is the storage form of vitamin b12 in the liver?

a. Hydroxycobolamin
b. methycobolamin
c. Deoxyadenosylcobalamin (in the exam it was mentioned as deoxycobolamin)

A

c. Deoxyadenosylcobalamin (in the exam it was mentioned as deoxycobolamin)

63
Q

Which toxin is related to the pathogenesis of C. difficile?

A

Toxin B

64
Q

MLH and MSH2 is 90% mutated in which syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome

65
Q

Which part of GIT is characterised by presence of retropulsion?

A

Stomach

66
Q

Which of the following is considered part of innate immunity in GIT?

a. IgA
b. Acidic secretion
c. NK cell

A

b. Acidic secretion

67
Q

A tumor removed from the stomach showed small uniform cells. The biopsy tested positive for chromogranin and synaptophysin stains. What is the diagnosis?

A

Carcinoid tumor

68
Q

A salivary gland tumor removed from a smoker male showed benign cystic tumor with germinal cells and oncocytes. What is the diagnosis?

A

Warthin tumor

69
Q

What is the efferent nerve fiber for the cremasteric reflex?

a. Illiohypogastric nerve
b. Genitofemoral nerve

A

b. Genitofemoral nerve

70
Q

A 38 years old diabetic female on oral contraceptives was found to have liver mass, the biopsy showed benign looking trabecular hepatic tissue with lots of vessels and no bile duct. What is the diagnosis?

A

Hepatic adenoma

71
Q

A Chinese male with a history of infested flukes in the liver, what is the diagnosis? (a Chinese male presented with a large abdominal mass he has a history of infested flukes in the liver/history of parasitic infection what is the most likely diagnosis?)

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

72
Q

In a RCT, what should be done if there’s failure to start treatment?

A

Intention to treat analysis

73
Q

After the removal of the parotid gland, the patient couldn’t blink his eyes. Which nerve is most likely damaged?

a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Facial nerve

A

c. Facial nerve

74
Q

Why is the action of sucralfate affected by famotidine?

A

Because famotidine increases the stomach pH

75
Q

Which of the following is a product formed by intestinal microflora?

A

Secondary bile acids

76
Q

Which of the following is conjugated to bile acids?

A

Glycine

77
Q

What is the mechanism of bile transport out of hepatocytes?

A

Primary Active transport

78
Q

Which variation in the cystic duct can result in damage to the common hepatic duct during surgery?

A

Adherence of the cystic duct to the common hepatic duct by fibrous tissue

79
Q

In a RCT, the effect of a new hepatitis drug was studied. Two groups of hepatitis patients chosen, one given the new drug and the other giver the conventional regimen of treatment. The blinded physicians then were asked to assess the improvement of the cases clinically through patients’ hospital records. what is the value of making physicians blinded?

a. Reduce the bias in outcome ascertainment
b. To keep randomization intact at all times

A

a. Reduce the bias in outcome ascertainment

80
Q

What characteristic of RCT reduces confounding and selection bias?

a. Randomization
b. Masking
c. Intention to treat analysis

A

a. Randomization

81
Q

What is the main mixing movement in the small intestine?

A

Segmentation

82
Q

After eating a meal, the active acid secretion by parietal cells in the stomach results in the change of the composition of blood that is leaving the stomach through the veins making it different from the blood in the systemic circulation elsewhere in which of the following aspects?

a. Higher K
b. Higher Cl
c. Higher HCO3
d. Lower Na

A

c. Higher HCO3

83
Q

Part of brain that causes disinhibition of food intake caused by palatable food?

a. Nucleus accumbuns
b. Amygdala
c. Lateral hypothalamus
d. Nucleus tractus solitaris
e. Cerebral cortex
f. Ventral tegmental area
g. Arcuate nucleus
h. Paraventricular nucleus

A

a. Nucleus accumbuns

84
Q

Part of brain that remembers the palatable food?

a. Nucleus accumbuns
b. Amygdala
c. Lateral hypothalamus
d. Nucleus tractus solitaris
e. Cerebral cortex
f. Ventral tegmental area
g. Arcuate nucleus
h. Paraventricular nucleus

A

b. Amygdala

85
Q

Part of CNS that directly receives information about the energy stores in our
body?

a. Nucleus accumbuns
b. Amygdala
c. Lateral hypothalamus
d. Nucleus tractus solitaris
e. Cerebral cortex
f. Ventral tegmental area
g. Arcuate nucleus
h. Paraventricular nucleus

A

g. Arcuate nucleus

86
Q

Three children in a nursey had severe bloody diarrhea. What is the causative agent?

a. Shigella flexinari
b. escherichia coli

A

a. Shigella flexinari

87
Q

A patient comes with severe vomiting a few hours after eating fried rice from a Chinese restaurant. What is the diagnosis?

