110414 renal pharm Flashcards

1
Q

high incidence of acute kidney injury occurs in what cases?

A

in pts receiving antibiotics, chemo, or radiocontrast dyes

common complication also of thoracic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mechanism of acute kidney injury

A

arterial occlusion, hypotension, shock

renal ischemia-reperfusion

microvascular dysfxn
excess vasoconstriction
inflam, oxidative stress
endothelial injury
endothelial-leukocyte interactions

mismatch btwn O2 consumption and O2 supply

renal tissue hypoxia

tubular necrosis and apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most common causes of chronic kidney disease

A

diabetic nephropathy

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tx for chronic kidney disease

A

inhibitors of renin angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

effect of renin angiotensin inhibitors in CKD

A

decrease progression of albuminuria
decrease progression of GFR decline
decrease risk of ESRD

the beneficial effects of them are independent of BP and blood glucose control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you want to avoid with tx for CKD?

A

NSAIDs-they damage the kidneys further. may interact with ACEi and ARBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CKD mainly causes hypo or hypercalcemia?

A

hypo, but can have hypo or hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

plasma calcium is regulated by

A

PTH, calcitonin, calcitriol (active vit D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

kidney failure-what happens to phosphate and calcitriol?

A

decreased GFR leads to decreased renal excretion of phosphate and diminished production of calcitriol, both leading to decreased Ca in blood and increased PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what leads to increase in PTH in secondary hyperparathyroidism in kidney disease?

A

decreased production of vit D3 (calcitriol)
decreased serum Ca
increased serum phosphorous

the above 3 are due to decrease in kidney fxn associated w chronic kidney dis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of calcitriol and vit D analogs

A

enhance absorption of Ca and PO4 from intestine (by increasing synthesis of Ca ch and a carrier calcium binding protein)

calcitriol also enhances recruitment and differentiation of osteoclast precursor for remodeling–resorption of Ca and PO4 from bone

also enhances tubular reabsorption of Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

adverse effect of calcitriol and vit D analogs

A

excessive dosing leads to hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

phosphate binders

A

react with phosphate in GI tract and form an insoluble compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when can hypercalcemia occur?

A

with prolonged kidney disease

renal transplant pts can have parathyroid hyperplasia and then, restoration of renal fxn and calcitriol production can lead to hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can be used to treat hypercalcemia?

A

bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

bisphosphonates MOA

A

pyrophosphate analogues that bind to hydroxyapatite crystals in bone matrix to inhibit bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

calcitonin MOA

A

lowers plasma Ca by limiting bone resorption

increases phosphate excretion in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

side effects of calcitonin

A

facial flushing
headache, dizziness
GI
taste disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rasburicase

A

I.V.
recombinant version of enzyme urate oxidase

primarily used as PROPHYLAXIS during chemo (can be used in CKD)

20
Q

calcitonin effect on kidney

A

increases Ca and PO4 excretion

21
Q

PTH effect on kidney

A

increases calcitriol and increases Ca reabsoprtion

22
Q

calcineurin inhibitors ex

A

cyclosporine

tacrolimus

23
Q

MOA of calcineurin inhibitors

A

bind to cytosolic receptor proteins

cyclophilin (cyclosporine)
FKBP12 (tacrolimus)

complex binds to and inhibits action of calcineurin

inhibits transcription of cytokines such as IL-2 that are essential for T cell activation and proliferation

24
Q

cyclosporine

A

binds cyclophilin, calcineurin inhibitor

oral or IV

25
Q

side effects of cyclosporine

A

nephrotoxic

hirsutism

HTN and fluid retention

others

26
Q

drug interactions of cyclosporine

A

nephrotoxic-NSAIDs, aminoglycosides
CYP3A4 inducers
CYP450 inhibitors

27
Q

tacrolimus

A

bind FKBP12, calcineurin inhibitor

oral or IV

doesn’t stimulate TGFbeta (doesn’t have excessive vasoconstriction) like cyclosporine does

28
Q

side effects of tacrolimus

A

pleural and pericardial effusions
cardiomyopathy in children
glucose intolerance

29
Q

monitoring calcineurin inhibitor side effects

A

hepatotoxicity–liver fxn should be monitored regularly

cardiovascular (HTN, hypercholesterolemia)–fewer tacrolimus treated pts need antiHTN meds, and tacrolimus’ effect on lipid levels is less than that seen with cyclosporine

glucose intolerance

neurotoxicity (more often w tacrolimus)

30
Q

calcineurin inhibitor drugs interactions

A

nephrotoxic agents (NSAIDs, some antibiotics)–monitor renal fxn

K sparing diuretics (hyperkalemia has been seen)

antacids (may inhibit absorption of calcineurin inhibitors)

statins (increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, bone marrow suppression)

31
Q

use of calcineurin inhibitors has been more in favor of

A

tacrolimus, b/c of cyclosporine’s side effects

32
Q

sirolimus MOA

A

binds to FKBP12 (different site than tacromlimus). the complex binds and modulates the activity of mTOR. inhibits cytokine/IL2-induced cell cycle progression from G1 to S phase

33
Q

sirolimus route of administration

A

oral

34
Q

sirolimus side effects

A

edema, ascites, tachycardia, HTN
hyperlipidemia
bone marrow suppression
others

drug interactions–drugs that induce cyp3A4, drugs that inhibit CYP450

35
Q

benefits of mTOR inhibitor sirolimus

A

potent prophylaxis against acute cellular rejection

less vasoconstriction (than cyclosporine)

not associated w acute or chronic renal insufficiency (tacrolimus and sirolimus can cause decline in kidney fxn)

36
Q

mycophenolate mofetil

A

competitive, reversible inhibition of IMPDH, a critical rate limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis. lymphocytes are dependent on de novo pathway vs. salavage pathway utilized by other cell types.

inhibits proliferation of B and T lymphocytes

oral or IV

37
Q

side effects of mycophenolate mofetil

A

leucopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia
opportunitistic infec
others

38
Q

azathioprine

A

purine analogue
metabolized in liver to 6-mercaptupurine and then to thiosinosine monophosphate (TIMP)

TMP decreases synthesis of DNA precursors and also incorporates into DNA

more non-specific effects than mycophenolate mofetil

blocks CD28 co stimulation of T cells

oral

39
Q

side effects of azathioprine

A

bone marrow suppression, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

40
Q

comparison of side effects of azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil

A

both need to monitor complete blood counts.

GI side effects are more common in mycophenolate mofetil

41
Q

IL-2 receptor antibodies

A

basiliximab
daclizumab
alemtuzumab

all are antiCD52-IL2 receptor antibodies

42
Q

basiliximab

A

IV

given immediately prior to surgery and 4 days following

43
Q

belatacept

A

IV
fusion protein binds CD80 and CD 86 mkolecules. blocks costimulatory action with CD28 on T cell activation

used for renal transplantation in pts SEROPOSITIVE FOR EBSTEIN BARR VIRUS

44
Q

prednisolone

A

oral

inhibits pro inflammatory transcription factors such as NFkB. other mechanisms too.

45
Q

induction agents ex

A

monoclonal or polycloncal antibodies given IV immediately after surgery

muromonab
antithymocyte globulin
basiliximab
daclizumab
alemtuzumab
FTY720