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preventive medicine > 101 - 200 super exams > Flashcards

101 - 200 super exams Flashcards

1
Q

This is an essential health service that is available, accessible, affordable and community-based:

A. Primary health care
B. Managed care
C. Socialized health care
D. Health insurance based care
E. Personal care

A

A. Primary health care

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2
Q

______________ is essential healthcare, made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community by means acceptable to them through their full participation and of cost affordable by the community and country.

A

Primary health care

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3
Q

The goal of DOH to improve the general health status of the population requires strategies that will:

A. Decrease life expectancy
B. Increase total fertility rate
C. Increase maternal mortality rate
D. Decrease infant mortality rate
E. Increase growth rate

A

D. Decrease infant mortality rate

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4
Q

______________ is the most sensitive indicator/index of assessing the health status in the community.

A

Infant mortality rate

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5
Q

A duly licensed, DOH, and Philhealth accredited health care provider devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the promotion, prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and care of individuals which under the law should comply with the 20% discounted fees for identified services to senior citizens is termed:

A. Health care professional
B. Health care institution
C. Health maintenance organization
D. Community based organization
E. Primary health care provider

A

B. Health care institution

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6
Q

How will public health professionals help in promoting the employment of people with disabilities as dictated in the Philippine Disability Act?

A. Talk with the employers and tell them to prioritise last the psychosocial impact of disabilities on patients
B. Refuse employment of a disabled on the basis of absence of facilities for the disabled
C. Educate the employers on the work abilities of the disabled
D. Consider the idea that disabled individuals cannot work well
E. None of the above

A

C. Educate the employers on the work abilities of the disabled

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7
Q

An investigation in which assignment of patients to study groups is by random allocation:

A. Cohort study
B. Experimental study
C. Case-control study
D. Cross-sectional study
E. All of the above

A

B. Experimental study

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8
Q

Which of the following non-verbal form of communication shows sincerity:

A. Handshake
B. Eye contact
C. Nodding
D. Social distance
E. None of the above

A

B. Eye contact

  • Eye contact indicates sincerity.
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9
Q

Aling Maria a 55 y/o laundry woman complains of knee pain. Which of the following herbal plants would you advise her to use?

A. Sambong
B. Akapulko
C. Ampalaya
D. Niyog-niyogan
E. Yerba buena

A

E. Yerba buena

  • Yerba buena (Mentha cordifolia) is used for gaseous distention and rheumatism.
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10
Q

A family meeting should be done in the following situation:

A. 4 y/o boy with acute nasopharyngitis
B. 20 y/o female on her 2nd pregnancy
C. 12 y/o male with acne vulgaris
D. 65 y/o female who suffered a stroke
E. 30 y/o male for annual physical exam

A

D. 65 y/o female who suffered a stroke

  • A family meeting is done when a family is expected to experience a new debilitating illness or circumstance that will alter the whole family structure and interaction.
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11
Q

The prevalence rate can affect the:

A. Positive predictive value
B. Negative predictive value
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
E. Only A and B

A

A. Positive predictive value

  • Predictive values are dependent on the prevalence of a disease.The higher the prevalence of a disease, the higher the positive predictive value.
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12
Q

A screening test should have a high:

A. Positive predictive value
B. Negative predictive value
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
E. OnlyAandB

A

C. Sensitivity

  • A high sensitivity is desirable for a screening test to rule out. SNOUT= sensitivity rules out. A high specificity is desirable for a confirmatory test to rule in.
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13
Q

A study was done to determine the doctor’s ability to diagnose streptococcal throat infection in 149 patients coming to the clinic. Doctor’s clinical impressions were compared to results of throat cultures for Group A Streptococcus. 37 patients had positive throat cultures, 27 were diagnosed by doctors as having strep throat. 112 patients had negative cultures, and doctors diagnosed 35 of these as having strep throat. What is the sensitivity of the doctor’s clinical impression in this study?

A. 44%
B. 89%
C. 73%
D. 69%
E. 42%

A

A. 44%

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14
Q

What is the PPV in the above case:

A. 44%
B. 89%
C. 73%
D. 69%
E. 42%

A

C. 73%

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15
Q

Which one of the following choices is more useful to a physician in ruling in the disease if the diagnostic test result turns out positive?

A. Positive predictive value
B. Negative predictive value
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
E. OnlyAandB

A

D. Specificity

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16
Q

Which of the following is false:

A. A relative risk reduction of <25% is considered not clinically significant
B. The 95% confidence interval is another approach of determining whether a not statistically significant result in a study is clinically significant
C. The determination of risk reduction rate is a quick and useful measure in deciding whether a statisically significant study is clinically significant
D. None, all are true
E. All of the above

A

D. None, all are true

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17
Q

A child was playing with his pet dog. When his mother came home she saw that the child sustained abrasions on the legs and a small gaping wound. What immunization would you give the child:

A. None, Just wash it with soap and water
B. Give Rabies vaccine only
C. Give Rabies vaccine and Ig
D. Give Ig only
E. None, Just apply garlic on the wound

A

B. Give Rabies vaccine only

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18
Q

A 65 y/o male, smoker is hypertensive with a fasting blood sugar of 220 mg/dl and has a family history of colon cancer. Which of the following recommendations are correct:

A. Colonoscopy every 2 years
B. ECG annually
C. Ultrasonography for abdominal aortic aneurysm every
3 years
D. Total cholesterol and HDL levels initially and monitor accordingly
E. DRE twice a year

A

D. Total cholesterol and HDL levels initially and monitor accordingly

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19
Q

Which of the following diseases employ passive immunization as a major means of prevention :

A. Influenza
B. Rubella
C. Rubeola
D. Hepatitis A
E. Mumps

A

D. Hepatitis A

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20
Q

Which of the following is an effect of Zinc deficiency:

A. Osteoporosis, poor mineralization of bones and teeth
B. Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration
C. Scorbutic rosary, poor wound healing
D. Tendency to dental caries
E. Dwarfism, Hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

A

E. Dwarfism, Hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

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21
Q

How many decibels is permissible for an 8 hour work day:

A. 85-90
B. 90-95
C. 95-100
D. 100-105
E. 105-110

A

A. 85-90

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22
Q

This refers to the ability of an agent to produce serious illness and is measured in terms of fatality:

A. Antigenicity
B. Virulence
C. Pathogenicity
D. Invasiveness
E. Infectivity

A

B. Virulence

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23
Q

The following are live attenuated vaccine except:

A. Rabies vaccine
B. BCG
C. Varicella Vaccine
D. Measles Vaccine
E. OPV

A

A. Rabies vaccine

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24
Q

A 5 month-old infant brought to the barangay health clinic had no previous immunization. The following vaccines should be given except:

A. Measles
B. DPT
C. BCG
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. No exception

A

A. Measles

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25
Q

The most practical way of eradicating rabies in the community is:

A. Impounding all stray dogs
B. Vaccination of all children with rabies vaccine
C. Mass vaccination of all dogs against rabies
D. Keeping the community clean and free of garbage
E. None of the above

A

C. Mass vaccination of all dogs against rabies

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26
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A. EDTA
B. Flumazenil
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
E. Pralidoxime

A

B. Flumazenil

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27
Q

In a study of how different doses of a drug affect the severity of symptoms, a researcher could compare the frequency and intensity of symptoms when different doses are administered. The dose of the drug is the:

A. Dependent variable
B. Independent variable
C. Confounding variable
D. Extraneous variable
E. None of the above

A

B. Independent variable

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28
Q

This study is well-suited in studying rare disorders:

A. Prospective cohort
B. Retrospective cohort
C. Cross-sectional
D. Case Report
E. Case-control

A

E. Case-control

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29
Q

People who drink coffee tend to smoke more, and for this reason coffee drinkers have a higher risk of lung cancer. This is an example of:

A. Effect modification
B. Selection bias
C. Confounding
D. Non-differential misclassification
E. Lead-time bias

A

C. Confounding

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30
Q

Which of the following ways and means is not utilized by the Primary Health Care program in the achievement of their goals?

A. Medical information in promoting health
B. Prevention of disease and health promotion
C. Intersectoral cooperation and participation
D. Basic health infrastructure and facilities within the reach of every Filipino
E. No exception

A

D. Basic health infrastructure and facilities within the reach of every Filipino

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31
Q

Community planning should start with:

A. Formation of objectives
B. Determination of resources
C. Educational analysis
D. Identification of roles and their relationship
E. Working with people

A

A. Formation of objectives

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32
Q

The initial step in planning for the provision of health and medical services for a community is to:

A. Set the objectives
B. Define the health problems
C. Decide on what services to provide
D. Establish the system of delivery
E. Determine the projected budget

A

B. Define the health problems

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33
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a community-based health program?

A. Community organizing is used as a means of changing people’s attitudes thus leading to their full cooperation
B. People become partners in health care
C. Active participation of the community in decision making
D. It is democratic in nature.
E. No exception.

A

A. Community organizing is used as a means of changing people’s attitudes thus leading to their full cooperation

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34
Q

The Republic Act 7875 is also known as the National Health Insurance Act of 1995. This program covers health insurance for:

A. All government employees only
B. All public and private employees
C. Unemployed citizens
D. Indigent patients
E. All Filipino citizens

A

E. All Filipino citizens

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35
Q

A report of a clinical trial of a new drug versus a placebo noted that the new drug has a higher proportion of success than did the placebo. The report ended with statement: chi square=4.2. p=0.5. In light of this information, we may conclude:

A. If the drug were ineffective, the probability of the reported finding is less than 0
B. If the drug were effective, the probability of the reported finding is less than 1
C. Fewer than one in 20 will fail to benefit from the drug
D. Chance that an individual patient will fail to benefit is less than 0.05.
E. None of the above

A

D. Chance that an individual patient will fail to benefit is less than 0.05.

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36
Q

The method of sampling where every nth unit (such as every fifth or 10th member) is selected from a population which is arranged in some definite way is called:

A. Simple random sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Multi-stage sampling
E. Systematic sampling

A

E. Systematic sampling

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37
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents are applied to the eyes of the newborn to prevent:

A. Juvenile cataract
B. Gonorrhea
C. Syphilis
D. Trachoma
E. Tetanus

A

B. Gonorrhea

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38
Q

Tetanus toxoid immunization is effective in protection against infection. After adequate primary immunization, booster doses should be given every:

A. 3 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
E. 2 years

A

C. 10 years

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39
Q

Which of the following substances is usually associated with pneumoconiosis?

A. Oil fumes
B. Dust particles
C. Cigarette smoke
D. Sulfur oxide
E. Heavy metals

A

B. Dust particles

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40
Q

The ability of microorganism causing a common cold in a 5-year old child to invade and multiply in approximately 6 out of 10 household contact is:

A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Antigenicity
D. Incubation
E. Infectivity

A

E. Infectivity

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41
Q

The first step in epidemic investigation is:

A. Formulation of hypothesis
B. Orientation as to time, person, and place
C. Testing of hypothesis
D. Preliminary investigation
E. Case finding

A

D. Preliminary investigation

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42
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A. Occurs when the methods of measurement are dissimilar among groups of patients
B. Occurs when 2 factors are associated and the effect of one is confused with or distorted by the other
C. Comparisons are made between groups of patients that differ in determinants of outcome other than the one under the study
D. The clinician knows that a patient possesses a prognostic factor of presumed importance may carry out more frequent or more detailed searches for relevant prognostic outcomes
E. None of the above

A

C. Comparisons are made between groups of patients that differ in determinants of outcome other than the one under the study

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43
Q

What is an experimental study?

A. A brief report of a characteristic or outcome of a single clinical subject or event
B. Examines the relationship between a disease and a variable of interest
C. Describes the natural history of a disease
D. Provide the best evidence for testing any hypothesis or investigate a cause and effect relationship
E. None of the above

A

D. Provide the best evidence for testing any hypothesis or investigate a cause and effect relationship

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44
Q

A patient was brought to your clinic due to a dog bite, you educate the family that the first thing to do after a dog bite is:

A. Wash with soap and water for 10 minutes
B. Apply alcohol to the bite site
C. Apply garlic or toothpaste to the bite area
D. Induce the wound to bleed
E. None of the above

A

A. Wash with soap and water for 10 minutes

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45
Q

You will complete the 28-30 day regimen of rabies treatment only when:

A. The biting animal showed signs and symptoms of rabies
B. Has died but on autopsy was IFAT (-)
C. The animal was lost
D. The animal died
E. None of the above

A

A. The biting animal showed signs and symptoms of rabies
C. The animal was lost
D. The animal died

  • When the animal shows signs and symptoms of rabies, died or lost, it is recommended to complete the 28-30 day regimen.
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46
Q

You are on duty at the ER when a child came in due to being hit by a fallen roof of their house, the wound on his head was a lacerated wound with some debris on it, you asked his tetanus immunization and said that the child received 3 doses of tetanus vaccine, the last was 3 years ago, what would you give?

A. Toxoid only
B. Antitoxin and toxoid
C. Antitoxin only
D. Give nothing
E. Prescribe antibiotics

A

E. Prescribe antibiotics

Prescribe antibiotics for protection against infection. You may opt to give no tetanus vaccination as the protection by the toxoid is still effective in this patient. You may give a booster dose of toxoid if the last vaccine was more than 5 years from the onset of the injury.

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47
Q

You are implementing a health teaching program in a community, you want to check the level of understanding of the community of your health teachings, in what phase would you do this?

A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
E. None of the above

A

D. Evaluation

Evaluation is used to check how well your participants understood the concepts that you wanted to impart to them.

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48
Q

Among the following interventions for malnutrition, which of the following is least effective in changing the behavior of the community?

A. Teaching them how to utilize their local resources
B. Teaching them about the possible diseases of Vitamin and mineral deficiency
C. Teaching effective and economical cooking practices
D. Teaching them how to plan their meals
E. None of the above

A

B. Teaching them about the possible diseases of Vitamin and mineral deficiency

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49
Q

A patient with diabetes mellitus had a below the knee amputation, at what stage of the illness is she?

A. Pre-clinical
B. Susceptibility
C. Disease outcome
D. Clinical
E. None of the above

A

C. Disease outcome

50
Q

A 3 year old child was living with her grandmother being treated for tuberculosis for 6 months, at what stage is the child?

A. Pre-clinical
B. Susceptibility
C. Disease outcome
D. Clinical
E. None of the above

A

A. Pre-clinical

51
Q

A family has a family member dying of cancer, at what level of prevention is the patient in?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
E. None of the above

A

C. Tertiary

52
Q

In an evacuation center in Tacloban, 5350 children were registered, over a 2 month period, 2500 of them got sick, the top 3 causes of morbidity are as follows: 1. AGE - 550, 2. pneumonia - 250, 3. measles - 150, the top 3 causes of mortality are as follows: 1. pneumonia - 10, 2. measles - 9, 3. AGE - 7. What is the morbidity rate?

A. 488 per 1000 population
B. 467 per 1000 population
C. 590 per 1000 population
D. 650 per 1000 population
E. 780 per 1000 population

A

B. 467 per 1000 population

53
Q

Same case as #231, what is the incidence of gastroenteritis?

A. 10 per 100 population
B. 11 per 100 population
C. 12 per 100 population
D. 13 per 100 population
E. 14 per 100 population

A

A. 10 per 100 population

54
Q

Same case as #231. What is the cause specific mortality rate for pneumonia?

A. 2 per 1000 population
B. 3 per 1000 population
C. 5 per 1000 population
D. 7 per 1000 population
E. 10 per 1000 population

A

A. 2 per 1000 population

55
Q

If a drug that extends the life of a patient but it doesn’t cure or prevent the disease, what happens to the indices?

A. Incidence increases
B. Incidence decreases
C. Prevalence increases
D. Prevalence decreases
E. None of the above

A

C. Prevalence increases

56
Q

Mycobacterium bovis is a weakened, non-pathogenic form of the bacterium that causes tuberculosis. Upon injection, macrophages engulf and destroy them and use the resulting debris to prime the acquired immune system. The macrophages would display the pieces of digested bacteria on their:

A. MHC I proteins
B. MHC II proteins
C. MHC III proteins
D. Antigen receptors
E. Cell membrane

A

B. MHC II proteins

57
Q

The primary function of the spleen is

A. Filtering of damaged and old erythrocytes from the bloodstream
B. Storage of platelets and granulocytes
C. Blood pressure and volume regulation
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

D. A and B

58
Q

Diseases like cholera, typhoid fever and bacillary dysentery are examples of

A. Water washed diseases
B. Water based diseases
C. Water borne diseases
D. Water related vector diseases
E. None of the above

A

C. Water borne diseases

59
Q

Diseases caused by lack of water (e.g. Scabies, lice)

A

Water washed diseases

60
Q

Diseases where the offending agent use water as a medium of infecting man (E.g Schistosomiasis, Threadworm)

A

Water based diseases

61
Q

Diseases transmitted by water (e.g cholera, typhoid fever, dysentery)

A

Water borne diseases

62
Q

Diseases in which the vectors have a part of their life cycle in water (e.g Mosquito borne diseases like malaria, dengue, yellow fever, filariasis)

A

Water related vector diseases

63
Q

It is a herbal plant used in lowering serum uric acid levels:

A. Allium sativum
B. Cassia alata
C. Mentha cordifelia
D. Blumea balsamifera
E. Peperonia pellucida

A

E. Peperonia pellucida (ulasimang bato)

64
Q

Which of the following is involved in natural passive immunity

A. Injection of human antibodies into an individual
B. Vaccination
C. Injection of horse antibodies into an individual
D. Excretion of antibodies into breast milk
E. Producing memory cells in response to infection with a live virus

A

D. Excretion of antibodies into breast milk

65
Q

What is the denominator for the incidence rate?

A. Person-years of observation
B. Midyear population
C. Total population at that time
D. Total population at an interval in time
E. None of the above

A

A. Person-years of observation

66
Q

IO came in at your clinic due fever. He told you that he was exposed to his sneezing officemate and the symptoms started as a colds. The time interval between his exposure and the onset of colds is:

A. Communicable period
B. Incubation period
C. preinfectious period
D. contagious period
E. decubation period

A

B. Incubation period

67
Q

_______________ is the time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset of symptoms

A

Incubation period

68
Q

A vaccine was able to induce production of specific antibodies as protection for a certain disease. This property is called:

A. immunogenicity
B. pathogenicity
C. virulence
D. contagiousness
E. Efficience

A

A. immunogenicity

69
Q

The capacity of a microbe to cause a symptomatic illness in an infected host is ______.

A. immunogenicity
B. virulence
C. pathogenicity
D. contagiousness
E. Infective ability

A

C. pathogenicity

70
Q

This is usually measured by the number of severe or fatal cases over the number total number of people who had the disease.

A. immunogenicity
B. Pathogenicity
C. Congiousness
D. Fatality factor
E. Virulence

A

E. Virulence

71
Q

It describes the ability of the microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons:

A. immunogenicity
B. pathogenicity
C. virulence
D. contagiousness
E. None of the above

A

D. contagiousness

72
Q

Which of the following herbal medicinal plants has an anithelmintic property?

A. Akapulko
B. Ampalaya
C. Tsaang gubat
D. bayabas
E. Niyog-niyogan

A

E. Niyog-niyogan

73
Q

_______ is usually for fungal infections and scabies.

A

Akapulko

  • Ampalaya is for diabetes. Tsaang gubat is for abdominal pain. Bayabas has many uses like in dizziness, infections and inflammatory conditions.
74
Q

In a barrio where you are practicing, a teenager consulted your for enlarging slightly raised hypopigmented lesions on his back associated with itching. Since you are in a far barrio and your patient cannot afford to go town and buy an ointment, which of the following can you give as a treatment aside from educating him for proper hygiene?

A. ampalaya
B. bawang
C. akapulko
D. yerba buena
E. lagundi

A

C. akapulko

75
Q

The National Health Insurance Act of 1995 or the Act instituting a national health insurance program for all Filipinos and establishing the Philipping Health Insurance Corporation for the pupose was approved by Pres Fidel Ramos last February 14, 1995. This Act is also known as:

A. RA 7432
B. RA 7305
C. RA 7875
D. RA 6675
E. RA 9257

A

C. RA 7875

76
Q

__________ is the senior citizen act of 1992

A

RA 7432

77
Q

__________ is the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers.

A

RA 7305

78
Q

__________ is the generics act of 1988.

A

RA 6675

79
Q

__________ is the expanded senior citizens act of 2003.

A

RA 9257

80
Q

Which among the following causes of death is written on the Death Certificate and the one counted in mortality rate?

A. Underlying
B. Antecedent
C. Immediate
D. Incidental
E. None of the above

A

A. Underlying

81
Q

Bacillus Calmette-Guerin or BCG is prepared using ____________ bacteria that have lost their virulence in human.

A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. bovis
C. M. avium
D. M. gordonae
E. M. leprae

A

B. M. bovis

  • they use M bovis that is usually cultured in Middlebrook 7H9.
82
Q

Which of the following vaccines have both live and killed preparations?

A. rabies
B. tetanus
C. measles
D. polio
E. Varicella

A

D. Polio

83
Q

_______ is the killed preparation while ______ is live preparation.

A

Salk and Sabin

84
Q

A painter came in to your clinic for consult. His symptoms were consistent of Plumbism or lead poisoning. Which of the following can you give as treatment.

A. dimercaprol
B. NAC
C. penicillamine
D. Calcium gluconate
E. EDTA

A

E. EDTA

85
Q

This measure is the number of true positives divided by number of people who tested positive for the disease. This is usually interpreted as the probability of having a condition given a positive test.

A. sensitivity
B. specificity
C. positive predictive value
D. negative predictive value
E. reliability

A

C. positive predictive value

86
Q

__________ is labeling positive those who really have the disease.

A

Sensitivity

87
Q

___________ is labeling negative those who do not have the disease.

A

Specificity

88
Q

_____________ is the probability of not having the condition given a negative test.

A

Negative predictive value

89
Q

Dr. LFD, was tasked to do a probability sampling. He listed all the names of the members of the population and arranged it alphabetically. He then picked every 6th name on the list and made them the sample of the study. The sampling design is called:

A. Simple random sampling
B. systematic sampling
C. cluster sampling
D. multistage sampling
E. none of the above

A

B. systematic sampling

  • systematic sampling design is choosing every kth element of the population
90
Q

In a normal distribution of 100 samples, how many of the samples fall within 1 standard deviation of the mean?

A. 43%
B. 55%
C. 68%
D. 95%
E. 99.7%

A

C. 68%

91
Q

A resident has a research comparing the samples who receive and did not receive a rotavirus vaccine as to the severity of their diarrhea. Which statistical test will be most appropriate for him use?

A. Chi square
B. T test
C. Z test
D. ANOVA
E. regression analysis

A

A. Chi square

92
Q

Leo and Antonio consulted you for dog bite. They were bitten by their pet dog who just given birth to 3 puppies. According to them, their dog is yearly vaccinated with rabies vaccination. Leo suffered from a tiny abrassion on his left arm but did not bleed spontaneously so he just induced bleeding by pressing it. On the other hand, Antonio suffered from minor scratches at the back of his neck but no spontaneous bleeding and induction of bleeding was not done. Leo’s rabies exposure falls under what category?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

A

B. II

93
Q

As for post exposure prophylaxis for rabies, which of the following should be given to Leo in addition to wound cleaning?

A. None. Wound cleaning is the only necessary measure
B. Active vacccine
C. Passive vaccine IM route
D. Active and passive vaccines
E. passive vaccine on the wound

A

B. Active vacccine

94
Q

Antonio’s rabies exposure falls under what category?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

A

C. III

  • abrasions and scratches with no spontaneous bleeding and including those induced are classified as category II except if it is located on the head or neck which is categorized as III.
95
Q

As for post exposure prophylaxis for rabies, which of the following should be given to Antonio in addition to wound cleaning?

A. None. Wound cleaning is the only necessary measure
B. Active vacccine
C. Passive vaccine IM route
D. Active and passive vaccine
E. passive vaccine on the wound

A

D. Active and passive vaccine

  • active and passive vaccines are given for category III. The passive vaccine is given as wound infiltration and if there are still few left after in the computed amount of passive vaccine after completed wound infiltration, the remaining must be given through deep IM.
96
Q

In a study of the cause of lung cancer, patients who had the disease were matched with controls by age, sex, place of residence and social class. The frequency of cigarette smoking was then compared in the two groups. What type of study was this?

A. Cohort (prospective)
B. Historical cohort
C. Clinical trial
D. Case control
E. None of the above

A

D. Case control

97
Q

As an epidemiological investigation officer for CDC, you are contacted by a local health department. They inform you that a large number of people have acquired mild symptoms of influenza despite being vaccinated for the appropriate strain being cultured. You find that the cultured strain is the same as that incorporated into the trivalent vaccine administered throughout the world. You also note that the strain had a high case fatality rate in previous epidemics in China, where most new strains are isolated and identified for vaccine preparations. The most likely explanation for the outbreak noted by the local health department is:

A. vaccine failure
B. antigenic drift
C. antigenic shift
D. herd immunity
E. incomplete immunity from previous rhinovirus
infections

A

B. antigenic drift

98
Q

Reasons to treat gonorrhea with tetracycline rather with other susceptible drugs include:

A. Lower frequency of side effects
B. Better coverage of Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Greater safety in case of pregnancy
D. Enhanced compliance
E. All of the above

A

B. Better coverage of Chlamydia trachomatis

99
Q

About 1 % of boys are born with undescended testes. To determine whether prenatal exposure to tobacco smoke is a cause of undescended testes in newborns, the mothers of 100 newborns with undescended testes and 100 newborns whose testes had descended were questioned about smoking habits during pregnancy. The study revealed an odds ratio of 2.6 associated with exposure to smoke, with 95% confidence intervals from 1.1 to 5.3. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The results provide no evidence that maternal cigarette smoking is associated with undescended testes in offspring
B. If the study results are accurate, they suggest that a baby boy whose mother smoked is about 2.6 times as likely to be born with testes undescended as a baby boy whose mother did not smoke
C. The fact that the confidence interval excludes 1.0 indicates that p>0.05
D. The 90% confidence interval for these results would probably include 1.0
E. None of the above

A

B. If the study results are accurate, they suggest that a baby boy whose mother smoked is about 2.6 times as likely to be born with testes undescended as a baby boy whose mother did not smoke

100
Q

Exposure to benzene has been associated with all of the following diseases except:

A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Acute nonlymphocytic leukemia
D. Testicular atrophy
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

A. Bronchogenic carcinoma

101
Q

In a health officer’s point of view, what are the implications a low Infant Mortality Rate?

A. Adequate immunization program
B. Satisfactory pre and post-natal services
C. Young population
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

102
Q

Implications of low IMR in a Health Officer’s point of view:

A
  1. adequate immunization program
  2. sound infant and maternal nutrition
  3. satisfactory pre and post-natal services
  4. good disease control program
  5. strict laws governing the administration of health programs
103
Q

High IMR signifies:

A
  1. high incidence of communicable disease
  2. poor state of sanitation
  3. inadequate health facilities
  4. shorter life expectancy and
  5. young population
104
Q

Which of the following is true if the distribution curve is negatively skewed?

A. Median is greater than the mode
B. Mean is greater than the mode
C. Mode is greater than the mean
D. Mean is greater than the median
E. Mean, median, mode are equal

A

C. Mode is greater than the mean

  • Negatively skewed means that the distribution curve is shifted to the left. Mode>median>mean.
105
Q

It is defined as the capacity of an agent to induce disease which is clinically apparent in an infected host:

A. Infectivity
B. Pathogenicity
C. Virulence
D. Antigenicity
E. Immunogenicity

A

B. Pathogenicity

106
Q

At what age is it recommended to start screening for diabetes in an asymptomatic patient with no risk factors?

A. >45
B. >35
C. >40
D. >55
E. >25

A

A. >45

107
Q

This herbal medicinal plant is used for ascariasis:

A. akapulko
B. tsaang gubat
C. ulasimang bato
D. yerba buena
E. niyog-niyogan

A

E. Niyog-niyogan

108
Q

This type of infection is classified as a water-based disease?

A. Cholera
B. scabies
C. Malaria
D. Heavy metal poisoning
E. Leptospirosis

A

E. Leptospirosis

109
Q

Cholera, giardia, heavy metals, nitrates and dental fluorosis

A

Water-borne

110
Q

Scabies, typhus, lice

A

Water-washed

111
Q

Schistosomiasis, leptospirosis

A

Water-based

112
Q

Dengue, malaria, filaria

A

Water-related

113
Q

In comparing difference between two means, p-value is found to be 0.60. The correct interpretation of this result is:

A. The null hypothesis is rejected
B. The difference is compatible with the null hypothesis
C. The difference occured by chance
D. The difference is statistically significant
E. Sampling variation is an unlikely explanation of the difference

A

B. The difference is compatible with the null hypothesis

114
Q

Screening for hypertension is what level of prevention?

A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D. A and B

115
Q

The population of Sin City is 60 000 last July 2014. In the same year, there were 800 births and 580 deaths. Of the 580 deaths, 280 were due to cardiovascular diseases, 150 were caused by cancer, 90 from infectious diseases and the others are caused by accidents. There were 2700 people diagnosed with cardiovascular disease. What is the crude birth rate?

A. 13/1000
B. 14/1000
C. 15/1000
D. 16/1000
E. 17/1000

A

A. 13/1000

116
Q

What is the cause of death rate of accidents in number 234?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
E. 500

A

A. 100

117
Q

What is the case fatality rate of cardiovascular diseases in number 234?

A. 13
B. 12
C. 11
D. 10
E. 9

A

D. 10

118
Q

Patient came in with chief complaint of fever of 3 days associated with myalgia, vomiting and headache. CBC revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. NS1 antigen test is postive. Patient cannot tolerate oral fluids, hence admitted. What IV fluid is appropriate for this case?

A. PLR
B. D5W
C. 0.45 NaCl
D. D5 0.9 NaCl
E. PNSS

A

D. D5 0.9 NaCl

  • D5LRS, acetated ringer’s, D5NSS or D5 0.9NaCl are appropriate for dengue patients without warning signs who are admitted but without shock
119
Q

What is the recommended post-exposure prophylaxis for leptospirosis in individuals with high risk exposure?

A. Doxycycline 200mg single dose within 24-72 hours from exposure
B. Doxycycline 200mg once weekly until the end of exposure
C. Doxycycline 200mg once daily for 3-5 days to be started immediately within 24-72 hours from exposure D. Doxycycline 200mg once daily until the end of exposure
E. Doxycycline 100mg once daily for 3-5 days to be started immediately within 24-72 hours from exposure

A

B. Doxycycline 200mg once weekly until the end of exposure

120
Q

A 10 year old boy with sickle cell disease presents with headache, anorexia and fever. He complains of pain in the right tibia and local inflammation is noted. Osteomyelitis is diagnosed. The most likely etiologic agent is:

A. Listeria
B. Shigella
C. Salmonella
D. Cryptosporidium
E. Campylobacter

A

C. Salmonella

121
Q

Frank and Jel are married for 2 years. They are living in their new home in Manila. Jel is now 5 months pregnant. They are now in what stage of family life cycle?

A. Newly married couple
B. Unattached young adult
C. Family with young children
D. Family with adolescents
E. Launching family

A

C. Family with young children

preventive medicine (10 decks)

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