Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Micro Exam 3 > 12) Chemotherapeutic Agents > Flashcards

12) Chemotherapeutic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Antimicrobial drugs are produced…?

A

Naturally or synthetically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Antibiotics are common metabolic products of…?

A

Aerobic bacteria and fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antibiotics are common metabolic products of aerobic bacteria such as…?

A

Streptomyces and Bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antibiotics are common metabolic products of fungi such as…?

A

Penicillium and Cephalosporium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antibiotic producers have less or more competition for nutrients and space?

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Paul Erlich coined the term chemotherapy to describe chemicals that would act as…?

A

“magic bullets”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Paul Erlich coined chemotherapy to selectively kill and treat what?

A

compound 606 and to treat syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gerhard Domagk introduced what drug?

A

the 1st SULFA drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alexander Fleming accidentally discovered…?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Howard Florey and Ernst Chain discovered…?

A

How to scale up penicillin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a chemotherapeutic agent?

A

Any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An antibiotic is a metabolic product of one microorganism that…?

A

Inhibits or destroys other microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a natural drug?

A

Product unchanged from Organism that produces it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a semisynthetic drug?

A

Drug that is chemically modified in the lab after being isolated from the natural source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a synthetic drug?

A

Drug is made completely in the lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe narrow spectrum…?

A

Limited spectrum, drug will only kill a few types of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define broad spectrum…?

A

Extended spectrum, drug will kill wide range of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is selectively toxic?

A

Drugs that kill or inhibit microbes without damaging host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens when the characteristics of the infectious agent become more similar to the host?

A

Selective talks to city becomes more difficult to achieve, more side effects are seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What two drugs interfere with the enzymes that build peptidoglycan and cause weak spots in the cell wall?

A

Penicillin and cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drugs target a special type of lipids that disrupt cell membrane, metabolism or cause lysis?

A

Polymyxins, amphotericin B, nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs inhibit translation reaction with the ribosome-mRNA complex/ protein synthesis?

A

Streptomycin, erythromycin, gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drugs can block the synthesis of nucleotides/ nucleic acids and inhibit replication?

A

Cholorquine and antiviral drugs like AZT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drugs act as an analog to an enzyme in a metabolic pathway/ cytoplasm?

A

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Beta-lactam antimicrobials contain a highly reactive…?

A

Beta-lactam ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two most prominent beta-lactams?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is penicillin produced by?

A

Penicillium chrysogenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is penicillin natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic?

A

Natural and semisynthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Penicillin consists of three parts…?

A

Thiazolidine ring, Beta-lactam ring, side chain dictating microbial activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two most important natural forms of penicillin?

A

Penicillin G & V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Semi synthetic penicillins have broader or limited spectrum on gram-negative infections?

A

Broader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What bacterias are penicillinase resistant?

A

Methicillin, nafcillin, cloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What drug is made when clavulanic acid and amoxicillin are combined?

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Penicillin is the drug of choice for gram positive cocci and some negative bacteria such as?

A

streptococci (+), meningococci and syphilis spirochete (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Primary problems of penicillin are?

A

Allergies(rash), resistant strains of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cephalosporium is produced by?

A

Cephalopsorium acremonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is Cephalosporin a natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic drug?

A

Natural and semisynthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cephalosporin consists of three parts…?

A

6 carbon ring, beta-lactam ring, two side chains dictating microbial activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What bacteria is resistant to Cephalosporin?

A

penicillnases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is Cephalosporin a broad spectrum drag or narrow spectrum?

A

Broad spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The widest range of cephalosporin was which generation of drug?

A

4th generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What generation of Cephalosporin is effective against MRSA?

A

5th generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the primary problems of Cephalosporin?

A

Rash, nausea, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Imipenem is a broad spectrum drug the fights aerobic and anaerobic pathogens and is the what class of drug?

A

Carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Aztreonam is a narrow spectrum drug for gram-negative aerobic baccilli, can be used by people allergic to penicillin and comes from what drug class?

A

Monobactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Vancomycin is a narrow spectrum non beta-lactem antibiotic that treats resistant…?

A

Staphylococcus and Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What narrow spectrum, non beta-lactam drug is toxic and hard to administer with restricted use?

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does MERSA stand for?

A

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does VRE stand for?

A

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does VRSA stand for?

A

Vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the primary problems of vancomycin?

A

Nausea, rash, dizziness, kidney damage, hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Red Man syndrome?

A

Vancomycin, rifampin, amphotericin B, and ciprofloxacin, oral and injections are infused too fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What Redman syndrome symptoms occur 4-10 minutes after starting infusion?

A

low BP, hives, rash, fever and chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Bacitracin is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is used in an ointment, what strain of bacteria is it a product of?

A

Bacillus Subtilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis by interfering with…?

A

Mycolic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What to antibiotics work by damaging the bacteria’s cell membrane?

A

Polymyxin B and Polymyxin E (colistin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Polymyxin Antibiotics are narrow-spectrum and products of?

A

Bacillus polymyxa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Polymyxins are narrow-spectrum peptide antibiotics with a unique…?

A

Fatty acid component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Polymyxin B is used in…?

A

Neosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Polymyxin E )colistin) was used for…?

A

Bowel decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What two antibiotics inhibit 30S ribosomal subunit?

A

Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Aminoglycosides antibiotics are produced by…?

A

Soil bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Streptomycin antibiotic is a product of what bacteria?

A

Streptomyces

64
Q

Gentamicin antibiotic is a product of what bacteria?

A

Micromonospora

65
Q

Aminoglycosides are a broad-spectrum antibiotic that inhibit protein synthesis and are used against…?

A

aerobic gram-negative rods

66
Q

Streptomycin fought against the…?

A

bubonic plague and tuberculosis

67
Q

Gentamicin is less toxic and used against…?

A

Gram-negative rods

68
Q

Neomycin is applied as an…?

A

ointment

69
Q

Tetracycline inhibit 30S…..?

A

ribosomal subunit (protein synthesis)

69
Q

Tetracycline inhibit 30S…..?

A

ribosomal subunit (protein synthesis)

70
Q

Tetracyclines antibiotics are broad-spectrum is produced by…?

A

Streptomyces

71
Q

Tetracyclines are used to treat…?

A

STD’s, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, wine disease, typhus, acne, and protozoa

72
Q

What two types antibiotics inhibit 50S ribosomal subunit

A

Chloramphenicol and Erythromycin

73
Q

Is chloramphenicol natural, semi synthetic, or synthetic?

A

Synthetic

74
Q

Chloramphenicol is very toxic, restricted uses and can cause…?

A

irreversible damage to bone marrow

75
Q

Chloramphenicol antibiotics are used to treat…?

A

Typhoid fever, brain abscesses, rickettsial, and chlamydia

76
Q

Primary problems of chloramphenicol are?

A

Injury to RBC and WBC

77
Q

Erythromycin has fairly low toxicity and is broad or narrow-spectrum?

A

Broad-spectrum

78
Q

Erythromycin treats…?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia, leginellosis, chlamydia, pertussis, diphtheria and prior to intestinal surgery

79
Q

Erythromycin comes from a class of…?

A

Macrolides

80
Q

3 newer semisynthetic macrolides are…?

A

Clarithromycin, azithromycin (Zithromax)

81
Q

Primary problems of erythromycin are?

A

Stomach pain, nausea, diarrhea, rash

82
Q

Two types of antibiotics that act on DNA or RNA are?

A

Fluoroquinolones, Rifampin

83
Q

Fluoroquinolones is broad or narrow-spectrum?

A

Broad- spectrum

84
Q

Is fluoroquinolones a natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic drug?

A

Synthetic

85
Q

Other names for Fluoroquinolones are?

A

Cipro, Levaquin

86
Q

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are used to treat?

A

UTI’s, STD’s, gastrointestinal, respiratory, soft tissue infections

87
Q

Primary problems of fluoroquinolones are?

A

Headache, dizziness, tremors, GI distress

88
Q

Fluoroquinolones are being monitored by the CDC to prevent…?

A

ciprofloxacin resistant bacteria

89
Q

Rifampin is a broad or narrow-spectrum antibiotic?

A

narrow-spectrum

90
Q

Rifampin treats…?

A

Tuberculosis and leprosy

91
Q

Rifampin is used as a preventative for…?

A

Neisseria meningitidis carriers

92
Q

Antibiotics that block metabolic pathways are…?

A

Sulfonamides

93
Q

The first antimicrobial drugs were…?

A

SULFA drugs/ Sulfonamides

94
Q

Most Sulfonamides are synthetic and narrow-spectrum that block the synthesis of …?

A

folic acid

95
Q

Sulfisoxazole is used to treat…?

A

shigellosis, UTI, protozoan infections

96
Q

Silver sulfadiazine is used to treat,,,?

A

burns, eye infections

97
Q

Trimethoprim WITH sulfamethoxazole is used to treat…?

A

UTI, PCP

98
Q

Primary problems of Sulfonamides are?

A

rash, crystals in kidney, hemolysis of RBC, reduce platelets

99
Q

Macrolide polyenes treat what type of infection?

A

Fungal

100
Q

Amphotericin B is what type of drug?

A

Antifungal

101
Q

Amphotericin is effective against…?

A

Skin and mucous membrane infections, yeast infections

102
Q

Systemic fungal infections equal…?

A

Gold Standard

103
Q

Nystatin is a fungal antibiotic used to treat?

A

Yeast infections

104
Q

Griseofulvin is an antifungal that treats?

A

Ring worm

105
Q

A problem with the antifungal drug Griseofulvin is that is “nephrotic” and can damage a persons…?

A

Kidney

106
Q

Synthetic azoles end with the “ole”, are broad-spectrum and treat what?

A

ring worm jock itch, athlete’s foot, and vaginal yeast infections

107
Q

Flucytosine is an antifungal and the analog of…?

A

Cytosine

108
Q

Flucytosine is used to treat?

A

cutaneous mycoses

109
Q

Echinocandins is a new category of antifungal drugs that…?

A

damage the cell walls of fugal cells, not toxic to human cells

110
Q

Echinocandins is an antifungal used to treat an invasive fungal disease such as…?

A

aspergillosis and invasive yeast infections

111
Q

Two classes of antiparasitic drugs are…?

A

antimalarial, antiprotozoal and anthelminthic

112
Q

An antimalarial drug such as quinine was used to treat…?

A

malaria

113
Q

Quinine is extracted from…?

A

the bark of a cinchona tree

114
Q

Synthetic quinine’s end in…?

A

“quine”

115
Q

Two antiprotozoal drugs are…?

A

Metronidazole or Flagyl

116
Q

Anti protozoan drugs such as metronidazole or flagyl is used to treat parasitic infections such as…?

A

Mild to severe intestinal infections and STD’s

117
Q

Antiviral drugs have three major modes of action, which are?

A

Inhibition of viral entry, inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, viral assembly or release

118
Q

Antiviral drugs were developed to target specific points in the infectious cycle of…?

A

viruses

119
Q

Two antiviral drugs that inhibit viral entry are..?

A

Amantadine( rimantadine) and Tamiflu ( Relenza)

120
Q

Antiviral amantadine( rimantadine) is used to treat?

A

Influenza A

121
Q

The antiviral drug Tamiflu ( Relenza) is used to treat?

A

Influenza

122
Q

Many antiviral agents mimic the structure of nucleotides and compete for sites on…?

A

Replicating or synthesizing DNA

123
Q

Antiviral drugs that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis all end in…?

A

“clovir”

124
Q

Antiviral Gyanine analog is used to treat…?

A

Herpes, chickenpox and shingles.

125
Q

Antiviral drug Azidothymidine(AZT) is a thymine analog used to treat?

A

AIDS

126
Q

Azidothymidine(AZT) inhibits nucleic acid…?

A

Synthesis

127
Q

What antiviral drug inhibits viral assembly or release?

A

Saquinavir

128
Q

Saquinavir is a protease…?

A

Inhibitor

129
Q

Saquinavir blocks enzymes needed to assemble virus particles, and also treats?

A

AIDS

130
Q

Major side effects of antimicrobials are…?

A

Liver, kidney toxicity, hives, disruption of balance of normal flora creating a super infection.

131
Q

Examples of a super infection that occurs when taking antimicrobials are?

A

Diarrhea, vaginal yeast infections

132
Q

What are the steps when considering selecting an antimicrobial drug?

A
  1. Identify the microorganism
  2. Slowly test the microorganisms susceptibility to various drugs
  3. Evaluate the overall medical condition of the patient
133
Q

What are the three tests names for testing drug susceptibility?

A

Kirby- Bauer technique, E- test diffusion test, Tube dilution technique

134
Q

The Kirby-Bauer technique is mainly used in what setting?

A

Hospital and labs

135
Q

The Kirby- Bauer technique uses what test?

A

Disk diffusion test

136
Q

What are the steps when performing a disk diffusion test?

A
  1. Make lawn of bacteria on Petri plate
  2. Place different antibiotic discs on line and observe growth after 24 to 48 hours
  3. Look for zone of inhabitation around antibiotic discs
  4. Measure zones and compare to determine susceptibility or resistance
137
Q

When using the E-test diffusion test, what is placed on the lawn of bateria?

A

A E-test strip with decreasing concentration of antibiotic

138
Q

The tube dilution technique is more sensitive and…?

A

Quantitative

139
Q

When using the tube dilution technique all tubes are inoculated with same amount of bacteria and determines…?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

140
Q

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) stands for?

A

Smallest concentration of drug that visibly inhibits growth

141
Q

In vitro activity of a drug is not always correlated with…?

A

In vitro effect

142
Q

A drug with the highest level of selectivity but lowest level of toxicity is measured by…?

A

Therapeutic index (TI)

143
Q

Therapeutic index(TI) is good when the number is smaller or bigger?

A

bigger

144
Q

Three types of acquired resistance mutations are termed?

A

Spontaneous mutations, induced mutations, transposons

145
Q

Three acquired resistance of new genes via transfer from another species is termed

A

Conjugation, transduction, and transformation

146
Q

Drug inactivation resistance does what?

A

Produces enzymes that destroy drug

147
Q

Decrease permeability drug resistance does what?

A

Changes receptor for drug

148
Q

Activation of drug pumps resistance does what?

A

Pumps drug out of cell

149
Q

Change in drug binding site resistance does what?

A

Changes binding site on ribosome

150
Q

What does drug resistance use of alternative metabolic pathways do?

A

Makes new enzymes to create alternative chemical pathways to end product

151
Q

Another word for creating drug resistant microbes is termed?

A

Drug abuse

152
Q

How does creating drug resistant microbes happen?

A

Overprescribed, not testing susceptibility test, prescribing broad spectrum more than needed, patients do not finish drugs, antibiotics used in livestock

153
Q

Define natural selection?

A

mutations where the sensitive cells are destroyed while resistant cells survive, eventually population will be resistant.

154
Q

Bacitracin prevents cell wall synthesis in gram-positive organisms and is used in antibacterial?

A

skin ointments

Micro Exam 3 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions