Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OP - Yield > 12: Soft tissue > Flashcards

12: Soft tissue Flashcards

1
Q

surface of giant cell fibroma

A

papillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bilateral giant cell fibromas behind MD canines – treatment?

A

retrocuspid papilla, disappears with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

retrocuspid papilla histo

A

giant cell fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

frenal tag

A

fibrous hyperplasia, most frequent on maxillary labial frenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

epulis fissuratum

A

hyperplasia of fibrous tissue with ill-fitting denture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fibrous hyperplasia with ill-fitting denture

A

epulis fissuratum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

A

usually under denture; mouth breathers or deep palatal vault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

palate of mouth breathers

A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

benign fibrous histiocytoma histo

A

dermatofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dermatofibroma in mouth

A

benign fibrous histiocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

other names for benign fibrous histiocytoma

A

sclerosing hemangioma, fibroxanthoma, nodular subepidermal ffibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most common site of benign fibrous histiocytoma

A

skin of extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

histo of benign fibrous histiocytoma

A

short intersecting fascicles: storiform (straw mat) or cartwheel pattern; fibroblasts, histiocytes, Touton giant cells, xanthoma cells, lymphocytes, HPC like areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

short intersecting fascicles: storiform (straw mat) or cartwheel pattern

A

benign fibrous histiocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

benign fibrous histiocytoma IHC

A

factor XIIIa+, Cd34 - (vs DFSP XIIIa and CD34+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

variants of benign fibrous histiocytoma

A

cellular (higher recurrence) and eputhelioid (mimics Spitz nevus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which benign fibrous histiocytoma has higher recurrence

A

cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

touton giant cells look

A

“wreath-like” nuclei around scalloped edge of the cell like a florette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“wreath-like” nuclei around scalloped edge of the cell like a florette

A

touton giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

juvenile xanthogranuloma histo

A

sheets of histiocytes (xantho), touton giant cells, +/- eos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

juvenile xanthogranuloma IHC

A

CD68, antitrypsin + but S100 and CD1a negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

reticulohistiocytoma aka

A

solitary epithlioid histiocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

reticulohistiocytoma IHC

A

CD163+, CD68+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

reticulohistiocytoma histo

A

large epithelioid histiocytes with glassy cytoplasm, lymphocytes, neutrophils, giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

generalized reticulohistiocytoma

A

multiple skin lesions and granulomatous polyarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

xanthoma histo

A

localized collection of tissue histiocytes containing lipid (not a true tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

localized collection of tissue histiocytes containing lipid

A

xanthoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

xanthoma systemic conditions

A

most primary and some secondary hyperlipoproteinemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

xanthomas of eyelid

A

xanthelasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

lipid levels in xanthelasma

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fibrous proliferations intermediate between benign and fibrosarc

A

fibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fibromatosis entities

A

desmoid tumor, juvenile aggressive fibromatosis, extra-abdominal fibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fibromatosis in bone

A

desmoplastic fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

desmoplastic fibroma

A

fibromatosis in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

conditions with higher risj for fibromatosis

A

familial adenomatous polyposis and gardner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

fibromatosis histo

A

spindle cells infiltrate muscle and fat; cells run parallel to vessels and collagen runs alongsid each cell; abindant collagen )little or no cell-too-cell contact); no hyperchromasia; multinucleated giant cells: atrophic skeletal muscle remnants at periphery of lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

fibromatosis IHC

A

vimentin, SMA, MSA, beta catenin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

sternocleidomastoid tumor

A

fibromatosis colli, most common type, few weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most common type of fibromatosis

A

sternocleidomastoid tumor aka fibromatosis colli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

juvenile hyaline fibromatosis

A

hereditary; muliple cutaneous papiles/nodules/masses, gingival hyperplasia, joint contracures, osteolytic defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

juvenile hyaline fibromatosis histo

A

cords of spindle cells embedded in homogeneous eosinophilic matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

prliferation of myofibroblasts

A

myofibroma/myofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

multicentric myofibromatosis

A

neonates/infants with tumors of skin, bone, visceral organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

histo look of myofibroma

A

may appear biphasic: darker central area and lighter pripheral areas; nofules or whorls of elongated spindle cells, myxoid stroma, staghprn vessels, chondroid areas; may have smooth muslce/fibroblastc features, HPC-like pattern, local infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

myofibroma IHC

A

vimentin, SMA, PTAH +; desmin S100 -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

nodular fasciitis demographic

A

adults 20-40yo, classically rapid growth, 50% with pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most nodular fasciitis location

A

upper extremities, trunk, head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

nodular fasciitis histo

A

red spindle cells in fascicles and bundles; feathery “tissue culture” appearance; keloid-like collagen fibers; inflammation, hemosiderin, extravasated RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

feathery “tissue culture” look

A

nodular fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

nodular fasciitic IHC

A

KP-1+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

keloid natural history and predilection

A

abnormal wound healing in genetically predisposed patients; dark-skinned; hypertrophic scar confined to original wound site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

systemic associations for keloid

A

Ehlers-Danlos, scleroderma, Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

keloid histo

A

haphazard, thick, glassy, deeply eosinophilic collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor location and cause

A

most common in lung, overexpression of ALK kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor IHC

A

MSA, SMA, desmin, ALK-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

oral focal mucinosis cause

A

overproduction of hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts (Alcian blue+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

oral focal mucinosis location and predilection

A

75% gingiva, young females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

locations for PG

A

75% gingiva (poor hygiene), also tongue, cheek, lips (trauma related)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

PG in pregnancy cause and name

A

increased progesterone/estrogen, granuloma gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

PG in extraction socket

A

epulis granulomatosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

epulis granulomatosa

A

PG in extraction socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

peripheral giant cell granuloma clinical look and location

A

blue-purple mass, exclusive to gingiva or alveolar ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

peripheral ossifying fibroma look and location, demographic

A

pink or red, exclusively gingiva, more anterior maxilla, teenagers (females), incisor-cuspid area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

most common mesenchymal neoplasm

A

lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

location for lpoma

A

trunk and proximal extremities, more in obese people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

metaplasia in lipoma

A

central ctlg or osseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

highest recurrence rate among lipomas

A

intramuscular 2/2 infiltrative growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

histo look of spindle cell lipoma

A

bland spindle cells, myxoid changes, ropy collagen bundles, scattered mast cells, mature adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

IHC lipoma

A

CD34+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

lipoblastoma histo

A

lipoblasts and adipocyte with fibrous connective tissue septa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

lipoblasts and adipocyte with fibrous connective tissue septa

A

lipoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

age for lipoblastoma

A

< 3 yo (almost exclusively childrins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hibernoma origin

A

vestigial remnants of brown fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

which neoplasm arises from vestigial remnants of brown fat

A

hibernoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

hibernoma histo look

A

multivacuolated cells (brown fat, like in hibernating animals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

hibernoma IHC

A

S100+, Cd34 –

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

hibernoma molecular

A

11q13 and 11q21 rearrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

11q13 and 11q21 rearrangement neoplasm

A

hibernoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

traumatic neuroma location

A

mental foramen, tongue, lower lip, often with trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

special complication of parotid surgeries

A

traumatic neuroma of greater auricular nerve in 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

pain in traumatic neuroma

A

25-33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

palisaded encapsulated neuroma aka

A

solitary circumscribed neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

solitary circumscribed neuroma aka

A

palisaded encapsulated neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

palisaded encapsulated neuroma location

A

90% face (nose and cheeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

special artifacts for palisaded encapsulated neuroma

A

cracking and peeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

cracking and peeling characteristics artifacts of what

A

palisaded encapsulated neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

neurilemoma syndrome assoc

A

NF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

NF2 assoc with what mesenchymal neoplasm

A

neurilemoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

NF2 inheritance, gene, neoplasms

A

AD, MERLIN (schwannomin) gene mutation (chr 22). b/l neurilemomas of vestibular nerve (acoustic neuromas), neurilemmomas of peripheral nerves, meningiomas and ependymomas of CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

multiple neurilemomas but no vestibular tumors

A

schwannomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

schwannomatosis vs NF2

A

NF2 acoustic neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

carney syndrome

A

psammomatous melanocytic schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

psammomatous melanocytic schwannomas syndrome

A

carney syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

verocay bodies

A

reduplicated basement membrane and cytoplasmic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

reduplicated basement membrane and cytoplasmic processes

A

verocay bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

ancient schwannoma features

A

hemorrhage, vessel hyalinization, pleomorphic cells, verocay bodies, xanthomatous changes, cysts, fibrosis and calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

schwannoma vs neurofibroma IHC

A

S100 stronger in schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

neurites in schwannoma vs neurofibroma

A

absent in schwannoma, present in NF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

most common peripheral nerve neoplasm

A

neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

special cell in neurofibromas

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

many mast cells in spindly lesion

A

prolly neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

histo look of NF

A

shredded carrot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

shredded carrot

A

NF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

NF IHC

A

S100 scattered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

neurofibromatosis aka

A

von Recklinghausen disease of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

von Recklinghausen disease of the skin aka

A

neurofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

NF1 inheritance, gene, chromosome, product

A

50% AD, 50% new mutation; NF1 gene on chr 17, neurofibromin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

NF1 vs NF2 gene, chromosome, product

A

NF1: NF1 gene on chr 17, neurofibromin; NF2: MERLIN (schwannomin) gene mutation (chr 22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

large baggy neurofibromas

A

elephantiasus neuromatosa in NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

elephantiasus neuromatosa

A

large baggy neurofibromas in NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

pathognomonic feel of neurofibroma in NF1

A

plexiform, bag of worms, especially in trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

bag of worms skin lesion esp trunk

A

pathognomonic plexiform feel of neurofibroma in NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

NF Dx

A

cafe au ait (6+), axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign), brown pigmented spots on the iris (Lisch nodules), optic glioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

optic glioma

A

NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

axillary freckling in NF1

A

Crowe’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Crowe’s sign

A

axillary freckling in NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Lisch nodules

A

brown pigmented spots on the iris in NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

brown pigmented iris spots

A

Lisch nodules, NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

most common oral finding in NF1

A

enlarged fungiform papillae in up to 50% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

most common medical problem in NF1

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

malignant transformation in NF

A

~5% of NF transform to malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors; others: RMS, leukemia, pheochromocytoma, Wilms tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

order of neural lesions occurrence

A

neuroma > schwannoma, NF > ancient schwannoma > plexiform NF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

ganglioneuroma age location

A

average age 6y, most common in mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

GI ganglioneuroma look and association

A

polypoid; associated with Cowden, tuberous sclerosis, juvenile polyposis, NF1, MEN2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

ganglioneuroma histo

A

scattered clusters of ganglion cells in a background of schwann cell bundles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

ganglion cell look

A

large pink cytoplasm and 1-3 nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

neurothekeoma aka

A

nerve sheath myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

never sheath myxoma aja

A

neurothekeoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

neurothekeoma histo look

A

lobules of cells and myxoid stroma (hyaluronic acid or sulfated acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

neurothekeoma IHC

A

S100 and PGP9.5+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

cellular neurothekeoma

A

cellular, nuclear atypia, mitosis, extends into fat/mm/vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

neurothekeoma ddx and how

A

focal mucinosis and myxoid neurofibroma – lobulation is key difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

perineurioma differentiation

A

most cells show perineural differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

perineurioma forms

A

intraneural, extraneural )soft tissue), sclerosing, reticaulr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

intraneural perineurioma histo look

A

tiny “onion bulbs”, EMA+, S100+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

ossifying fibromyxoid tumor of soft parts origin and location

A

possibly neuroectodermal, 70% in extrmities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

ossifying fibromyxoid tumor of soft parts histo

A

lobules of uniform, round to fusiform cells in nests and cords, fibromyxoid stroma, incomplete shell of metaplastic hypocellular lamellar bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

ossifying fibromyxoid tumor of soft parts IHC

A

70% are vimentin and S100+; also desmin, Leu7, NSE, GFAP, SMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

granular cell tumor location

A

tongue > cheek, rarely parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

granular cell tumor multiplicity demographic

A

black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

granular cell tumor IHC

A

S100+ (schwann origin??), NK1C3, CD68, Leu7, NSE, MBP; GFAP and neurofilament –

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

examples of epulides

A

1- Giant cell epulis = PGCG
2- Ossifying fibroid epulis = peripheral ossifying fibroma
3- Congenital epulis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

polyp on hard palate under denture

A

Leaf –like or fibroepithelial polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Granuloma gravidarum

A

Pyogenic granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Proteus syndrome aka, presentation

A

(Wiedmann Syndrome ): overgrowth and atypical bone development, often
accompanied by tumors over half the body. Mistaken for NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

other names for granular cell tumor

A

=Granular myoblastoma= Granular cell schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

PHACES syndrome

A 
Large segmental cervicofacial hemangioma
Posterior fossa brain anomaly (Dandy – walker malformation )
Hemangioma
Arterial anomalies
Cardiac defects
Eye anomalies
Sternal cleft or supraumbilical raphe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Kasabach-Merritt phenomenon:

A

hemangioma thrombocytopenia syndrome
 Tufted hemangioma
 Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

hemangioma thrombocytopenia syndrome

A

Kasabach-Merritt phenomenon:
 Tufted hemangioma
 Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Non hereditary developmental condition of hamartomatous vascular proliferation

A

Sturge- Weber Syndrome; Encaphalotrigeminal Angiomatosis; Sturge -Weber Angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

portwine stain aka

A

nevus flammeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

nevus flammeus aka

A

portwine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Sturge Weber mutation

A

GNAQ 9q21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Noonan syndromw

A

o Heart defect
o Web neck
o Flat nose
o Pectum excavatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

fibrous histiocytoma not in the mouth

A

dermatofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

dermatofibroma in the mouth

A

Fibrous histiocytoma;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

solitary fibrous tumor IHC

A

CD34+, BCL-2, STAT6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

cafe au lait spots

A

Coast of Maine = FD

Coats of California = NF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

fibromatosis in bone

A

desmoplastic fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

fibromatosis syndrome

A

gardner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

head and neck fibromatosis

A

Juvenile aggressive fibromatosis or extra-abdominal desmoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

fibromatosis recurrence

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1 (7)

A
  1. 6 ≥ café au lait macules – prepubertal > 5mm / adults >15 mm
  2. 2 ≥ NF or 1 plexiform
  3. Freckling in the axillary region ( Crow sign)
  4. Optic glioma
  5. 2 ≥ Lische nodules ( iris hamartoma)
  6. Osseous lesions
  7. A first degree relative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

MNTI: preilection, location, radio look, labs, recurrence

A

 Male predilection
 Anterior maxilla but other sites have been reported
 Sunray radiograph
 Lab : High levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
 20% recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

MNTI IHC

A

 + CK, HMB-45, NSE, CD 56, Synaptophysin in some cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

increased vanillylmandelic acid entities

A

o MNET
o MTC
o Pheochromocytoma
o Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

paraganglioma in head and neck syndromes

A

NF1, MEN 2, von Hippel-lindau

syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

sustentacular cells in paragangliomas IHC

A

S100+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

paraganglioma mutation and highest rate of malignancy

A

PGL1-4 (SDHB) / Type 4 has highest rate of malignancy 13% -23%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

von hippel lindau chromosome and presentation

A

3p; Inherited disorder, formation of tumors and fluid-filled sacs (cysts) in many different
parts of the body. Tumors may be either noncancerous or cancerous and most
frequently appear during young adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

tumors with von hippel lindau

A

angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma,
pancreatic cysts (pancreatic serous cystadenoma), endolymphatic sac tumor, and
bilateral papillary cystadenomas of the epididymis (men) or broad ligament of the
uterus (women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

VHL signs and symptoms

A

headaches, problems with balance and walking, dizziness,

weakness of the limbs, vision problems, and high blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q 
favored site: 
Adult rhabdomyoma 
Granular cell tumor 
Hibernoma 
Paraganglioma
A

Adult rhabdomyoma H&N
Granular cell tumor skin, tongue
Hibernoma interscapular
Paraganglioma extra-adrenal ganglioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q 
electron microscopy: 
Adult rhabdomyoma 
Granular cell tumor 
Hibernoma 
Paraganglioma
A

Adult rhabdomyoma think/thick filaments
Granular cell tumor phagolysosomes
Hibernoma m/ch
Paraganglioma neurosecretory granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q 
S100: 
Adult rhabdomyoma 
Granular cell tumor 
Hibernoma 
Paraganglioma
A

Adult rhabdomyoma rare, focal
Granular cell tumor diffuse
Hibernoma diffuse
Paraganglioma sustentacular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q 
MSA: 
Adult rhabdomyoma 
Granular cell tumor 
Hibernoma 
Paraganglioma
A

Adult rhabdomyoma diffuse
Granular cell tumor neg
Hibernoma neg
Paraganglioma neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q 
Chromogranin: 
Adult rhabdomyoma 
Granular cell tumor 
Hibernoma 
Paraganglioma
A

Adult rhabdomyoma neg
Granular cell tumor neg
Hibernoma neg
Paraganglioma diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

congenital epulis: sex, location, special cells

A

congenital granular cell lesion: 90% F, Midline, Maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

hemangioma of infancy special IHC

A

GLUT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma special radio

A

Anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma: age, location, recurrence

A 
 Male
 Pterygopalatine fossa
 Sphenopalatine foramen
 Anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus
 Recurrence 20 %-40%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

lymphangiomas look

A

frog eggs or tapioca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

frog eggs or tapioca

A

lymphangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

macro vs microcystic lymphangioma

A

Macrocystic ( cystic hygroma) : 2cm > , 4% in blacks

 Microcystic: 2cm < / Mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

cystic hygroma

A

macrocystic (>2cm) lemphangioma, 4% in blacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

spider web

A

rhabdomyoma

188
Q

Batson plexus:

A

Valveless vertebral venous plexus

189
Q

origin of congenital epulis of newborn

A

likely myofibroblastic

190
Q

congenital epulis of newborn aka

A

congenital granular cell lesion

191
Q

congenital granular cell lesion aka

A

congenital epulis of newborn

192
Q

gender, location for congenital epulis of newborn

A

10% multiple, 90% females, Mx>md ib akveikar ridge (rarely on tongue also)

193
Q

congenital epulis of newborn IHC

A

S100 - (vs granular cell tumor), KP-1+, vimentin+; no pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (unlike granular cell tumor)

194
Q

pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia granular cell tumor vs granular cell lesion of newborn

A

yes in GCT, not in newborn epulis

195
Q

extracranial meningioma origin

A

ectopic arachnoid lining cells

196
Q

ectopic arachnoid lining cells give rise to

A

extracranial meningioma

197
Q

extracranial meningioma types, location, origin, histo

A

1 - congenital - skin of scalp, forehead, paravertebral; abnormal neural tube closure; intermediate between meningocele an dmeningioma (aka meningeal hamartoma)
2 - adults - close to sensory organs (eye ear nose) - syncytial pattern, swirling whorled balls of cells, collagenous septa, psammoma bodies; CK+

198
Q

type 1 extracranial meningioma location, origin, histo, aka

A

1 - congenital - skin of scalp, forehead, paravertebral; abnormal neural tube closure; intermediate between meningocele an dmeningioma (aka meningeal hamartoma)

199
Q

type 2 extracranial meningioma location, origin, histo, IHC

A

2 - adults - close to sensory organs (eye ear nose) - syncytial pattern, swirling whorled balls of cells, collagenous septa, psammoma bodies; CK+

200
Q

congenital displacement of neuroglial tissue aka

A

glial heterotopia, nasal glioma, glial hamartoma, heterotopic glial tumor; variant of encephalocele

201
Q

glial heterotopia location, clinical, age

A

6-% subQ tissue of nose, 30% nasal cavity; polypoid mass in nose of infant, gros with infant

202
Q

glial heterotopia in mouth

A

glial choristoma

203
Q

glial choristoma histo, IHC

A

glial heterotopia; mats of glial tissue with astocytes; neuronal elements absent; GFAP+ (glial fibrillary acidic proterin), S100+

204
Q

encephalocele vs glial heterotopia

A

encephalocele connects to CNS via defect in cribriform plate; when in nose, same as glial heterotopia

205
Q

encephalocele histo

A

mixture of astrocytes, glial fibers, and neuronal elements (latter absent in glial heterotopia)

206
Q

MEN1 aka, findings

A

Werner sybdrome: 3P: benign tumors of parathyroid, pancreas, and pitutary

207
Q

benign tumors of parathyroid, pancreas, and pitutary which MEN

A

MEN1 aka Werner syndrome

208
Q

MEN2A aka and findings

A

Sipple syndrome, pheochromocytoma and medullary thyroid ca

209
Q

pheochromocytoma and medullary thyroid ca whih MEN

A

MEN2A aka sipple syndrome

210
Q

MEN2B findings and mutation

A

Pheochromocytoma (50%), medullary thyroid ca (90%), mucosal neuromas; RET mutation (chrom 10); protuberant lips in narrow face, eversion of eyelids; marfanoid body (thin long limbs and muscle wasting)

211
Q

mucosal neuromas which MEN

212
Q

protuberant lips in narrow face, eversion of eyelids which MEN

213
Q

neuromas in MEN2B location

A

lips, anterior tongue, bilatrally on commissures

214
Q

marfanoid body which MEN

215
Q

medullary thyroid ca labs

A

increased serum or urinary calcitonin

216
Q

increased serum or urinary calcitonin labs

A

medullary thyroid ca

217
Q

pheochromocytoma labs

A

increased vanillylmandelic acid and epi/norepi ratio

218
Q

increased vanillylmandelic acid and epi/norepi ratio which conditions

A

pheochromocytoma, MNTI, neuroblastoma

219
Q

MNTI labs

A

increased vanillylmandelic acid and epi/norepi ratio

220
Q

neuroblastoma labs

A

increased vanillylmandelic acid and epi/norepi ratio

221
Q

MNTI origin, age, location, gender, xray look

A

neural crest origin, <1 yo, Mx, M>F, sunray pattern on xray

222
Q

MNTI histo and IHC

A

○ Large epithelioid cells CK+, HMB45+, neurospecific enolase +
○ Smaller cells neurospecific enolase +, CD56+, +/- other neuroendocrine markers

223
Q

biphasic: NSE and CD56+ small round cells; CK+ epithelioid cells

224
Q

what are paraganglia

A

chemoreceptors that detect changes i blood pH and O tension

225
Q

paraganglioma aka

A

chemodectoma

226
Q

paraganglioma origin

A

neural crest

227
Q

carotid body paraganglioma origin, gender, condition

A

neural crest, may arise in response to hypoxia; more in females at higher altitudes

228
Q

cartoid body paraganglioma clinical

A

deep mass below angle of MD with pharyngeal swelling; Fontaine’s sign: lesion moved side to side but no vertical movement

229
Q

Fontaine’s sign

A

lesion moved side to side but no vertical movement – carotid body paraganglioma

230
Q

lesion moved side to side but no vertical movement

A

Fontaine’s sign, carotid body paraganglioma

231
Q

% rule for carotid body paraganglioma (3)

A

10% multlifocal, 10% familial history (genomic imprinting), 10% metastasize

232
Q

carotid body paraganglioma histo and IHC

A

zellballen, highly vascular; chief cells (type 1) – synapto/chromo; sustentacular cells (type 2) S1–+

233
Q

carney’s triad

A

extra-adrenal paraganglioma., gastric leiomyosarcoma, pulmonary chondroma

234
Q

when is carotid body paraganglioma malignant

A

when mets are present

235
Q

jugulotympanic paraganglioma aka

A

glomus jugulare

236
Q

glomus jugulare aka

A

jugulotympanic paraganglioma

237
Q

jugulotympanic paraganglioma location and origin

A

paraganglia or auricular branch of vagal nerve or tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve; temporal bone and middle ear;; glomus jugulare – when arises from jugular bulb;; glomus tympanicum – involves middle ear

238
Q

glomus jugulare

A

jugulotympanic paraganglioma in jugular bulb

239
Q

glomus tympanicum

A

jugulotympanic paraganglioma in middle ear

240
Q

most common neoplasm of middle ear

A

jugulotympanic paraganglioma/glomus tympanicum

241
Q

vagal body tumor aka

A

vagal paraganglioma

242
Q

vagal paraganglioma aka

A

vagal body tumor

243
Q

vagal paraganglioma findings and location

A

high cervical masses between mastoid process and angle of jaw; above carotid bifurcation without widening of bifurcation point

244
Q

high cervical masses between mastoid process and angle of jaw; above carotid bifurcation without widening of bifurcation point

A

vagal paragnglioma

245
Q

glomus tumor origin and function

A

glomus body: regulates temperature, is an AV shunt

246
Q

arterial segment of glomus body

A

Sucquet-Hoyer

247
Q

glomus body composition

A

varying proportions of glomus cells, blood vessels, and smooth muscle

248
Q

glomus tumor clinical, location

A

papulonodular lesions, red/pink/blue, extremely painful;; acral distribution (hand, foot, forearm)

249
Q

glomus tumor types

A

solid, glomangioma, glomangiomyoma (60%), infiltrating, glomangiosarcoma

250
Q

glomangioma histo

A

cookie cutter cells (ptominent cell borders); round, centrally placed, almost neuroendocrine like; cells around vascular lakes

251
Q

glomangiomyoma histo

A

smooth muscle cells near vascular spaces blending with glomus cells

252
Q

hemangioma vs vascular malformation

A

hemangioma arises during first 8 wks, involutes; vascular malformation present at birth, no involution

253
Q

most common tumor of infance

A

hemangioma

254
Q

hemangioma gender, location

A

most common tumor of infancy, F:M 5:1, 60% H&N

255
Q

PHACES syndrome

A

Posterior fossa brain anomaly (Dandy Walker), Hemangioma, Arterial anomalies, Cardiac defects, Eye anomalies, Stenral cleft/supraumbilical raphe

256
Q

Kasabach Merritt phenomenon

A

thrombocytopenia and hemorrhage due to platelets being trapped in tufted hemangioma/or kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

257
Q

thrombocytopenia and hemorrhage due to platelets being trapped in tufted hemangioma/or kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

A

Kasabach Merritt phenomenon

258
Q

intrabony hemangioma radio and clinical

A

bruit/pulsation; multi or unilocular; radiolucent or sunburst

259
Q

hemangioma histo types

A

juvenile or cellular (aka juvenile hemangioendothelioma), capillary, cavernous

260
Q

most common slow growing tumor of infants

A

juvenile hemangioendothelioma aka jivenile/cellular hemangioma

261
Q

hemangioma of infancy IHC

A

GLUT1+ (negative in vascular malformations)

262
Q

intravascular papillary endothelial hyperplasia aka

A

Masson’s tumor, Masson’s hemangioma

263
Q

papillary endothelial hyperplasia origin and histo

A

reactive pseudoneoplastic proliferation of endothelial cells associated with thrombosis; dilated vascular channels with endolthelial-lined papillary circles and stroma

264
Q

reactive pseudoneoplastic proliferation of endothelial cells associated with thrombosis; dilated vascular channels with endolthelial-lined papillary circles and stroma

A

papillary endothelial hyperplasia aka Masson’s tumor

265
Q

Sturge Weber aka

A

Sturge Weber sybdrome or angiomatosis, encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis

266
Q

Sturge Weber clinical

A

port wine stain (nevus flammeus), leptomeningeal angiomas, seizzures, mental retardaton

267
Q

sturge weber intraoral

A

gingiva may become hyperplastic or with PG(from vascular component or use of phenytoin for seizures)

268
Q

sturge weber skull film

A

tramline calcifications

269
Q

tramline calcifications on skull film

A

sturge weber

270
Q

fibrous hyperplasia on maxillary labial frenum

A

frenal tag

271
Q

frenal tag

A

fibrous hyperplasia on maxillary labial frenum

272
Q

retrocuspid papilla

A

fibroma on gingiva lingual to MD canines, disappears with age

273
Q

fibroma on gingiva lingual to MD canines

A

retrocuspid papilla

274
Q

leaflike denture fibroma

A

fibroepithelial polyp on hard palate beneath denture, with serrated edges

275
Q

polyp on hard palate beneath denture

A

leaflike denture fibroma or fibropithelial polyp with serrated edges

276
Q

polyp with serrated edges

A

leaflike denture fibroma

277
Q

fibromatosis of head and neck

A

juvenila aggressive fibromatosis or extra-abominal desmoid tumors

278
Q

higher risk conditions for fibromatosis

A

familial adenomatous polyposis and Gardner

279
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis and Gardner higher risk for

A

fibromatosis

280
Q

multicentric myofibroma

A

myofibromatosis; infants with tumors of skin, bone, viscera

281
Q

infants with tumors of skin, bone, viscera

A

multicentric myofibromatosis

282
Q

oral focal mucinosis location and chemistry

A

increased hyaluronic acid, 75% on gingiva

283
Q

PG in extraction socket

A

epulis granulomatosa

284
Q

epulis granulomatosa

A

PG in extraction socket

285
Q

lipoma with higher recurrence rate

A

intramuscular

286
Q

risk in surgery for PA

A

traumatic neuroma in 10%

287
Q

traumatic neuroma association

A

10% of surgeries for PA

288
Q

schwannoma condition association

289
Q

NF2 inheritance, genetics, chromosome, tumors

A

AD, MERLIN gene mutation (chr 22); acoustic neuromas, neurilemomas of peripheral nerves, meningiomas, ependymomas of CNS

290
Q

NF1 inheritance, genetics, chromosome

A

50% AD, 50% new mutation; NF1 gene on chrom 17, neurofibromin protein

291
Q

chrom 17 which NF

A

1 – neurofibromin

292
Q

chrom 22 which NF

A

2 – MERLIN

293
Q

MERLIN gene

294
Q

large baggy neurofibromas special name

A

elephantiasis neuromatosa

295
Q

bag of worms

A

plexiform neurofibroma

296
Q

plexiform neurofibroma special feeling

A

bag of worms

297
Q

elephantiasis neuromatosa

A

large baggy neurofibromas

298
Q

diagnostic criteria for NF1

A

6+ cafe au lait, axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign), iris hamartoma )Lisch nodules), optic glioma

299
Q

Lisch nodules are

A

iris hamartomas; NF1

300
Q

freckling in NF1

A

Crowe’s sign

301
Q

Crowe’s sign

A

axillary freckling in NF1

302
Q

iris hamartomas in NF1

A

Lisch nodules

303
Q

NF1 syndrome associations

A

Noonan syndrome and CGCG

304
Q

most common problem in NF1

305
Q

MPNST in NF1

306
Q

anterior bowing of posterior wall of mx sinus

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

307
Q

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma special radio

A

anterior bowing of posterior wall of mx sinus

308
Q

leiomyoma histo types

A

solid, angioleiomyoma, epithlioid leiomyoma (leiomyoblastoma)

309
Q

leiomyoblastoma aka

A

epithlioid leiomyoma

310
Q

epithlioid leiomyoma aka

A

leiomyoblastoma

311
Q

special stain in rhabdomyoma

312
Q

MPNST and NF1

A

50% of MPNSTs are in pts with NF1

313
Q

MPNST radio

A

widening of MD canal or mental foramen

314
Q

widening of MD canal or mental foramen

A

suspect MPNST

315
Q

triton tumor

A

MPSNT + malignant skeletal muscle

316
Q

MPSNT + malignant skeletal muscle

A

triton tumor

317
Q

olfactory neuroblastoma location

A

nasal cavity close to cribifrom plate

318
Q

botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma histo

A

cambium layers: zone of increased cellularity below mucosa

319
Q

zone of increased cellularity below mucosa in botryoid rhabdomyosarc

A

cambium layers

320
Q

alevolar rhabdomyosarcs translocations

A

PAX3-FKHR and PAX7-FKHR

321
Q

PAX3-FKHR

A

alveolar rhabdomyosarc

322
Q

PAX7-FKHR

A

alveolar rhabdomyosarc

323
Q

embryonal rhabdomyosarc generics

A

loss of heterozygosity 11p15

324
Q

cowden syndrome

A

multiple trichilemmomas, adnexal hamartomas and nevi, hamartomatous intestinal polyps, breast and other malignancies

325
Q

multiple trichilemmomas, adnexal hamartomas and nevi, hamartomatous intestinal polyps, breast and other malignancies

A

cowden syndrome

326
Q

loss of heterozygosity 11p15

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarc

327
Q

alveolar soft part sarc genetics

A

x17 translocation ASPL-TFE3 fusion protein

328
Q

x17 translocation

A

alveolar soft part sarc

329
Q

ASPL-TFE3 fusion protein

A

alveolar soft part sarc

330
Q

synovial sarc genetics

A

x18 translocation SSx-SS18

331
Q

x18 translocation

A

synovial sarc

332
Q

SSx-SS18

A

synovial sarc

333
Q

synovial sarc IHC

334
Q

batson plexus

A

vertebral plexus that bypasses lung filtration (explains distant mets in jaws but not in lungs)

335
Q

distant mets in jaws but not in lungs

A

batson plexus – vertebral plexus that bypasses lung filtration

336
Q

vertebral plexus that bypasses lung filtration

A

batson plexus (explains distant mets in jaws but not in lungs)

337
Q

men soft tissue mets

A

lung, renal, melanoma; prostate goes to bone

338
Q

women soft tissue mets

A

breast (IHC ER PR), genital, lung, bone, kidney

339
Q

Klippel Trenaunay Weber syndrome

A

multiple facial hemangiomas, vascular masses with enlargement of extremities, ocular disorders

340
Q

multiple facial hemangiomas, vascular masses with enlargement of extremities, ocular disorders

A

Klippel Trenaunay Weber syndrome

341
Q

Klippel Trenaunay Weber syndrome oral findings

A

premature tooth eruption and bony overgrowth –> malocclusion

342
Q

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma age gender location

A

exlusively in young males (10-17yo), pterygopalatine fossa

343
Q

lesion of pterygopalatine fossa exclusively in young males

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

344
Q

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma imagina

A

anterior bowing of posterior wall of mx sinus, angiogram useful

345
Q

anterior bowing of posterior wall of mx sinus

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

346
Q

hemangiopericytoma aka

A

solitary fibrous tumor

347
Q

solitary fibrous tumor aka

A

hemangiopericytoma

348
Q

hemangiopericytoma location in mouth and in general

A

75% cheek; common on pleura

349
Q

hemangiopericytoma pattern

A

tightly packed cells around staghorn vessels

350
Q

patternless pattern: spindle cells in short fascicles

A

solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma

351
Q

solitary fibrous tumor histo

A

remember aka hemangiopericytoma ~ alternating hyper/hypocellular zone; hypocellular with prominent hyalinized collagen bundles; bands of dense collagen separate individual cells; myxoid bluish background around islands of pleomorphic bland cells; HPC like areas with staghorns

352
Q

solitary fibrous tumor IHC

A

CD34+, CD99+, bcl-2+, SMA -, STAT6

353
Q

tightly packed cells around staghorn vessels

A

hemangiopericytoma (=SFT) like pattern

354
Q

glomangiopericytoma aka

A

sinonasal hemangiopericytoma, glomus tumor, HPC-like tumor; distinct from soft tissue hemangiopericytome

355
Q

sinonasal hemangiopericytoma aka

A

glomangiopericytoma, glomus tumor, HPC - like tumor; distinct from soft tissue hemangiopericytome

356
Q

glomagiopericytoma histo

A

remember aka sinonasal hemangiopericytoma ~ monomorphic spindle to ovoid cells with lightly eosinophilic cytoplasm and bland nuclei forming short fascicles or a storiform/whorled/palisaded pattern; tumor cells aggregate around staghorn vessels

357
Q

PEComa = ; examples, association

A

perivascular epithelioid cell neoplasm; derived from perivascular epithelioid cells. eg renal angiomyolipoma, lymphangiomyomatosis, clear cell sihar tumor of lung; associated with tuberous sclerosis complex

358
Q

tuberous sclerosis classic organ tumors

A

renal angiomyolipoma, cardiacrhabdomyoma; subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

359
Q

renal angiomyolipoma type of tumor and syndrome

A

PEComa ~ tuberous sclerosis

360
Q

PEComa IHC, histo

A

melanocytic and muscle markers, can look like granular cell tumor

361
Q

lymphangiomyomatosis what is it and demographic

A

PEComa, tuberous sclerosis association, exclusively in women of child-bearing age

362
Q

lymphangioma types

A

simplex (capillary), cavernous, cystic (cystic hygroma)

363
Q

lymphangioma location, age

A

50-75% head and neck, 90% <2yo

364
Q

cystic lymphangioma location

A

most in posterior triangle of neck; anterior lesions more complications

365
Q

oral lympahngiomas location and look

A

anterior 2/3 of tongue, frog eggs or tapioca pudding

366
Q

neonates and lymphangiomas?

A

4% of black babies, esp boys, have bilateral lymphangiomas on mandibular alveolar ridge

367
Q

leiomyoma locationas

A

most in uterus, GI tract, skin

368
Q

leiomyoma histo types

A

solid, angioleiomyoma, epithelioid leiomyoma (leiomyoblastoma)

369
Q

leiomyoma staining

A

Masson red muscle, SMA+, MSA+

370
Q

rhabdomyoma types and locations

A

adult (pharynx, larynx, FOM, soft palate, base of tongue) and fetal (face, periauricular)

371
Q

adult rhabdomyoma look and location

A

pharynx, larynx, FOM, soft palate, base of tongue; spider-web ~ peripheral vacuoles with filaments

372
Q

fetal rhabdomyoma look and location

A

face, periauricular ~ haphazard spindle cells (muscle looking) in a myxoid stroma

373
Q

rhabdomyoma IHC

A

myoglobin, desmin, MSA, PTAH + (PTAH myofibrils stain purple)

374
Q

PTAH staining

A

purple myofibrils and rhabdomyoma

375
Q

normal tissue in abnormal location

A

choristoma

376
Q

excess tissue in normal location

377
Q

hamartoma vs choristoma

A

hamartoma excess tissue in normal location; choristoma normal tisue in abnormal location

378
Q

osseous and cartilaginous choristoma location gender

A

85% posterior tongue, 70% women

379
Q

ectomesenchymal chondromycoid tumor location, histo, IHC

A

always anterior tongue; well defined multilobulated; spindle to round cells in a myxoid or chondroid background; GFAP+

380
Q

multinucleate cell angiohistiocytoma origin and presentation

A

chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause; multiple firm, red-purple, dome shaped, coalescing/linearly arranged papules on skin of limbs

381
Q

multiple firm, red-purple, dome shaped, coalescing/linearly arranged papules on skin of limbs

A

multinucleate cell angiohistiocytoma, chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause

382
Q

multinucleate cell angiohistiocytoma histo, IHC

A

Histo: proliferation of small blood vessels with unusual dendritic cells and multinucleate cells; IHC endothelial - factor VIII-RA, CD34, CD31; dendritic - factor XIIIa, lysozyme, a1 antichymotrypsin, vimentin, CD68; giant cells - vimentin only

383
Q

fibrosarcoma location and diagnosis

A

diagnosis of exclusion; most in deep soft tissues of lower extremities, especially thigh and knee

384
Q

fibrosarcoma histo

A

herrinbone: fascicles of spindle cells

385
Q

infantile fibrosarcoma aka and age

A

congenital fibrosarcoma, aggressive infantile fibromatosis; congenital or within first year of life

386
Q

infantile fibrosarcoma histo

A

identical to adult but more prominent HPC-like growth

387
Q

infantile fibrosarcoma genetics

A

12 15 translocation –> ETV6-NTRK3 fusion protein

388
Q

12 15 translocation

A

ETV6-NTRK3 fusion protein

secretory Ca

389
Q

ETV6-NTRK3 fusion protein

A

secretory carcinoma, 12 15 translocation

390
Q

dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans genetics

A

translocation 17, 22 (Col11A1-PDGFbeta fusion and increase in PDGFbeta chain)

391
Q

translocation 17, 22

A

dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (Col11A1-PDGFbeta fusion and increase in PDGFbeta chain)

392
Q

Col11A1-PDGFbeta

A

increase in PDGFbeta chain, dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, translocation 17, 22

393
Q

increase in PDGFbeta chain,

A

dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, translocation 17, 22; Col11A1-PDGFbeta fusion

394
Q

dermatofibrosarcoma distribution

A

bathing suit

395
Q

dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans histo and IHC

A

monotonous haphazard storiform arrangement of spindle and stellate cells that infiltrate and entrap adnexa and adipose; low mitoses; IHC: Cd34+, factor XIIIa neg (vs BFH, CD34-, XIIIa+)

396
Q

pigmented dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

A

Bednar’s tumor

397
Q

Bednar’s tumor

A

pigmented dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

398
Q

giant cell fibroblastoma

A

juvenile form of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

399
Q

juvenile form of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

A

giant cell fibroblastoma

400
Q

malignant fibrous histiocytoma age and pattern

A

older patients, storiform pattern

401
Q

most commo soft tissue sarcoma (%, age?)

A

liposarcoma - 20% of all malignancies in adults

402
Q

liposarcoma location

A

most in thigh, retroperitoneum, inguinal

403
Q

liposarcoma types

A

well diff (most common in oral cavity), myxoid/round cell, pleomorphic, dedifferentiated

404
Q

most common liposarcoma in mouth

405
Q

worst prognosis of liposarcoma

A

pleomorphic

406
Q

malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor vs NF1

A

50% of MPNSTs are in NF1 pts; pts with MPNST and NF1 are 10y younget (35 vw 45) and worse prognosis than without NF1

407
Q

MPNST location

A

proximal extremities and trunk

408
Q

MPNST xray

A

widening of MD canal or mental forament

409
Q

malignant triton tumor

A

MPNST + malignant skeletal muscle

410
Q

MPNST + malignant skeletal muscle

A

malignant triton tumor

411
Q

MPNST histo and IHC

A

low-power: distinctive perivascular tumor cells surrounded by necrosis: S100+ in only 50% of caes

412
Q

angiosarcoma location and better prognosis

A

most in scalp and forehear; early lesion resembles a bruise; better prognosis for oral and salivary gland tumors

413
Q

hemangioendothelioma

A

intermedite between hemangioma and angiosarcoma

414
Q

angiosarcoma IHC

A

CD31+, factor VIII+; CD34 less consistnet

415
Q

angiosarcoma environmental risk factors

A

PVC vinyl chloride carcinogen; radiation (increased incidence in women with history of breast cancer

416
Q

stewart-treves syndrome

A

angiosarc with chronic lymphedema

417
Q

angiosarc with chronic lymphedema

A

stewart-treves syndrome

418
Q

kaposi sarcoma types

A

classic, endemic (benign, aggresive, florid, lymphadenopathic), iatrogenic, AIDS related

419
Q

kaposi stages

A

patch, plaque, nodular

420
Q

patch stage of kaposi

A

normal structures admixed with tumor proliferation, promontory sign

421
Q

leiomyosarcoma location

A

most in uterine wall and GI tract

422
Q

epithelioid leiomyosarcoma histo

A

entirely of rounded cells

423
Q

leiomyosarcoma mutation

A

some associated with RBI mutation

424
Q

RBU mutation

A

leiomyosarcoma (some)

425
Q

leiomyosarcoma special stain

A

PAS shows glycogen within the cells; cell cytoplasm red on Masson trichrome; MSA (HHF35), SMA, desmin, H-caldesmon, SMMS (smooth muscle myosin)

426
Q

rhandomyosarcoma frequency

A

60% of soft tissue sarcomas in children

427
Q

types of rhabdomyosarcomas and ages

A

embryonal (NOS, botryoid, spindle) - <10 yo; alveolar (10-25yo), pleomorphic >40yo

428
Q

most common sarcoma in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

429
Q

embryonal rhabdomyosarc histo

A

round, spindle, and strap cells

430
Q

rhabdomyosarcoma location

A

head and neck: face/orbit; and GU tract; oral rhabdomyosarc - palate and maxillary sinus

431
Q

rhabdomyoblasts histo

A

small cells with dark nucleo and depply pink cytoplasm

432
Q

botryoid rhabdomyosarc

A

exophytic polypoid growth in a cavity (mouth, vag(

433
Q

exophytic polypoid rhabdomyosarc in a cavity (mouth, vag)

A

botryoid, type of embryonal

434
Q

cambium layers in rhabdomyosarc

A

zone of increased cellularity just below mucosa in botryoid

435
Q

zone of increased cellularity just below mucosa in botryoid rhabdomyosarc

A

cambium layers

436
Q

alveolar rhabdomyosarc genetics

A

PAX3-FKHR and PAX7-FKHR translocation

437
Q

PAX3-FKHR

A

alveolar rhabdomyosarc

438
Q

PAX7-FKHR

A

alveolar rhabdomyosarc

439
Q

embryonal rhabdomyosarc genetics

440
Q

11p15 LOH

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarc

441
Q

rhabdomyosarc IHC

A

myogenin, myoD1, HHF-35

442
Q

alveolar soft part sarcoma geneics

A

X;17 translocation, ASPL-TFE3 fusion protein

443
Q

ASPL-TFE3 fusion protein

A

alveolar soft part sarcoma, X;17 translocation

444
Q

X;17 translocation

A

alveolar soft part sarcoma, ASPL-TFE3 fusion protein

445
Q

alveolar soft part sarcoma age sex location

A

young patients – orbit and tongue, more females; adults – lower extremities, more males

446
Q

alveolar soft part sarcoma histo and IHC

A

discohesive cells in nests, minimal atypia, vascular inastion; TFE3+ only IHC marker;; CRYSTALS! crystals are PAS+, diastase resistant; latticework pattern on EM

447
Q

crystals in alveolar soft part sarcoma

A

crystals are PAS+, diastase resistant; latticework pattern on EM

448
Q

synovial sarcoma genetics

A

X;18 translocation - SYT gene chr 18 and SSX1/SSX2 on gene X; –> SYT/SSX fusion mRNA can be detected by RT-PCR or FISH

449
Q

X:18 translocation

A

synovial sarcoma; SYT gene chr 18 and SSX1/SSX2 on gene X; –> SYT/SSX fusion mRNA can be detected by RT-PCR or FISH

450
Q

SYT-SSX fusion mRNA

A

X;18 translocation; synovial sarcoma

451
Q

synovial sarcoma location

A

most near large joints and bursae of extremities; head and neck: paravertebral and parapharyngeal mass

452
Q

synovial sarcoma histo and IHC

A

classically biphasic: spindle cells ~ fibrosarcoma + epithelial cells around glandlike spaces or in nests/cords/whorls.
“slit-oma” calcifications in 30%, staghorn vessels;;; CK+, EMA+, CD99+

453
Q

follicular dendritic cell sarcoma origin and location

A

arises from dendritic (antigen-presenting) cells; predilection for LN of neck, axilla, mediastinum

454
Q

follicular dendritic cells histo, IHC

A

syncytial appearing spindly cells in fascicles or whorls; CD21, CD35+

455
Q

ewing sarcoma aka

A

primitive neuroectodermal tumor

456
Q

primitive neuroectodermal tumor aka

A

ewing sarcoma

457
Q

ewing sarcoma demographics and presentation

A

usually whites <20yo, mandible. fever, increased ESR, leukocytosis

458
Q

ewing sarcoma genetics

A

11,22 translocation. MIC2 gene product. CD99+. FISH against translocation more specific

459
Q

11, 22 translocation

A

Ewing sarcoma, MIC2 gene product (CD99+ but FISH against translocation more specific)

460
Q

MIC2 gene product

A

Ewing sarcoma, 11, 22 translocation. (CD99+ but FISH against translocation more specific)

461
Q

periosteal reaction in ewing

A

onionskin – long bones, not common in jaws

462
Q

atypical ewing sarcoma

A

larger cells

463
Q

ewing sarcoma histo

A

small undifferentiated round blue cells, probably neuroectodermal. 75% contain glycogen granules in cytoplasm.

464
Q

ewing sarcoma locations with poorer prognosis

A

pelvic and proximal lesions

465
Q

most common locations for mets to oral soft tissues

A

gingiva ~50% (looks like PG) and tongue 25%

OP - Yield (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions