Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

All the things > 18.1 Skeletal System > Flashcards

18.1 Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What, generally, is achondroplasia?

A

Impaired cartilage proliferation in the growth plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the genetic cause of achondroplasia?

A

Activating mutation in FGFR3, causing inhibition of cartilage growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia?

A

Most are sporadic, but if inherited, AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of achondroplasia? What causes this phenotype?

A

Short extremities with a normal sized head and chest

  • Long bones undergo endochondral bone formation
  • Truncal bones undergo intramembranous bone formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens to mental function, lifespan, and fertility with achondroplasia?

A

Not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the intramembranous form of bone creation? What type of bones undergo this?

A

Bone is produced from a CT matrix

Bones of the skull, chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the endochondral form of bone creation? What type of bones undergo this?

A

Cartilage produced, dies, and calcifies

Long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

AD defect in collagen type I synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta? (3)

A
  • Multiple fractures
  • Blue sclera
  • Hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are the sclera blue with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Exposure of the choroidal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Inherited defect of bone resorption, resulting in abnormally thick, heavy bone that fractures easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the pathogenesis of osteopetrosis?

A

Carbonic anhydrase II mutation results in lack of acidic environment required for resorption of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is rxn that carbonic anhydrase catalyzes?

A

H2O + CO2 = H2CO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the radiological characteristics of osteopetrosis?

A

Abnormally white and dense bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Winter’s formula? (from sitting in lecture) What is it for?

A

pCO2 = 1.5(HCO3)+8 +/- 2

Measures compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes the anemia/ thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia with osteopetrosis?

A

Encroachment of bone on medulla of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes the vision and hearing impairment of osteopetrosis?

A

CN impingement 2/2 ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes the hydrocephalus with osteopetrosis?

A

Ossification of the foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes the acidosis with osteopetrosis?

A

Carbonic anhydrase deficiency results in a loss of bicarb in the blood, and an inability to excrete acid into the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for osteopetrosis?

A

Bone marrow transplant, which causes new and better osteocyte formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the defect in rickets/osteomalacia?

A

Defective mineralization of osteoid 2/2 low levels of vit D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the four main causes of Vit D deficiency?

A
  • Decreased sun exposure
  • Poor diet
  • Malabsorption
  • Liver failure and renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does rickets usually present?

A

Less than 1 year old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the clinical features of rickets? (4)

A
  • Pigeon breast deformity
  • Frontal bossing
  • Rachitic rosary
  • Bowing of legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is depositied in abnormal places with rickets?

A

Osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Low vit D in adults results in weak bone with an increased risk for fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happen to serum Ca levels with osteomalacia?

A

Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happen to serum phosphate levels with osteomalacia?

A

Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happen to serum PTH levels with osteomalacia?

30
Q

What happen to serum alk phos levels with osteomalacia?

31
Q

What is the role of alk phos?

A

Used by osteoblasts to create an alkaline environment for bone to be laid down

32
Q

What diseases is characterized by a loss of trabecular bone mass?

A

Osteoporosis

33
Q

What are the three factors that determine the peak bone mass?

A
  1. diet
  2. exercise
  3. Vit D receptor inheritance
34
Q

What is the age that bone mass peaks?

A

30 years old

35
Q

The risk of osteoporosis is based on what two factors?

A

Peak bone mass and rate of bone loss thereafter

36
Q

What are the two most common form of osteoporosis?

A

Senile

Postmenopausal

37
Q

What are the clinical features of osteoporosis?

A

Bone pain and fractures in weight bearing areas

38
Q

What happens to serum Ca with osteoporosis?

39
Q

What happens to serum PTH with osteoporosis?

40
Q

What happens to serum phosphate with osteoporosis?

41
Q

What happens to serum alk phos with osteoporosis?

42
Q

How is bone density measured?

43
Q

True or false: there are no abnormal labs with osteoporosis

44
Q

What defines osteoporosis vs osteopenia?

A

Osteopenia = -1 to -2.4 SDs

Osteoporosis = -2.5 and lower

45
Q

What is the treatment for osteoporosis?

A

Exercise
Vit D
Calcium

46
Q

What is the MOA of bisphosphonates in treating osteoporosis?

A

Binds to phosphate in bone, and inhibits osteoclastic action (causes apoptosis of osteoclasts)

47
Q

What is the general pathophysiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Imbalance between osteoclast and osteoblast action–first over osteoclast action, followed by osteoblast action that produce crappy bone

48
Q

When does Paget’s disease of bone usually present?

A

Late adulthood (60s)

49
Q

True or false: Paget’s disease of bone usually involves the entire skeleton

A

False–usually one or more, but not entire skeleton

50
Q

What are the three general stages of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  1. Osteoclastic
  2. Mixed
    3 .Osteoblastic
51
Q

What is the end result of Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Thick, sclerotic bone that fractures easily

52
Q

What are the histological characteristics of Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Tons of eosinophilic bone, with lines that have not been sealed

(“Jigsaw puzzle” pattern)

53
Q

Jigsaw puzzle bone = ?

A

Paget’s disease of bone

54
Q

What are the classic features of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • Increased hat size
  • Hearing loss
  • Lion-like facies 2/2 bone malformation
55
Q

What lab is classically elevated in Paget’s disease of bone?

56
Q

What are the two major drugs that are used to treat Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Calcitonin

Bisphosphonates

57
Q

What causes the high output cardiac failure with Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Proliferation of AV shunts in bones increases CO

58
Q

What cancer are patients with Paget’s disease at increased risk for?

A

Osteosarcoma (malignant proliferation of osteoblasts)

59
Q

Where does osteomyelitis usually come from?

A

Hematogenous spread to bone

60
Q

Where in the bone is osteomyelitis usually seen? (kids, adults)

A

Metaphysis in kids

Epiphysis in adults

61
Q

Is osteomyelitis usually bacterial, fungal, or viral?

62
Q

What is the most common bacteria that causes osteomyelitis?

A

Staph Aureus

63
Q

What is the most common bacteria that causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

A

Salmonella

64
Q

What are the patients that get osteomyelitis 2/2 pseudomonas?

A

DM and drug abusers

65
Q

What bone does TB classically infect?

A

Vertebral bodies

66
Q

What are the clinical features of osteomyelitis?

A

Bone pain with leukocytosis and fever

67
Q

What are the radiological findings of osteomyelitis?

A

Lytic focus surrounded by sclerosis

68
Q

How can you diagnose osteomyelitis?

A

Blood cultures

69
Q

What, generally, is avascular (aseptic) necrosis?

A

ischemic necrosis of the bone and bone marrow

70
Q

What are the causes of avascular (aseptic) necrosis?

A
  • Trauma/fracture
  • Steroids
  • Sickle cell
  • Caisson’s disease
71
Q

What are the major complications of avascular necrosis?

A

Osteoarthritis

Fractures

72
Q

What is Caisson’s disease?

A

“The bends” 2/2 to a reduction in ambient pressure, resulting in the formation of inert gas bubble in tissues, such as the joints, lungs, or brain

All the things (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions