12) Chemotherapeutic Agents Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
Antimicrobial drugs are produced…?
A
Naturally or synthetically
2
Q
Antibiotics are common metabolic products of…?
A
Aerobic bacteria and fungi
3
Q
Antibiotics are common metabolic products of aerobic bacteria such as…?
A
Streptomyces and Bacillus
4
Q
Antibiotics are common metabolic products of fungi such as…?
A
Penicillium and Cephalosporium
5
Q
Antibiotic producers have less or more competition for nutrients and space?
A
less
6
Q
Paul Erlich coined the term chemotherapy to describe chemicals that would act as…?
A
“magic bullets”
7
Q
Paul Erlich coined chemotherapy to selectively kill and treat what?
A
compound 606 and to treat syphillis
8
Q
Gerhard Domagk introduced what drug?
A
the 1st SULFA drug
9
Q
Alexander Fleming accidentally discovered…?
A
Penicillin
10
Q
Howard Florey and Ernst Chain discovered…?
A
How to scale up penicillin production
11
Q
What is a chemotherapeutic agent?
A
Any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease
12
Q
An antibiotic is a metabolic product of one microorganism that…?
A
Inhibits or destroys other microorganisms
13
Q
What is a natural drug?
A
Product unchanged from Organism that produces it
14
Q
What is a semisynthetic drug?
A
Drug that is chemically modified in the lab after being isolated from the natural source
15
Q
What is a synthetic drug?
A
Drug is made completely in the lab
16
Q
Describe narrow spectrum…?
A
Limited spectrum, drug will only kill a few types of bacteria
17
Q
Define broad spectrum…?
A
Extended spectrum, drug will kill wide range of bacteria
18
Q
What is selectively toxic?
A
Drugs that kill or inhibit microbes without damaging host
19
Q
What happens when the characteristics of the infectious agent become more similar to the host?
A
Selective talks to city becomes more difficult to achieve, more side effects are seen
20
Q
What two drugs interfere with the enzymes that build peptidoglycan and cause weak spots in the cell wall?
A
Penicillin and cephalosporins
21
Q
What drugs target a special type of lipids that disrupt cell membrane, metabolism or cause lysis?
A
Polymyxins, amphotericin B, nystatin
22
Q
What drugs inhibit translation reaction with the ribosome-mRNA complex/ protein synthesis?
A
Streptomycin, erythromycin, gentamicin
23
Q
What drugs can block the synthesis of nucleotides/ nucleic acids and inhibit replication?
A
Cholorquine and antiviral drugs like AZT
24
Q
What drugs act as an analog to an enzyme in a metabolic pathway/ cytoplasm?
A
Sulfonamides and trimethoprim
25
Beta-lactam antimicrobials contain a highly reactive...?
Beta-lactam ring
26
What are the two most prominent beta-lactams?
Penicillins and cephalosporins
27
What is penicillin produced by?
Penicillium chrysogenum
28
Is penicillin natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic?
Natural and semisynthetic
29
Penicillin consists of three parts...?
Thiazolidine ring, Beta-lactam ring, side chain dictating microbial activity
30
What are the two most important natural forms of penicillin?
Penicillin G & V
31
Semi synthetic penicillins have broader or limited spectrum on gram-negative infections?
Broader
32
What bacterias are penicillinase resistant?
Methicillin, nafcillin, cloxacillin
33
What drug is made when clavulanic acid and amoxicillin are combined?
Augmentin
34
Penicillin is the drug of choice for gram positive cocci and some negative bacteria such as?
streptococci (+), meningococci and syphilis spirochete (-)
35
Primary problems of penicillin are?
Allergies(rash), resistant strains of bacteria
36
Cephalosporium is produced by?
Cephalopsorium acremonium
37
Is Cephalosporin a natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic drug?
Natural and semisynthetic
38
Cephalosporin consists of three parts...?
6 carbon ring, beta-lactam ring, two side chains dictating microbial activity
39
What bacteria is resistant to Cephalosporin?
penicillnases
40
Is Cephalosporin a broad spectrum drag or narrow spectrum?
Broad spectrum
41
The widest range of cephalosporin was which generation of drug?
4th generation
42
What generation of Cephalosporin is effective against MRSA?
5th generation
43
What are the primary problems of Cephalosporin?
Rash, nausea, diarrhea
44
Imipenem is a broad spectrum drug the fights aerobic and anaerobic pathogens and is the what class of drug?
Carbapenems
45
Aztreonam is a narrow spectrum drug for gram-negative aerobic baccilli, can be used by people allergic to penicillin and comes from what drug class?
Monobactams
46
Vancomycin is a narrow spectrum non beta-lactem antibiotic that treats resistant...?
Staphylococcus and Enterococcus
47
What narrow spectrum, non beta-lactam drug is toxic and hard to administer with restricted use?
Vancomycin
48
What does MERSA stand for?
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
49
What does VRE stand for?
Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus
50
What does VRSA stand for?
Vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
51
What are the primary problems of vancomycin?
Nausea, rash, dizziness, kidney damage, hearing loss
52
What is Red Man syndrome?
Vancomycin, rifampin, amphotericin B, and ciprofloxacin, oral and injections are infused too fast
53
What Redman syndrome symptoms occur 4-10 minutes after starting infusion?
low BP, hives, rash, fever and chills
54
Bacitracin is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is used in an ointment, what strain of bacteria is it a product of?
Bacillus Subtilis
55
Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis by interfering with...?
Mycolic acid synthesis
56
What to antibiotics work by damaging the bacteria's cell membrane?
Polymyxin B and Polymyxin E (colistin)
57
Polymyxin Antibiotics are narrow-spectrum and products of?
Bacillus polymyxa
58
Polymyxins are narrow-spectrum peptide antibiotics with a unique...?
Fatty acid component
59
Polymyxin B is used in...?
Neosporin
60
Polymyxin E )colistin) was used for...?
Bowel decontamination
61
What two antibiotics inhibit 30S ribosomal subunit?
Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines
62
Aminoglycosides antibiotics are produced by...?
Soil bacteria
63
Streptomycin antibiotic is a product of what bacteria?
Streptomyces
64
Gentamicin antibiotic is a product of what bacteria?
Micromonospora
65
Aminoglycosides are a broad-spectrum antibiotic that inhibit protein synthesis and are used against...?
aerobic gram-negative rods
66
Streptomycin fought against the...?
bubonic plague and tuberculosis
67
Gentamicin is less toxic and used against...?
Gram-negative rods
68
Neomycin is applied as an...?
ointment
69
Tetracycline inhibit 30S.....?
ribosomal subunit (protein synthesis)
69
Tetracycline inhibit 30S.....?
ribosomal subunit (protein synthesis)
70
Tetracyclines antibiotics are broad-spectrum is produced by...?
Streptomyces
71
Tetracyclines are used to treat...?
STD's, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, wine disease, typhus, acne, and protozoa
72
What two types antibiotics inhibit 50S ribosomal subunit
Chloramphenicol and Erythromycin
73
Is chloramphenicol natural, semi synthetic, or synthetic?
Synthetic
74
Chloramphenicol is very toxic, restricted uses and can cause...?
irreversible damage to bone marrow
75
Chloramphenicol antibiotics are used to treat...?
Typhoid fever, brain abscesses, rickettsial, and chlamydia
76
Primary problems of chloramphenicol are?
Injury to RBC and WBC
77
Erythromycin has fairly low toxicity and is broad or narrow-spectrum?
Broad-spectrum
78
Erythromycin treats...?
Mycoplasma pneumonia, leginellosis, chlamydia, pertussis, diphtheria and prior to intestinal surgery
79
Erythromycin comes from a class of...?
Macrolides
80
3 newer semisynthetic macrolides are...?
Clarithromycin, azithromycin (Zithromax)
81
Primary problems of erythromycin are?
Stomach pain, nausea, diarrhea, rash
82
Two types of antibiotics that act on DNA or RNA are?
Fluoroquinolones, Rifampin
83
Fluoroquinolones is broad or narrow-spectrum?
Broad- spectrum
84
Is fluoroquinolones a natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic drug?
Synthetic
85
Other names for Fluoroquinolones are?
Cipro, Levaquin
86
Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are used to treat?
UTI's, STD's, gastrointestinal, respiratory, soft tissue infections
87
Primary problems of fluoroquinolones are?
Headache, dizziness, tremors, GI distress
88
Fluoroquinolones are being monitored by the CDC to prevent...?
ciprofloxacin resistant bacteria
89
Rifampin is a broad or narrow-spectrum antibiotic?
narrow-spectrum
90
Rifampin treats...?
Tuberculosis and leprosy
91
Rifampin is used as a preventative for...?
Neisseria meningitidis carriers
92
Antibiotics that block metabolic pathways are...?
Sulfonamides
93
The first antimicrobial drugs were...?
SULFA drugs/ Sulfonamides
94
Most Sulfonamides are synthetic and narrow-spectrum that block the synthesis of ...?
folic acid
95
Sulfisoxazole is used to treat...?
shigellosis, UTI, protozoan infections
96
Silver sulfadiazine is used to treat,,,?
burns, eye infections
97
Trimethoprim WITH sulfamethoxazole is used to treat...?
UTI, PCP
98
Primary problems of Sulfonamides are?
rash, crystals in kidney, hemolysis of RBC, reduce platelets
99
Macrolide polyenes treat what type of infection?
Fungal
100
Amphotericin B is what type of drug?
Antifungal
101
Amphotericin is effective against...?
Skin and mucous membrane infections, yeast infections
102
Systemic fungal infections equal...?
Gold Standard
103
Nystatin is a fungal antibiotic used to treat?
Yeast infections
104
Griseofulvin is an antifungal that treats?
Ring worm
105
A problem with the antifungal drug Griseofulvin is that is "nephrotic" and can damage a persons...?
Kidney
106
Synthetic azoles end with the "ole", are broad-spectrum and treat what?
ring worm jock itch, athlete's foot, and vaginal yeast infections
107
Flucytosine is an antifungal and the analog of...?
Cytosine
108
Flucytosine is used to treat?
cutaneous mycoses
109
Echinocandins is a new category of antifungal drugs that...?
damage the cell walls of fugal cells, not toxic to human cells
110
Echinocandins is an antifungal used to treat an invasive fungal disease such as...?
aspergillosis and invasive yeast infections
111
Two classes of antiparasitic drugs are...?
antimalarial, antiprotozoal and anthelminthic
112
An antimalarial drug such as quinine was used to treat...?
malaria
113
Quinine is extracted from...?
the bark of a cinchona tree
114
Synthetic quinine's end in...?
"quine"
115
Two antiprotozoal drugs are...?
Metronidazole or Flagyl
116
Anti protozoan drugs such as metronidazole or flagyl is used to treat parasitic infections such as...?
Mild to severe intestinal infections and STD's
117
Antiviral drugs have three major modes of action, which are?
Inhibition of viral entry, inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, viral assembly or release
118
Antiviral drugs were developed to target specific points in the infectious cycle of...?
viruses
119
Two antiviral drugs that inhibit viral entry are..?
Amantadine( rimantadine) and Tamiflu ( Relenza)
120
Antiviral amantadine( rimantadine) is used to treat?
Influenza A
121
The antiviral drug Tamiflu ( Relenza) is used to treat?
Influenza
122
Many antiviral agents mimic the structure of nucleotides and compete for sites on...?
Replicating or synthesizing DNA
123
Antiviral drugs that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis all end in...?
"clovir"
124
Antiviral Gyanine analog is used to treat...?
Herpes, chickenpox and shingles.
125
Antiviral drug Azidothymidine(AZT) is a thymine analog used to treat?
AIDS
126
Azidothymidine(AZT) inhibits nucleic acid...?
Synthesis
127
What antiviral drug inhibits viral assembly or release?
Saquinavir
128
Saquinavir is a protease...?
Inhibitor
129
Saquinavir blocks enzymes needed to assemble virus particles, and also treats?
AIDS
130
Major side effects of antimicrobials are...?
Liver, kidney toxicity, hives, disruption of balance of normal flora creating a super infection.
131
Examples of a super infection that occurs when taking antimicrobials are?
Diarrhea, vaginal yeast infections
132
What are the steps when considering selecting an antimicrobial drug?
1. Identify the microorganism
2. Slowly test the microorganisms susceptibility to various drugs
3. Evaluate the overall medical condition of the patient
133
What are the three tests names for testing drug susceptibility?
Kirby- Bauer technique, E- test diffusion test, Tube dilution technique
134
The Kirby-Bauer technique is mainly used in what setting?
Hospital and labs
135
The Kirby- Bauer technique uses what test?
Disk diffusion test
136
What are the steps when performing a disk diffusion test?
1. Make lawn of bacteria on Petri plate
2. Place different antibiotic discs on line and observe growth after 24 to 48 hours
3. Look for zone of inhabitation around antibiotic discs
4. Measure zones and compare to determine susceptibility or resistance
137
When using the E-test diffusion test, what is placed on the lawn of bateria?
A E-test strip with decreasing concentration of antibiotic
138
The tube dilution technique is more sensitive and...?
Quantitative
139
When using the tube dilution technique all tubes are inoculated with same amount of bacteria and determines...?
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
140
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) stands for?
Smallest concentration of drug that visibly inhibits growth
141
In vitro activity of a drug is not always correlated with...?
In vitro effect
142
A drug with the highest level of selectivity but lowest level of toxicity is measured by...?
Therapeutic index (TI)
143
Therapeutic index(TI) is good when the number is smaller or bigger?
bigger
144
Three types of acquired resistance mutations are termed?
Spontaneous mutations, induced mutations, transposons
145
Three acquired resistance of new genes via transfer from another species is termed
Conjugation, transduction, and transformation
146
Drug inactivation resistance does what?
Produces enzymes that destroy drug
147
Decrease permeability drug resistance does what?
Changes receptor for drug
148
Activation of drug pumps resistance does what?
Pumps drug out of cell
149
Change in drug binding site resistance does what?
Changes binding site on ribosome
150
What does drug resistance use of alternative metabolic pathways do?
Makes new enzymes to create alternative chemical pathways to end product
151
Another word for creating drug resistant microbes is termed?
Drug abuse
152
How does creating drug resistant microbes happen?
Overprescribed, not testing susceptibility test, prescribing broad spectrum more than needed, patients do not finish drugs, antibiotics used in livestock
153
Define natural selection?
mutations where the sensitive cells are destroyed while resistant cells survive, eventually population will be resistant.
154
Bacitracin prevents cell wall synthesis in gram-positive organisms and is used in antibacterial?
skin ointments
