Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Micro Exam 3 > 20) Medically Important Gram-Negative Bacilli > Flashcards

20) Medically Important Gram-Negative Bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

Medically important gram negative bacilli is a large diverse group of…?

A

Non spore forming bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medically important gram negative bacilli have a wide range of habitats such as…?

A

large intestine( enteric), zoonotic, respiratory, soil, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most in gram negative bacilli are not medically important, but some are true pathogens and…?

A

opportunistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All medically important gram negative bacilli have outer membrane lipopolysaccharide of the cell wall known as…?

A

endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enodotoxin or lipid A of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is the primary initiator of

A

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pseudomonas and Burkholderia are what type of pathogens?

A

opportunistic pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Brucella and Francisella are what type of pathogens?

A

zoonotic pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bordetella and Legionella are mainly what type of pathogens?

A

mainly human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an aerobic, gram negative, nonenteric bacilli with a single polar…?

A

flagellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is free living in…?

A

Soil, seawater, and freshwater. Also colonize plants and animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa are important decomposers and bioremediators used for…?

A

oil spills and pesticide clean up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa use aerobic respiration and do not ferment…?

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce…?

A

pseudomycins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to…?

A

Soaps, dyes, quaternary ammonium disinfectants, drugs, drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces water soluble pigments that are what color?

A

blue- green (pyocyanin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a frequent contaminant of…?

A

Ventilators, IV solutions, anesthesia equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa are what type of pathogen?

A

Opportunistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Pseudomonas aeruginosa acquired?

A

Nosocomial, soil, water, stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa nosocomial infections are common to?

A

Burn patients, pneumonia, cystic fibrosis, UTI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa effect healthy individuals in the form of?

A

Rash, UTI’s, external ear infections from hot tubs/ swimming pools/ sponges/ wash cloths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The odor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa smells…?

A

grapelike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa drug resistant?

A

Yes multidrug resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa uses…?

A

3rd to 5th generation cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Burkholderia, Acinetobacter, and Stenotrophomonas are also aerobic gram negative bacilli that have wide variety of habitats in…?

A

Soil, water, and related environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Burkholderia, Acinetobacter, and Stenotrophomonas are what type of pathogen?

A

Opportunistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gram negative aerobic brucella has two species which are?

A

Brucella abortus (cattle), Brucella suis (pigs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does brucella and it’s two species cause?

A

Brucelliosis, Malta fever, undulant fever, and Big Bang disease(zoonosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Brucella can be found in…?

A

Unpasteurized milk or cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Brucella can cause wound, digestive tract, respiratory tract or…?

A

Conjunctiva disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Symptoms of brucella are…?

A

flu like symptoms(headache, muscle pain, weakness)
fluctuating pattern of fever- weeks to a year
arthritis, inflammation of liver, spleen, heart, testicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Brucella has a low mortality rate at what percent?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The treatment for brucella is a combination of doxycycline and rifampin or…?

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does Brucella have a animal vaccine or human vaccine?

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Burkholderia cepacia is active in biodegradation of a variety of substances and an opportunistic agent in the…?

A

respiratory tract, urinary tract, and occasionally skin infections drug resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is Burkholderia cepacia drug resistant?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

B. pseudomallei it’s generally acquired from a penetrating injury, wound infections, inhalation from environmental reservoir, bronchitis and pneumonia and septicemia

A

septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is Acinetobacter baumanii acquired?

A

nosocomial and community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acinetobacter baumanii infects?

A

wounds, lungs, urinary tract, burns, blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is Acinetobacter baumanii drug resistant?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia forms…?

A

biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is a contaminant of?

A

disinfectants dialysis equipment, respiratory equipment, water dispensers, and catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is a clinical isolate in…?

A

respiratory soft tissue, blood, and CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

high resistance to multidrugs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Is Stenotrophomonas maltophilia drug resistant?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Franciscella tularensis causes tularemia which is a zoonotic disease of mammals endemic to the northern hemisphere such as…?

A

rabbits = rabbit fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Francisella tularensis is transmitted by contact with infected animals, water and dust, or bites by vectors such as…?

A

ticks (flies, mosquitoes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common portal of Francisella tularensis is?

A

skin or eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Symptoms of Francisella tularensis are…?

A

ulcerative skin lesions, conjunctival inflammation, sore throat, intestinal disruption, and pulmonary involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Francisella tularensis has a 10% death rate in systemic and _______ forms?

A

pulmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment for Francisella tularensis is?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Does Francisella tularensis have a vaccine?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Francisella tularensis has coccobacilli cells that are what color?

A

blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bordatella pertussis causes ________ in babies?

A

Whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Bordatella pertussis is acquired by droplets from what kind of individual?

A

Healthy or infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bordatella pertussis has two stages which are?

A

catarrhal stage and paroxysmal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bordatella pertussis catarrhal stage includes symptoms such as…?

A

Nasal drainage, congestion, sneezing, and occasional cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bordatella pertussis paroxysmal stage includes symptoms such as…?

A

Recurrent coughing of 10 - 20 coughs that produce a “whoop”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bordatella pertussis virulence factors include receptors that recognize and bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells and toxins that destroy and dislodge what cells?

A

ciliated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

With Bordatella pertussis loss of ciliary mechanism leads to…?

A

buildup of mucus and blockage of the airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What drug is used to treat Bordatella pertussis?

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Old vaccination for Bordatella pertussis (DPT) contained attenuated pertussis (whole cell) which caused…?

A

Side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

New vaccination for Bordatella pertussis (DTaP) contains…?

A

toxoid (acellular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Boostrixis a vaccine for Bordatella pertussis for children ages…?

A

10-18 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q 
Tetanus vaccine (Td) is given to adolescents/ adults
every \_\_\_ years?
A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Vaccine for Bordatella pertussis (Tdap) is given to adolescents/ adults before contact with babies, and ______ women.

A

Pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

DTaP vaccine is given to children in _____ doses to prevent prevent diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Diphtheria and tetanus (DT) vaccine is ONLY given to children that cannot tolerate _______ vaccine

A

pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Alcaligenes live primarily in soil and water and may become…?

A

Normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A. faecalis most common alcaligene that is isolated from feces, urine and?

A

sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A. faecalis is occasionally associated with opportunistic infections such as…?

A

pneumonia, septicemia, and meningitis

71
Q

Legionella pneumophilia causes Legionnaire’s disease and ______ fever?

A

Pontiac

72
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is prevalent in males over the age of?

A

50

73
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is widely found in?

A

aquatic environments

74
Q

Legionella pneumophilia needs to live

inside amebas in ________ to survive

A

natural waters

75
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is acquired by…?

A

Inhaling moist contaminated air

76
Q

Is Legionella pneumophilia communicable?

A

No

77
Q

There are 2 forms of Legionella pneumophilia that can occur…?

A

Pontiac fever and Legionnaires disease

78
Q

Pontiac fever symptoms are…?

A

rising fever, cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain

79
Q

What is the treatment for Pontiac fever?

A

Self limiting

80
Q

Can Pontiac fever lead to death?

A

no

81
Q

Legionnaires disease symptoms are rising fever, cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain, but leads to…?

A

Pneumonia

82
Q

Legionnaires disease has a fatality rate of what percent?

A

3-30%

83
Q

What is the treatment for Legionnaires disease?

A

erythromycin alone or with rifampin (azithromycin)

84
Q

Enteric bacteria are gram negative and ____ anaerobes

A

Facultative

85
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative ________ anaerobes?

A

Facultative

86
Q

Enterobacteriaceae is a large family of small, non-spore-forming gram-negative……?

A

rods

87
Q

Many members of the Enterobacteriaceae inhabit soil, water, decaying matter, and are common occupants of… ?`

A

large bowel of animals including humans

88
Q

Enterobacteriaceae cause diarrhea through what type of toxins?

A

enterotoxins

89
Q

Enterobacteriaceae account for almost 50% of what kind of infections?

A

nosocomial infections

90
Q

Facultative anaerobes, grow best in air or no air?

A

air

91
Q

All facultative anaerobes ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, oxidase negative and catalase positive or negative?

A

positive

92
Q

Enterobacteriaceae divided into…..

A

coliforms and non-coliforms

93
Q

Coliforms are __________ fermenters?

A

lactose

94
Q

Non-coliforms are ___________fermenters?

A

non-lactose

95
Q

Enterobacteriaceae need what type of media?

A

selective and differential

96
Q

Toxigenic disease caused by enterotoxin = _______?

A

watery diarrhea

97
Q

Invasive disease caused by exoenzymes degrade intestinal lining = _________

A

bloody diarrhea

98
Q

Is E. coli a coliform or a non-coliform?

A

Coliform(ferments lactose)

99
Q

E. coli causes what 4 things?

A

infantile diarrhea
travelers diarrhea
UTI’s
hemolytic uremic syndrome(bloody diarrheal illness)

100
Q

E. coli is a ________ anaerobe?

A

Facultative

101
Q

Coliform count is an indicator of fecal contamination in…?

A

water

102
Q

Some coliforms Some have developed virulence through _____ transfer, others are opportunists.

A

Plasmid

103
Q

Infantile diarrhea is caused by what bacteria?

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

104
Q

Infantile diarrhea is caused from malnourished child that loses fluid and ?

A

electrolytes

105
Q

Infantile diarrhea is acquired by contaminated?`

A

water

106
Q

What can help prevent infantile diarrhea?

A

nursing/ breast milk

107
Q

Symptoms of infantile diarrhea are…?

A

Nausea, vomit, watery diarrhea, low grade fever

108
Q

Travelers diarrhea is acquired by contaminated…?

A

food and water

109
Q

E. coli also causes UTI’s that are acquired from…?

A

Own Norma flora or nosocomial

110
Q

UTI treatment drugs include…?

A

3rd – 5th generation cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones

111
Q

Bloody diarrheal illness strain is O157:H7 associated with?

A

gastroenteritis caused from fast food hamburgers

112
Q

E. coli that causes bloody diarrheal illness or hemorrhage colitis acquired(transduction) genes from shigella to be able to produce a ____ toxin?

A

shiga toxin

113
Q

Shiga-toxin causes epithelial cell death and shedding of…?

A

intestinal cells

114
Q

Bloody diarrheal illness’s reservoir is what animal?

A

cattle

115
Q

bloody diarrheal illness has an ID of how many cells?

A

100

116
Q

Bloody diarrheal illness is acquired by contaminated meat that isn’t properly cooked contaminated water, vegetables, and what drinks?

A

fruit

117
Q

Bloody diarrheal illness has symptoms that range from mild gastroenteritis with fever to….?

A

Bloody diarrhea with fever

118
Q

E. coli can also cause hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) which is where the toxin effects…?

A

Kidney damage and failure

119
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) is a high risk for what type of people?

A

Children, elderly, immunocompromised

120
Q

Do antibiotics for hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) help?

A

No

121
Q

What is the treatment for hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS)?

A

Blood transfusion, dialysis

122
Q

What bacteria causes hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS)?

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

123
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is what type of coliform?

A

Opportunistic

124
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae has a large capsule and is a normal inhabitant of the…?

A

respiratory tract

125
Q

What coliform is the cause of nosocomial pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, wound infections, and UTIs?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

126
Q

Salmonella typhi is a non-coliform bacteria that causes what disease?

A

Typhoid fever

127
Q

Salmonella typhi/ Typhoid disease is acquired from contaminated food or water, close personal contact and..?

A

carriers

128
Q

Symptoms of Salmonella typhi/ Typhoid fever are fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and ulcerations and hemorrhage with perforation of the …?

A

small intestine

129
Q

Salmonella typhi can live in _______ carriers?

A

Asymptomatic

130
Q

Some chronic carriers shed bacilli from what organ?

A

gallbladder

131
Q

Typhoid Mary=

A

Mary Mellon

132
Q

Typhoid Mary/ Mary Mallon was a cook in 1900-1907 that harbored what bacteria in her gallbladder?

A

Salmonella typhi

133
Q

Treatment for Typhoid Mary…?

A

fluoroquinolones for current infection or carrier

Sometimes gall bladder is removed

134
Q

Other salmonella is found in what animals?

A

cows, poultry, lizards

135
Q

What non-coliform bacteria causes food poisoning?

A

Salmonella enteritidis

136
Q

Gastrointestinal illnesses such as Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio, and Escherichia coli are transmitted by the Five F’s, which are? feces, food, fingers, flies, and fomites (also water)

A

feces, food, fingers, flies, and fomites (also water)

137
Q

Combat the Five F’s with the Five B’s which are…?

A

Bread, bananas, beer, bottled water, and boiled water

138
Q

Shigella dysenteriae causes bacterial dysentery or

A

shigellosis

139
Q

Shigella dysenteriae is acquired by contaminated food or water and direct contact with

A

carriers

140
Q

With Shigella dysenteriae, what intestine is invated?

A

Large

141
Q

Shigella dysenteriae symptoms are BAD abdominal cramps, watery stool filled with blood and….?

A

Heavy mucus

142
Q

Treatment for Shigella dysenteriae is the use of…?

A

fluoroquinolones

143
Q

Yersinia pestis causes the plague and is found in what animal?

A

rodents

144
Q

Biological vector of Yersinia pestis is what animal?

A

Flea

145
Q

Campers, backpackers, and _______ are at high risk for Yersinia pestis

A

veterinarians

146
Q

Yersinia pestis has a virulence factor of an exoenzyme that clots…?

A

blood

147
Q

Yersinia pestis ID is 30- ______cells

A

50

148
Q

Yersinia pestis has how many stages?

A

several

149
Q

Yersinia pestis has several plague such as (3)?

A

Bubonic plague, pneumonic plague, septicemic plague

150
Q

The bubonic plague has bacilli that multiply at flea bite and enters…?

A

lymph

151
Q

Symptoms of bubonic plague are fever, chills, headache, nausea, weakness and,,,?

A

bubo develops (dwelling of axilla, neck, groin)

152
Q

The bubonic plague often progresses to _______ plague?

A

Septicemic

153
Q

Pneumonic plague is highly contagious by ______ from contagious human.

A

Droplet

154
Q

Symptoms of pneumonic plague are fever, chills, cough and difficulty breathing, rapid shock and _________ can occur if not treated early.

A

death

155
Q

Pneumonic plague can progress to ______ plague.

A

Septicemic

156
Q

Septicemic plague occurs due to the release of…?

A

Toxins

157
Q

Symptoms of septicemic plague are fever, chills, abdominal pain, shock and bleeding into….?

A

Skin and other organs

158
Q

Septicemic plague causes intravascular coagulation, subcutaneous hemorrhage that is caused by…?

A

Necrosis, gangrene, darkens skin= black death

159
Q

Septicemic plague treatment consists of using what antibiotic?

A

Streptomycin

160
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is an oxidase-Positive ______ Pathogens

A

Non-enteric

161
Q

Haemophilus = blood loving, require factors from lysed _____?

A

RBC’s

162
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is found in some normal flora of upper respiratory and…?

A

Vagina

163
Q

Haemophilus influenzae causes acute bacterial meningitis, epiglottitis, otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, and?

A

bronchitis

164
Q

Haemophilus influenzae causes what disease?

A

acute bacterial meningitis

165
Q

Who is at risk for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

3-5 years old

166
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is acquired from close contact and droplets from…?

A

carrier or infected

167
Q

Haemophilus influenzae symptoms are fever, vomiting, stiff neck, neurological impairment coma and…?

A

death

168
Q

Haemophilus influenzae has what percent chance of fatality?

A

90%

169
Q

Children who acquire Haemophilus influenzae sustain a disability be what percent?

A

20%

170
Q

Antibiotic treatment for haemophilus influenzae is…

A

3rd - 4th generation Cephalosporin

171
Q

Vaccine treatment for haemophilus influenzae is..

A

Hib, given with DTaP

172
Q

Heamophilus influenzae and Haemophilus aegyptius both cause acute…?

A

conjunctivitis or pinkeye

173
Q

Treatment for conjunctivitis or pinkeye is tobramycin ____?

A

eye drops

174
Q

H. ducreyi causes the STD known as a…..?

A

chancroid

Micro Exam 3 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions