1-100 super exams Flashcards

1
Q

Mang Jose lost his vision because of bilateral retinal detachment. Fortunately, his building’s elevator has Braille on the elevator keys so he has no problem getting around. Mang Jose has:

A. Impairment
B. Disability
C. Handicap
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

D. A and B

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2
Q

Loss of psychological, physiologic or anatomic function

A

Impairment

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3
Q

Lack of ability to perform certain activities which is considered normally possible for a human being

A

Disability

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4
Q

Inability to perform a role in the context of society

A

Handicap

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5
Q

Patient undergoes a screening test and a tumor was discovered. The screening advanced the time of diagnosis but no true prolongation of life occurs because there are no effective treatments available. What form of bias is this?

A. Length bias
B. Lead time bias
C. Information bias
D. Recall bias
E. Selection bias

A

B. Lead time bias

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6
Q

Window period between the time the cancer can be detected and the time it will become clinically apparent is short. Screening tests are more effective in slowly growing tumors.

A

Length bias

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7
Q

Screening advances time of diagnosis but no true prolongation of life occurs because survival for persons who are screened and those who are not is the same

A

Lead time bias

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8
Q

Systemic difference in the way data are collected from exposure or the outcome

A

Information bias

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9
Q

One form of information bias and refers to what one may remember from exposure

A

Recall bias

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10
Q

Inclusion of a subject in a study group is linked to the exposure of interest

A

Selection bias

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11
Q

The country of birth is an example of what measurement scale?

A. Dichotomous
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Interval
E. Ratio

A

B. Nominal

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12
Q

Only 2 possible values (male/female, dead/alive, cured/not cured)

A

Dichotomous

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13
Q

More than 2 possible values but no intrinsic ordering

A

Nominal variable

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14
Q

Intrinsically ordered but not in a quantitative way (good-better-best, always-sometimes-never)

A

Ordinal variable

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15
Q

Real numerical units but without a clear zero point (temperature, year of birth)

A

Interval

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16
Q

Measurements in relation to a clear zero point (age, metric system)

A

Ratio

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17
Q

Screening for hypertension is an example of which level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primary and Secondary
E. Primary and Tertiary

A

D. Primary and Secondary

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18
Q

Before disease occurs

A

Primary

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19
Q

Before symptoms occur but already with disease

A

Secondary

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20
Q

Symptoms and disease already occured

A

Tertiary

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21
Q

A researcher is conducting a study on the effects of exposure to arsenic and the development of skin cancer. He takes a group of patients with disease and compares them with case matched patients without the disease. The frequency of arsenic exposure is compared between the 2. Which of the following type of study is this?

A. Ecologic study
B. Cross sectional study
C. Case control study
D. Prospective Cohort
E. Retrospective Cohort

A

C. Case control study

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22
Q

Subjects are initially divided according to presence or absence of disease. Outcome is analyzed first, then from there exposure is determined.

A

Case control

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23
Q

Subjects are initially divided according to presence or absence of exposure. Exposure is analyzed first, then from there outcome is determined.

A

Cohort

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24
Q

If the outcome has not yet occurred, it’s a _______________ (but exposure definitely has occurred already cause remember that’s how you are gonna group the patients).

A

prospective cohort

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25
Q

If the outcome and exposure both have already occurred, then it’s a _________________.

A

retrospective cohort.

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26
Q

This is an example of a sampling design wherein every kth element of the population is chosen.

A. Simple random sampling
B. Systematic sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Multistage sampling
E. Stratified sampling

A

B. Systematic sampling

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27
Q

Each individual has an equal chance of being selected

A

Simple random sampling

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28
Q

Population is first divided into sampling units called clusters and each element found in the chosen clusters is included in the study

A

Cluster sampling

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29
Q

Individuals are divided into subgroups on the basis of specified characteristics and then random samples are selected from each subgroup

A

Stratified sampling

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30
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to analyze data comparing the prevalence of malnutrition between exclusively breastfed and nonbreastfed infants?

A. Chi square test
B. Student T test
C. Z test
D. Paired T test
E. ANOVA

A

A. Chi square test

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31
Q

Quali - quali

A

Chi- square test

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32
Q

<30 population

A

T-test

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33
Q

> 30 population

A

Z-test

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34
Q

3 or more groups are being compared

A

ANOVA

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35
Q

for comparing paired nonindependent measurements

A

Paired test

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36
Q

The incidence rate of cirrhosis is 80/100,000 person years for heavy alcoholic beverage drinkers and 10/100,000 for non alcoholic beverage drinkers. What is the relative risk of developing cirrhosis for heavy alcoholic beverage drinkers and nonalcoholic beverage drinkers?

A. 1/8
B. 0.8
C.8
D. 80
E. 800

A

C.8

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37
Q

_____________ is the incidence among the exposed divided by incidence among the unexposed.

A

Relative risk

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38
Q

A researcher wishes to test his new rapid test kit to diagnose malaria. He performs this test on 100 patients known to have malaria, 91 of which test positive. He then performs this test on 100 patients known not to have malaria, 12 of whom tests positive. What is the ability of the test to label negative those who do not have the disease?

A. 12%
B. 88%
C. 90%
D. 91%
E. 98%

A

B. 88%

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39
Q

Ability of a test to label positive those who really have the disease

A

Sensitivity

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40
Q

Ability of the test to label negative those who do not have the disease

A

Specificity

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41
Q

Probability of having the condition given a positive result

A

Positive predictive value

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42
Q

Probability of having the condition given a negative result

A

Negative predictive value

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43
Q

An epidemiologist wishes to determine how fast people are added to the population through births. Which formula should be used?

A. Number of live births in a year/population during July 1
B. Number of live births in a year/population during August 1
C. Number of live births during July 1/population during July 1
D. Number of live births during August 1/population during August 1
E. Number of live births in a year/population during the end of the year

A

A. Number of live births in a year/population during July 1

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44
Q

Number of registered live births in a year/midyear population

A

Crude birth rate

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45
Q

Which of the following is a sensitive indicator of the standard of health care by analyzing the number of deaths over 50 years old?

A. Child mortality rate
B. Age specific proportionate mortality
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Dependency ratio
E. Swaroop’s index

A

E. Swaroop’s index

  • Swaroop’s index = number of deaths among >50yrs old/total deaths in a year. Higher value = better. Swaroop’s index tends to be higher in developed countries than developing ones.
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46
Q

This phase of communicable illness occurs in the environment. It is the preliminary interaction of potential agent, host and environmental factors in disease production.

A. Incubation period
B. Generation period
C. Prepathogenic phase
D. Pathogenic phase
E. Resolution phase

A

C. Prepathogenic phase

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47
Q

Infection to signs and symptoms

A

Incubation period

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48
Q

Infection to maximal communicability of that host

A

Generation time

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49
Q

Course of disorder in man

A

Pathogenic phase

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50
Q

The resistance of a group to invasion and spread of an infectious agent based on the immunity of a high proportion of individual members of the group, believed to be an important factor underlying the dynamics of propagated epidemic and periodicity of a disease is:

A. Environment
B. Antigenicity
C. Herd immunity
D. Virulence
E. Pathogenicity

A

C. Herd immunity

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51
Q

Which of the following family assessment tools is used to assess the capacity of the family to participate in provision of health care or to cope with crisis?

A. Triangulation
B. APGAR
C. SCREEM
D. Functional chart
E. Family Genogram

A

C. SCREEM

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52
Q

This stage of the family life cycle wherein there is increasing flexibility to boundaries to include children and INDEPENDENCE. There is refocus on midlife, MARITAL AND CAREER ISSUES as well as beginning shift towards concern for older generations.

A. Unattached young adult
B. Newly married couple
C. Family with adolescents
D. Launching family
E. Family in later life

A

C. Family with adolescents

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53
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Primary Health Care?

A. Goal is development of preventive health care
B. Focus of care is the well and early sick
C. Decision making is from top to down
D. Acceptance of indigenous practitioners
E. Self reliance of the community

A

C. Decision making is from top to down

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54
Q

Which of the following Philippine Herbal Medicinal Plants is recommended for Diabetes?

A. Lagundi
B. Niyognyogan
C. Sambong
D. Ampalaya
E. Bawang

A

D. Ampalaya

> Lagundi – Cough, asthma
Niyognyogan - ascariasis
Sambong - urolithiasis
Ampalaya – Antidiabetes
Bawang – lowers cholesterol, athletes foot

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55
Q

A 4 year old female patient comes to you because the pet dog licked her hand. PE revealed no break in the skin. What is the appropriate management?

A. Wash exposed skin with soap and water
B. Vaccine
C. RIG
D.A+B
E. All of the above

A

A. Wash exposed skin with soap and water

  • Cat 1 – intact skin – no vaccine or RIG needed
  • Cat 2 – break in skin but no bleeding – vaccine
  • Cat 3 – bleeding or wound located in head and neck – vaccine
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56
Q

Which of the following is an example of specific protection?

A. Immunization against poliomyelitis
B. Ear protecting devices in loud working environments
C. Hold an education program on nutrition for children for mothers in a community with children aged 1-5 y/o
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

D. A and B

  • Specific prevention is a form of primary prevention targeted at a specific disease or type of injury. Examples include immunization against specific disease, use of seatbelts to prevent injuries in automobile accidents, treatment of hypertension to prevent end organ damage.
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57
Q

Which of the following is the millennium development goal aimed at combating HIV/AIDs, malaria, and other diseases?