A

Bacillus cereus

88
Q

A patient developed a bloody diarrhea with mucus, after which he was diagnosed with a liver abscess. What is the diagnosis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

89
Q

What is the most common route of infection for Entamoeba histolytica?

a. Person-to-person transmission
b. Ingestion of contaminated food

A

b. Ingestion of contaminated food

90
Q

A young man comes for routine check-up. His serology showed: Negative: HCV Ab, HbsAg, HbcAg, HbeAg, Hbc Ab
Positive: HBs antibody
What is the diagnosis?

A

Vaccinated

91
Q

A patient came from India with pyrexia of unknown origin. What is the most likely cause?

A

Salmonella typhi

92
Q

What is the most effective infection control method to decrease the prevalence of enteric fever?

A

Processing sewage water/improve sewage disposal

93
Q

Which of the following drugs directly inhibits K+/H+ pump?

A

Omeprazole

94
Q

At which part of GIT, if peristalsis fails propelling food, a secondary peristalsis starts at the site of distended part?

A

Esophagus

95
Q

A boy comes to the emergency room with a bone lodged in his piriform fossa. While removing the bone, the surgeon injured a nearby nerve. What is the consequence of damage to this nerve?

a. Loss of abduction to vocal cords
b. Loss of sensation above the level of vocal cords
c. Loss of sensation of the oropharynx
d. Loss of sensation of the soft palate

A

b. Loss of sensation above the level of vocal cords

96
Q

A patient with dysphagia was diagnosed with motor incoordination of muscles of the pharynx. Which muscle is most likely to cause a problem with swallowing?

a. Superior constrictor
b. Middle constrictor
c. Inferior constrictor
d. Stylopharyngeus
e. Palatopharyngeus

A

c. Inferior constrictor

This question was written by doctor Narayana and he says that since the inferior constrictor forms the cricopharyngus muscle which is considered as the upper esophegeal sphincter and the narrowest part of the esophagus any motor incoordination in this muscle would cause lots of problems with swallowing

97
Q

A man has been starving himself for 30 days and has access to water only. What is the main supply of energy at this stage?

a. Fatty acids from adipose tissue
b. Amino acids from muscles

A

a. Fatty acids from adipose tissue

98
Q

A 24-year-old man with recurrent diarrhea and weight loss developed multiple anal fistulas. Tissue section from one of the fistulas showed chronic inflammation with non-necrotizing granulomas. What is the diagnosis?

A

Crohn’s Disease

99
Q

What factor increases blood flow to salivary glands?

a. Bradykinin
b. Vagal cholinergic
c. Glossopharyngeal cholinergic

A

a. Bradykinin

100
Q

If an atherosclerotic plaque is blocking the inferior mesenteric artery. Which artery will give collateral blood supply?

a. Left colic
b. Middle colic
c. Ileocolic
d. Superior rectal
e. Middle rectal

A

b. Middle colic

101
Q

Leptin is known to inhibit feeding by decreasing reward from eating food. What is the main mechanism of action for leptin?

A

Activates POMC neurons on arcuate nucleus, which produce POMC that acts on
MCR4

102
Q

A woman presented with a salivary gland mass that showed myxoid cartilaginous stroma with epithelial cells. What is the diagnosis?

a. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. Warthin tumor

A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

103
Q

What is the origin of greater splanchnic nerve?

a. C1-C8
b. T1-T4
c. T5-T9

A

c. T5-T9

104
Q

A female patient with a history of Sjogren syndrome presented with jaundice, and xanthelasma. Investigations showed increased ALP and high IgM. What is the diagnosis?

a. primary biliary cirrhosis
b. primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

a. primary biliary cirrhosis

105
Q

A 45-year-old man having ascites. On a supine position, the fluid will accumulate in which part of peritoneal cavity?

a. Rectouterine
b. Hepatorenal recess

A

b. Hepatorenal recess

106
Q

An autopsy showed circumferential thickening of the ilium with ulceration and necrotizing granuloma. What is the diagnosis?

a. Candidiasis
b. Amebiasis
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Tuberculosis

A

d. Tuberculosis

107
Q

A liver biopsy from a female patient showed portal granulomas and damaged bile ducts. What is the diagnosis? (a 42-year-old female presents with jaundice and mild abdominal pain. Liver biopsy showed a portal granulomas and damage to bile ducts associated with high levels of GGT. What is the likely diagnosis?)

a. Autoimmune hepatitis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

b. Primary biliary cirrhosis

108
Q

A 39-year-old man with raised liver enzymes. Biopsy showed ground glass cytoplasm, active inflammation, and damaged hepatocytes. What is the diagnosis?

a. chronic HBV infection
b. AAT deficiency
c. AIH
d. PBC
e. PSC

A

a. chronic HBV infection

109
Q

A 29-year-old female underwent a terminal ilium resection. The ileum showed creeping of fat on the serosal surface. Tissue section showed lymphocytic infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Crohns disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Celiac disease

A

a. Crohns disease

110
Q

A 4-cm mass is resected from the liver. What favours it being a well differentiated carcinoma instead of a hepatic adenoma?

a. Presence of cirrhosis
b. Presence of central necrosis
c. Presence of central scar
d. Having a clear boundary

A

a. Presence of cirrhosis

111
Q

Which of the following drugs can cause galactorrhea and gynecomastia?

a. Dicyclomine
b. Misoprostol
c. Cimetidine
d. Omeprazole

A

c. Cimetidine

112
Q

A patient with a travel history to India presented after 8 weeks with right hypochondrium pain. Amoebic liver abscess was suspected. What is the best way to diagnose this kind of conditions?

a. Aspiration of the liver abscess
b. Microscopy of the aspirated fluid
c. Serology of specific Antibodies

A

c. Serology of specific Antibodies

113
Q

What is the difference between the primary salivary secretion and oral saliva?

a. The primary secretion is hypotonic and saliva is hypertonic
b. The primary secretion contains more Na+
c. Saliva has less HCO3
d. Both have the same composition of electrolytes

A

b. The primary secretion contains more Na+

114
Q

What causes an increase in the hepatic blood flow?

a. Increase in hepatic portal blood flow
b. Low hepatic portal Po2
c. Low hepatic portal pco2
d. High hepatic portal PH

A

b. Low hepatic portal Po2

115
Q

Which of the following mediates receptive relaxation in both the lower esophegeal sphincter and the stomach?

a. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
b. Norepinephrine
c. secretin
d. gastrin
e. CCK
f. Histamine

A

a. Vasoactive intestinal peptide

116
Q

A 30-year-old pregnant woman presented with an ulcerated vascular mass on her gingiva, biopsy revealed proliferation of immature blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Fibromas
b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Pemphigus vulgaris

A

b. Pyogenic granuloma

117
Q

A patient was administered 100 grams of glucose, his blood glucose went up by 20%. Then he administered 200 grams of lactose and his blood glucose did not change. What does this suggest?

a. The microflora of the gut consumes the lactose
b. Lack of the enzyme lactase in the enterocyte brush border

A

b. Lack of the enzyme lactase in the enterocyte brush border

118
Q

A young boy with a rectal polyp that is bleeding. After excision of the polyp, the biopsy showed cystic spaces filled with mucin and inflammatory debris. What is the diagnosis?

a. Inflammatory polyp
b. Hyperplastic polyp
c. Sessile serrated adenoma
d. Hamartomatous polyp

A

d. Hamartomatous polyp

119
Q

Which of the following act as stem cells (to regenerate stomach cells)?

a. Mucous neck cells
b. Mucous secreting epithelial cells
c. Undifferentiated cells in the isthmus
d. Enteroendocrine cells
e. Chief cells
f. Parietal cells

A

c. Undifferentiated cells in the isthmus

120
Q

A 28-year-old male with low grade fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and easy fatigability. Colonoscopy showed cobblestone mucosa. What is the diagnosis?

A

Crohn’s disease

121
Q

A duodenal biopsy in a 9-year-old girl with malabsorption showed marked villi atrophy & increased intraepithelial lymphocytes that stain CD3. HLA stain confirmed the diagnosis. What is the diagnosis?

a. Celiac disease
b. Crohn’s disease

A

a. Celiac disease

122
Q

A 29-year-old woman presented with diarrhea, weight loss, and anemia. On histology, there was villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and a band of lymphocytes. What is the diagnosis?

A

Celiac disease

123
Q

What is pathognomonic of Crohn’s disease? (what helps in the differentiation between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis?)

A

Non-necrotizing granuloma

124
Q

Cytoprotective drug used for the treatment of H. Pylori.?

a. Dicyclomine
b. Sucralfate
c. Famotidine
d. Bismuth subsalicylates

A

d. Bismuth subsalicylates

125
Q

A patient with a long history of ulcerative colitis presents now with abdominal bloating and constipation. A colonoscopy showed a polypoid mass projecting in the colon. What is the diagnosis?

A

Adenocarcinoma of the colon

126
Q

What is the origin of the smooth muscles of the small intestine?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

127
Q
  1. 35-year-old lady presented with jaundice and dark urine which of the following excludes obstructive cause?

a. Normal albumin
b. High Alp
c. High bilirubin
d. Low GGT

A

d. Low GGT

128
Q

Bile production is a major excretory pathway to get rid of?

A

Cholesterol

129
Q

What is the somatic innervation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve

130
Q

What is the initiating event leading to activation of the pancreatic enzymes?

A

Activation of trypsinogen by the brush border enterokinase in the small intestine

131
Q

A stomach surgery was done to excise a gastric tumor. The surgeon injured an artery near the lesser curvature towards the pylorus of the stomach, which resulted in bleeding. Which artery is this?

A

Right gastric artery

132
Q

A patient with peptic ulcer disease due to chronic NSAIDs use came to the clinic with dyspepsia, nausea and vomiting. Gastroscopy showed multiple ulcers and vesicles in the gastric mucosa. The biopsy showed multinucleated cells with intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions, chromatin margination, and ground glass nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

A

Herpes

GI module - 4th year (17 decks)

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