A. MDG4
B. MDG5
C. MDG6
D. MDG7
E. MDG8

A

C. MDG6

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58
Q

To kill extreme poverty and hunger

A

MDG1

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59
Q

To achieve universal primary education

A

MDG2

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60
Q

To promote gender equality

A

MDG3

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61
Q

To reduce child mortality

A

MDG4

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62
Q

To improve maternal health

A

MDG5

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63
Q

To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases

A

MDG6

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64
Q

To ensure environmental sustainability

A

MDG7

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65
Q

To develop a global partnership for development

A

MDG8

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66
Q

You are reading a study that compares cholesterol levels in children whose fathers died from a myocardial infarction with cholesterol levels in children whose fathers died from other causes. The p value obtained in the test was <0.001. What does this value indicate?

a. There was no difference in cholesterol levels between the two groups
b. The difference in the cholesterol levels was less than 0.1%
c. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study were incorrect
d. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study occurred because of a sampling error
e. If the null hypothesis is true, there is a less than 0.1% probability of obtaining a test statistic equal to or more extreme than the one obtained

A

c. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study were incorrect

  • The p value for any hypothesis test is the level at which we would be indifferent between accepting orrejecting the null hypothesis given the sample data at hand. It can also be thought of as the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the actual test statistic obtained, given that the null hypothesis is true. It does not reflect the absolute difference in the data between groups, and does not reflect the correctness of the data in the sample.
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67
Q

Stage in the Family life cycle which begins with the birth of the couples first child?

A. The Unattached Young Adult
B. Newly Married Couple
C. Family with Young Children
D. Launching Family
E. Family in Later Life

A

C. Family with Young Children

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68
Q

You are caring for a 24-year-old generally healthy woman. She is sexually active and currently in a monogamous relationship, using oral contraceptives. You recently completed her annual examination. Her Pap smear reports “atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance.” Human papillomavirus testing was positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A. Repeat the Pap smear immediately
B. Repeat the Pap smear in 4–6 months
C. Repeat the Pap smear in 1 year
D. Perform colposcopy
E. Treat the patient with imiquimod and repeat the Pap smear after the treatment is complete.

A

D. Perform colposcopy

  • When the results of a Pap smear are reported as ASCUS, and HPV testing on the sample is positive, the physician should proceed to colposcopy. Colposcopy involves cervical examination under stereoscopic magnification and includes biopsy of abnormal appearing areas, and is the definitive test for assessing Pap smear abnormalities. Imiquimod is an immune modulator and can treat warts, but is not indicated in this case.
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69
Q

You and your friends have just measured the heights of your dogs. You came up with the following measurements: 600mm, 470mm, 170mm, 430mm and 300mm. What is the standard error?

A. 164
B. 27,130
C. 394
D. 73.66
E. 32.8

A

D. 73.66

  • FORMULA FOR STANDARD ERROR: Standard deviation/square root of sample size.
    *LONG METHOD OF CALCULATING STANDARD ERROR
    Step 1: Calculate the mean (Total of all samples divided by the number of samples).
    Step 2: Calculate each measurement’s deviation from the mean (Mean minus the individual measurement).
    Step 3: Square each deviation from mean. Squared negatives become positive.
    Step 4: Sum the squared deviations (Add up the numbers from step 3).
    Step 5: Divide that sum from step 4 by one less than the sample size (n-1, that is, the number of measurements minus one)
    Step 6: Take the square root of the number in step 5. That gives you the “standard deviation (S.D.).”
    Step 7: Divide the standard deviation by the square root of the sample size (n). That gives you the “standard error”.
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70
Q

An infant born to a Hepatitis B infected mother should get HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin) and vaccine within how many hours after birth?

A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 48
E. 72

A

A. 12

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71
Q

The Family APGAR assesses the following aspects except?

A. Adaptation
B. Partnership
C. Growth
D. Affection
E. Resilience

A

E. Resilience

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72
Q

You are determining whether or not to use a rapid streptococcal antigen test to screen for streptococcal pharyngitis. You find that that 2% of people with strep throat actually test negative using this test. Of the following, which statement best describes this situation?

A. The sensitivity of the test is 2%
B. The specificity of the test is 98%
C. The test has a 2% false negative rate
D. The test has a 2% false positive rate
E. The test has a positive predictive value of 98%

A

C. The test has a 2% false negative rate

A false negative is defined as a person who tests negative, but who is actually positive. In the above example, 2% of the positive people test negative. Therefore, the false negative rate is 2% in this case. Sensitivity is defined as the probability that the test would be positive, given that the person has strep throat. The specificity is the probability that the test would be negative if the person does not have strep. The false positive rate is defined as the percent of people who test positive, but are actually negative. The positive predictive value is the probability that a person has an illness, given that the test is positive.

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73
Q

You are caring for an 18-year-old man with asthma. He smokes, and reports needing to use his short-acting bronchodilator daily. He gets flares of asthma at least twice a week, and while some days are relatively symptom free, some exacerbations may last several days. He wakes up at least once a week with symptoms. Which of the following classifications best characterizes his asthma?

A. Mild intermittent
B. Moderate intermittent
C. Mild persistent
D. Moderate persistent
E. Severe persistent

A

D. Moderate persistent

*The patient described in this question fits the “moderate persistent” classification, characterized by daily symptoms and use of short-acting inhaler, with exacerbations that affect activity and may last for days. Nighttime symptoms occur at least weekly.

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74
Q

The following is true of the tip of the iceberg phenomenon of disease except:

A. The submerged portion of the iceberg represents carriers and undiagnosed cases.
B. The floating tip represents what the physician sees in his practice/chamber/hospital.
C. The floating tip includes deaths, clinical cases, symptomatic patients and subclinical cases.
D. The unseen part of an iceberg is much larger than the part that is visible above the water.
E. The pattern of disease encountered in a hospital is quite different from that in a community.

A

C. The floating tip includes deaths, clinical cases, symptomatic patients and subclinical cases.

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75
Q

Improving maternal health pertains to Millenium Development goal number:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

A

D. 5

76
Q

You are caring for a 35-year-old man in the hospital, admitted with pneumonia. On day 2 of his hospitalization, he becomes diaphoretic, restless, and irritable. Within hours, he is complaining of severe pain, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. Which of the following would likely be present in his urine toxicology screen?

a. Cocaine
b. Marijuana
c. Opiates
d. 3,4-Methylenedioxymethampheatmine (MDMA or ecstasy)
e. Benzodiazepines

A

c. Opiates

  • Opiate withdrawal is well-characterized, and although not life-threatening in otherwise healthy adults, can cause severe discomfort. Symptoms from a short-acting drug like heroin can occur within just a few hours. Withdrawal from longer acting opiates may not cause symptoms for days. Early symptoms include lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, and diaphoresis. Restlessness and irritability occur later, with bone pain, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and mood lability occurring even later.
77
Q

You are reading a medical journal and come across an article about diabetes. The study followed 10,000 patients over 3 years. At the start of the study, 2000 people had diabetes. At the end of the study, 1000 additional people developed diabetes. What was the incidence of diabetes during the study?

a. 10%
b. 12.5%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. 50%

A

b. 12.5%

78
Q

Treatment outcome for PTB patients characterized as a smear positive patient who has underwent 6 months of DOTS but without proof of cure?

A. Cured
B. Relapse
C. Treatment completed
D. Failure of treatment
E. Default

A

C. Treatment completed

79
Q

Selective Primary Health Care was introduced as a strategy:

A. Bellagio Conference
B. Alma Ata Declaration
C. Brahimi Report
D. Clinton Accord
E. Millenium Summit

A

A. Bellagio Conference

80
Q

What do you call the time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset of symptoms?

A. Incubation period
B. Communicable period
C. Preinfectious period
D. Noncontagious period
E. Decubation period

A

A. Incubation period

81
Q

If you wanted to know whether board exam scores of students who enrolled in Topnotch are significantly higher than those who enrolled in another review school, which statistical test would be most appropriate?

A. Pearson correlation
B. Chi-square test
C. One way ANOVA
D. Student’s t-test
E. Matched pairs t-test

A

D. Student’s t-test

82
Q

Which of the following herbal medicines recommended by the DOH is an antihelminthic agent?

A. Akapulko
B. Bayabas
C. Yerba buena
D. Ulasimang bato
E. Niyog-niyogan

A

E. Niyog-niyogan

83
Q

Bysinnosis will have which of the following as a risk factor?

A. Hay farmer
B. Radar assembly worker
C. Arc welder
D. Coal worker
E. Textile worker

A

E. Textile worker

Byssinosis is a rare lung disease. It is caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton particles. It is sometimes referred to as brown lung disease. It is a form of occupational asthma. In the United States, byssinosis occurs almost exclusively in people who work with unprocessed cotton.

84
Q

A study shows that people who drink coffee tend to smoke more, and for this reason, coffee drinkers have a higher risk of lung cancer. Which of the following occurred in this study?

A. Lead-time bias
B. Effect modification
C. Differential misclassification
D. Confounding
E. Selection bias

A

D. Confounding

85
Q

Which is a water-washed disease?

A. Schistosomiasis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Dengue
D. Scabies
E. Malaria

A

D. Scabies

86
Q

Caused by poor personal hygiene and skin or eye contact with contaminated water.

A

Water-washed diseases

*(Nag WASH ka sa imong face - SKIN EYE)

87
Q

Caused by the ingestion of water contaminated by human or animal faeces or urine containing pathogenic bacteria or viruses.

A

Waterborne diseases

88
Q

Caused by parasites found in intermediate organisms living in contaminated water.

A

Water-based diseases

89
Q

Caused by insect vectors, especially mosquitoes, that breed in water.

A

Water-related diseases

90
Q

Which is not included in the Millenium Development Goals?

A. Improve Maternal Health
B. Reduce cardiac mortality
C. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
D. Develop a Global Partnership for Development
E. Achieve Universal Primary Education

A

B. Reduce cardiac mortality

91
Q

Goal 1

A

Eradicate Extreme Hunger and Poverty

92
Q

Goal 2

A

Achieve Universal Primary Education

93
Q

Goal 3

A

Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women

94
Q

Goal 4

A

Reduce Child Mortality

95
Q

Goal 5

A

Improve Maternal Health

96
Q

Goal 6

A

Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases

97
Q

Goal 7

A

Ensure Environmental Sustainability

98
Q

Goal 8

A

Develop a Global Partnership for Development

99
Q

What statistical test is used to check the difference between 2 qualitative variables?

A. T- test
B. Z-test
C. Chi square test
D. ANOVA
E. Regression Analysis

A

C. Chi square test

100
Q

The Goal 4 in the MDG:

A Improve Maternal Health
B. Reduce Child mortality
C. Ensure Environmental Sustainability
D. Develop a Global Partnership for Development
E. Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women

A

B. Reduce Child mortality

101
Q

Malaria prophylaxis is a

A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quarternary prevention

A

B. Primary prevention

102
Q

______________ includes health education, specific protective measures, and environmental modification and sanitation.

A

Primary prevention

103
Q

Screening programs is a

A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quarternary prevention

A

C. Secondary prevention

104
Q

_______________ aims to diagnose early and give prompt treatment.

A

Secondary prevention

105
Q

Tertiary programs includes

A. Physical therapy
B. Water sanitation
C. MMR vaccination
D. Annual physical examination
E. Immunoglobulin administration

A

A. Physical therapy

106
Q

The goal of ________________ is to limit disability and to rehabilitate from disease.

A

tertiary prevention

107
Q

The goal of _______________ is to limit disability and to rehabilitate from disease.

A

tertiary prevention

108
Q

Primordial prevention to prevent cardiovascular diseases includes:

A. Policies to encourage healthy lifestyles
B. Drinking medication conscienctiously
C. Exercising regularly
D. Both A and B
E. AOTA

A

A. Policies to encourage healthy lifestyles

  • The clear distinction between primordial and primary prevention relates to primordial prevention activities lying outside the doctor- patient relationship and the medical model.
109
Q

This epidemiological concept states that effects never depend on single isolated cause but rather as result of causation in which each link is the result of complex genealogy and antecedents.

A. Epidemiological triad
B. Web of causation
C. Mutlitple causation
D. The wheel
E. Lever

A

B. Web of causation

110
Q

Occurrence of number of cases of a disease in excess of normal occurrence or expectancy derived from a common or propagated source.

A. Hyperendemic
B. Epidemic
C. Endemic
D. Pandemic
E. Absnce of disease

A

B. Epidemic

111
Q

Guilt is the primary emotion at this stage according of Kubler Ross Stages of Death and Dying:

A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
E. Acceptance

A

C. Bargaining

112
Q

The National Health Insurance Act of 1995 is

A. RA 7875
B. RA 7610
C. RA 2382
D. RA 7767
E. RA 7234

A

A. RA 7875

113
Q

Medical Act of 1959

A

RA 2382

114
Q

The rate of dissemination of an epidemic is measured by:

A. Pre-patent period
B. Prevalance rate
C. Decubation period
D. Attack rate
E. Generation time

A

E. Generation time

115
Q

First born child is generally

A. Persevering
B. Rebellious
C. Demanding
D. Optimisitc
E. NOTA

A

A. Persevering

116
Q

The varaiance of this set of numbers (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) is

A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
E. 3.5

A

C. 2.5

117
Q

This family assessment tool is used to determine the capacity to participate in provision of health care:

A. Family Tree
B. APGAR
C. SCREEM
D. FACES
E. FES

A

C. SCREEM

118
Q

This component of APGAR describes the ability to share in decision making:

A. Adaptation
B. Partnership
C. Growth
D. Affection
E. Resolve

A

B. Partnership

119
Q

This epidemiologic curve has a short ascending limb and longer descending limb: [SAL/LDL]

A. Classical epidemiological curve
B. Propagated epidemiological curve
C. Progressive epidemiological curve
D. Both Band C
E. AOTA

A

A. Classical epidemiological curve

120
Q

This is the amount of chemical that is allowable for only a short duration:

A. Time weighted average
B. Short term exposure limit
C. Ceiling
D. Both A and B
E. AOTA

A

B. Short term exposure limit

121
Q

The size of particles in micrometer that is deposited in the alveolar sacs:

A. 0.1-0.5
B. 0.5-0.9
C. 1-2
D. >2
E. >10

A

C. 1-2

122
Q

1-2 deposited in _____________

A

Alveolar sacs

123
Q

> 2 to <10 deposited in the _________________

A

Tracheobronchial tree

124
Q

> 10 filtered by _________________

A

Nose and pharynx

125
Q

The recommended ORS osmlarity (mmol/L) for fluid replacement amongst children with diarrhea:

A. 200
B. 245
C. 290
D. 335
E. 380

A

B. 245

126
Q

Glucose

A

75

127
Q

Na

A

75

128
Q

Cl

A

65

129
Q

K

A

20

130
Q

HCO3

A

10

131
Q

Counselling on safe drug use to prevent hepatitis C virus (HCV) transmission and counselling on safer sex is classified as what level of prevention?

A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary

A

B. Primary

132
Q

_______________ is defined as the avoidance of disease. It seeks to prevent the onset of specific diseases via risk reduction: by altering behaviours or exposures that can lead to disease, or by enhancing resistance to the effects of exposure to a disease agent.

A

Primary prevention

133
Q

In a colorectal cancer patient. Follow-up exams to identify recurrence or metastatic disease: physical examination, liver enzyme tests and chest x-rays is classified as what level of prevention?

A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary

A

D. Tertiary

134
Q

________________ is defined as the avoidance of negative sequelae of a disease process, once the disease has been diagnosed and treated. It seeks to soften the impact caused by the disease on the patient’s function, longevity, and quality of life.

A

Tertiary prevention

135
Q

In a community you decided to perform organized colonoscopy screening programs. This is classified as what level of prevention?

A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary

A

C. Secondary

136
Q

_____________ is defined as the interruption of any disease process before the emergence of recognized symptoms or diagnostic findings of the disorder. This includes procedures that detect and treat pre-clinical pathological changes and thereby control disease progression

A

Secondary prevention

137
Q

Promoting a healthy lifestyle in childhood for example, through prenatal nutrition programs and supporting early childhood development programmes is classified as what level of prevention?

A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary

A

A. Primordial

138
Q

______________ ACTS EARLY IN THE CAUSAL CHAIN, to alter general social or economic circumstances that give rise to risk factors.

A

Primordial prevention

139
Q

It consists of actions to MINIMIZE FUTURE HAZARDS to health and hence inhibit the establishment factors (environmental, economic, social, behavioural, cultural) known to increase the risk of disease.

A

Primordial prevention

140
Q

It addresses broad health determinants rather than preventing personal exposure to risk factors, which is the goal of primary prevention

A

Primordial prevention

141
Q

The Pap smear test detects cervical cancer in women at an early stage of the disease when there are no symptoms and the disease is not evident on visual examination. Which of the following level of prevention applies to a woman with no history of cervical cancer who undergoes a Pap smear?

A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary

A

C. Secondary

142
Q

_________________ is defined as the INTERRUPTION OF ANY DISEASE PROCESS before the emergence of recognized symptoms or diagnostic findings of the disorder.

A

Secondary prevention

143
Q

This includes procedures that detect and treat pre-clinical pathological changes and thereby control disease progression.

A

Secondary prevention

144
Q

This population pyramid is described as having a BASE THAT IS NARROWER THAN THE MIDDLE of the pyramid usually as a result of recent rapid decline in fertility?

A. Constructive
B. Stationary
C. Expansive
D. Inverted
E. Platypelloid

A

A. Constructive

145
Q

It is the most sensitive index of assessing the health status in the community?

A. General fertility rate
B. Perinatal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Child mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate

A

E. Infant mortality rate

146
Q

This statistical rate reflects primarily environmental factors and is a senstive indicator of the socio-economic delopment of a community?

A. General fertility rate
B. Perinatal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Child mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate

A

D. Child mortality rate

147
Q

In-migration of healthy people will __________ the prevalence rate of a disease.

A

decrease

148
Q

Which among these factors will decrease the prevalence rate of a disease?

A. Longer duration of disease
B. Prolongation of px’s lives without cure
C. In-migration of healthy people
D. Improved diagnostic facilities
E. None of the above

A

C. In-migration of healthy people

149
Q

You did a community survery to determine the year of birth of each of the sample population. The results fo the survery will fall under what category of data?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
E. Dichotomous

A

C. Interval

150
Q

This characteristic of data collection refers to the consistency and reproducibility of a test?

A. Validity
B. Sensitivity
C. Specifciity
D. Accuracy
E. Precision

A

E. Precision

151
Q

___________ also refers to the ABSENCE OF RANDOM VARIATION in a test and is synonymous with reliability

A

Precision

152
Q

A study was done to determine the ability of new;y discovered cardiac enzyme, serum marker XY, to diagnose an acute myocardial infarction compared to the gold standard test of Troponins. 56 patients had positive Trop I in which 35 of those patients had a negative cardiac enzyme XY test. On the other hand 138 patients had negative Trop I in which 75 of those patients had a positive cardiac enzyme XY test. What is the sensitivity and the specificity of the novel test, respectively?

A. 48.5 and 55.7%
B. 25.5 and 56.8%
C. 56.8 and 25.5%
D. 37.5 and 45.7%
E. 45.7 and 37.5%

A

D. 37.5 and 45.7%

153
Q

Pertaining to the previous question, what is the negative predictive value of the test?

A. 21.9%
B. 35.5%
C. 45.5%
D. 54.5%
E. 64.3%

A

E. 64.3%

Positive predictive value is TP/(TP+FP)= 21.9% and negative predictive value is TN/(TN+FN)= 64.3%

154
Q

Pertaining to the previous question, what is the prevalence rate of the disease?

A. 28.9%
B. 35.5%
C. 26.5%
D. 33.8%
E. 30.0%

A

A. 28.9%

155
Q

A sampling design wherein every kth element of the population is chosen ie: every 6th person of a sample size of 60 is chosen is what kind of sampling method?

A. Purposive sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Cluster sampling
E. Multistage sampling

A

C. Systematic sampling

156
Q

A researcher plans to do a survey to determine the top 10 causes of morbidity in his community. What measure of central tendency is best used?

A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range
E. Standard deviation

A

B. Mode

157
Q

________ is defined as the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations. It is often used in public health statistics.

A

Mode

158
Q

In any study where a sample is utilized, the error or finding an association in the sample when none truly exist in the population is called?

A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C Type III error
D. Type IV error
E. Type V error

A

A. Type I error

159
Q

______________ is rejecting null hypothesis when it is really true “You saw a difference when it does not exist”.

A

Type I or alpha error

160
Q

The probability of commiting type I error in computing your sample size is called?

A. power of the study
B. effect size
C. level of significance
D. standard deviation
E. variance

A

C. level of significance

161
Q

A researcher is interested in performing a study regarding Budd-Chiarri syndorme and factors that could have led to this condition? What study method is best for this disease entity?

A. Cross sectional
B. Prospective cohort
C. Retrospective cohort
D. Case control
E. Case report

A

D. Case control

162
Q

_______________ provides opportunity to investigate rare diseases (ex: Budd chiarri syndorme occuring in 1 per 1 million population) as well as disease with long periods of latency

A

Case control studies

163
Q

An indigent patient came to the rural health center complained of shooting pains in the flank radiating to the groin associated with hematuria during urination. He doesn’t have any money for medications. Being knowledgeable with the uses of herbal medications what could you give to the patient?

A. Akapulko
B. Sambong
C. Tsaang gubat
D. Yerba buena
E. Ulasimang bato

A

B. Sambong

164
Q

ACT, a brilliant researcher, wants to determine if the paleontologic diet would decrease serum cholesterol among his patients aged 40 - 50 years old and male without other co-morbid conditions. The following are the results of his study:

Patient A: 210 ———- 208
Patient B: 189 ———- 172
Patient C: 175 ———- 170
Patient D: 204 ———- 180
Patient E: 224 ———- 227
Patient F: 243 ———- 238
What is the standard deviation?

a. 12.9
b. 22.17
c. 24.29
d. 13.8
e. none of the above

A

c. 24.29

165
Q

From the above scenario, what is the standard error?

a. 9.92
b. 10.2
c. 8.6
d. 11.5
e. none of the above

A

a. 9.92

166
Q

APT, a novice researcher wants to know the statistical test she would use for her undergraduate study. She asks you for help and tells you that she is trying to compare the mean blood pressure between members of 3 different Filipino ethnic groups of Mindanao. Which of the following is the appropriate test?

a. chi square
b. student t - test
c. paired t- test
d. ANOVA
e. Mann Whitney test

A

d. ANOVA

167
Q

Which of the following is the first step in calculating for F - ratio?

a. calculate the degrees of freedom
b. calculate the variance between samples and within samples
c. calculate the sample means within groups
d. calculate the sum of squares between samples and within samples
e. divide the mean square between groups and mean square within groups

A

c. calculate the sample means within groups

168
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common indoor pollutant?

a. tobacco smoke
b. Radon
c. nitric oxide
d. dust
e. none of the above

A

b. Radon

169
Q

HS, a 32 year old male with multiple sexual partners both male and female, comes to you for pretest counselling for HIV. After a series of discussions, HS finally submits himself for testing. The next day, the results came back positive and HS is asking for his result. Which of the following is your most approriate first response?

a. “Im afraid I have some bad news for you.”
b. “Do you really want to know your results?”
c. “You are HIV positive.”
d. “We need more tests.”

A

a. “Im afraid I have some bad news for you.”

170
Q

In the PRECEDE - PROCEED planning model, which of the following is NOT part of the proceed phases?

a. implementation
b. diagnosis
c. process evaluation
d. impact evaluation
e. outcome evaluation

A

b. diagnosis

171
Q

Precede phases:

A
  1. social diagnosis;
  2. epidemiological, behavioral and environmental diagnosis;
  3. educational and ecological diagnosis;
  4. administrative and policy diagnosis
172
Q

Proceed phases:

A
  1. implementation;
  2. process evaluation;
  3. impact evaluation;
  4. outcome evaluation
173
Q

BAT, a busy dermatologist, arrived an hour late at her clinic in Alabang. The patient walked in her clinic angrily. What should be the most appropriate response?

a. immediately apologize and move on with the consultation
b. “You seem upset. What seems to be bothering you?”
c. apologize and explain why she was late (e.g. stuck in traffic)
d. “I can understand why you are upset, and I appreciate your waiting for me.”
e. none of the above

A

d. “I can understand why you are upset, and I appreciate your waiting for me.”

174
Q

AT, a gastroenterologist, was caring for a Muslim hypertensive patient from Dubai. During the course of treatment, the patient was noncompliant with all his medications. Which of the following is the most approriate response of AT?

a. refer the patient to a Muslim doctor who would understand their culture
b. counsel and emphasize on the consequences of noncompliance which would lead to mortality
c. counsel and emphasize on the good effects of compliance with treatment
d. read about Muslim culture and ask for advise
e. none of the above

A

b. counsel and emphasize on the consequences of noncompliance which would lead to mortality

175
Q

A 65 year old female came in for complaints of breast mass for 2 years. On workup, patient had multiple liver nodes, 1cm temporal lobe mass with multiple bone metastasis. During her visit, patient says, “I know I can survive this. I will do what I can to be with my grandchildren.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

a. There is no cure as your cancer has metastasized.
b. You should be preparing your grandchildren for your death.
c. Let us hope for the best and focus on your remaining time left.
d. I think you are in denial that your cancer has spread.
e. You are going through the normal stages of grief.

A

c. Let us hope for the best and focus on your remaining time left.

176
Q

In the above situation, which of the following is a requirement for referral to hospice care?

a. has a DNR order
b. has a diagnosis of Breast Cancer Stage IV
c. has prognosis of 5 months to live
d. has good decision making ability
e. has ambulatory capacity

A

c. has prognosis of 5 months to live

*hospice model: focus on quality of life, symptom control, interdisciplinary team, services provided at home, assisted living facility; requires prognosis of <= 6 months

177
Q

A 65 year old female came in for complaints of knee pain. Her medical problems include hypertension, gouty arthritis, and dyslipidemia. She has seen several doctors already for consult of her knee pain but doesn’t seem to go away with medications and physical therapy. She says, “ Pagod na pagod na ako. Walang nakakatulong sa akin. Walang gamot din tumatalab sa sakit ng tuhod ko. Hindi na nga ako nakakapaglinis ng bahay at nakakapaglaba. Mas mabuti magfile na ako ng PWD card.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

a. better consult with a pain specialist
b. you may have untreated depression
c. I will assist you in filling up your PWD card
d. I understand your frustration. It is difficult to help when you are convinced nothing will work
e. I understand that lack of improvement has been frustrating

A

e. I understand that lack of improvement has been frustrating

178
Q

A 49 year old math teacher RC comes to you with complains of sore throat, mild cough productive of scant yellow sputum, clear watery nasal discharges, and low grade fever. PE reveals clear breath sounds and low grade fever. RC insists that you prescribe him with antibiotics as his previous doctor always gave antibiotics for these kinds of ailments. What should you do?

a. give him the antibiotics because its the patient’s wishes
b. give him a placebo as doctor patient relationship is important
c. dont prescribe the antibiotics
d. refer the patient to another doctor
e. none of the above

A

c. dont prescribe the antibiotics

179
Q

Doctor JMK sees Ms Bea Alonzo for complains of acne vulgaris. Ms Bea asks JMK if he would go out for a candle light dinner with her. Dr JMK finds Bea very attractive and wants to date her also. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Dr JMK should accept the invitation for the dinner date
b. Dating a patient is unethical
c. physician patient relationship must be terminated prior to a date
d. it is inappropriate for a beautiful patient to ask for a date
e. none of the above

A

b. Dating a patient is unethical

180
Q

Which of the following refers to consistency and reproducibility of a test and the absence of random variation in a test?

a. accuracy
b. validity
c. precision
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

c. precision

181
Q

A normal statistical distribution is represented by a Gaussian curve or bell shaped curve where mean = mode = median. In nonnormal statistical distributions, there is asymmetry of the curve. Which of the following refers to a bimodal distribution?

a. metabolic polymorphisms of fast and slow acetylators
b. age of onset of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. suicide rate by age
d. all of the above
e.only B and C

A

d. all of the above

182
Q

“It is a mathematical fact that fifty percent of all doctors graduate in the bottom half of their class.” Bias and study errors must be avoided to make the study valid and reliable. WHat is the best strategy to reduce bias in the Pygmalion effect or the self - fulfilling prophecy?

a. blinding
b. standardized method of data collection
c. crossover studies
d. randomization
e. decrease time from exposure to follow up

A

a. blinding

183
Q

______________ reduce influence of participants and researchers on procedures and interpretation of outcomes as neither are aware of group allocation.

A

Blinding and use of placebo

184
Q

___________ effect refers to researcher’s belief in the efficacy of a treatment changes the outcome of that treatment (observer - expectancy bias).

A

Pygmalion

185
Q

Which of the following are exceptions to informed consent?

a. therapeutic privilege
b. emergency cases
c. capacity
d. both A and B
e. both B and C

A

d. both A and B

186
Q

Lola Sepa is the administrator of an autosupply and lumber center in Pangasinan. She is loved by the people in the town however she comes to you for complaints of difficulty in sleeping. Which of the following changes in the elderly would be expected from Lola Sepa except?

a. increased in REM
b. decrease in slow wave sleep
c. increased sleep onset latency
d. increased early awakenings
e. none of the above

A

a. increased in REM

187
Q

Understandingoftheevaluationofdiagnostictestsis essential in the practice of ORK. Which of the following is true?

a. negative predictive value varies directly with prevalence or pretest probability
b. positive predictive value varies inversely with prevalence or pretest probablity
c. High sensitivity test is used for screening in diseases with high prevalence
d. high specificity test is used for confirmation after a positive screening test
e. none of the above

A

d. high specificity test is used for confirmation after a positive screening test