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Drew's Test > 10 Questions Test > Flashcards

10 Questions Test Flashcards

1
Q

What causes Limit Load Factor to be Exceeded

A

Level altitude Turns increase load factor exponentially.

Vertical gusts can increase angle of attack to resulting in increased load factor

Speed determines the amount of excess load that can be imposed upon the wing.

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2
Q

What is the load factor range for Normal, Utility, and Aerobatic

A

Load Factor range for Normal category is (3.8) - (-1.52)

Load Factor range for Utility category is (4.4) - (-1.76)

Load Factor range for Aerobatic category is (6.0) - (-3.0)

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3
Q

Increased load factor and stall relation

A

Load factor increases weight which increases stalling speed. Load factor increases as bank increases, and wings stall because you increase your Weight which means your aircraft is producing less lift with the increased weight, increasing stall speed.

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4
Q

Maneuvering speed defined

A

Maximum speed which the limit load factor can be imposed without causing structural damage

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5
Q

Maneuvering speed and Weight relation

A

Maneuvering speed increases with increase in weight. The described maneuvering speed is set to Max Gross Weight. You must calculate Va for your weight of the aircraft before taking off, so if you reach limit load factor you stall before you break.

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6
Q

Loss of control inflight (LOC-I) definition

A

Defined as the deviation of the aircraft from the intended flight path

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7
Q

Spin Defined

A

Controlled or Uncontrolled maneuver in which the aircraft descends in a spinning path, caused by aggravated stalls.

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8
Q

Spins Cause

A

Exceeding critical angle of attack while applying excessive or insufficient rudder/aileron

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9
Q

When are spins most likely to occur

A

Engine failure during takeoff climb out

Crossed-control turn from base to final

Engine failure on approach to landing

Go around with full nose-up trim

Go-around with improper flap retraction

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10
Q

How do you recover from a spin

A

Throttle Idle, Ailerons Neutral, Rudder opposite of spin, then Stall recovery

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11
Q

Adverse Yaw cause

A

In a roll one aileron is deflected downward and the other is deflected upward, the aileron that is deflected downward produces more lift and more drag causing a yaw opposite to your turn

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12
Q

What is Gross weight

A

The maximum allowable weight of both the airplane and its contents.

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13
Q

What is useful load

A

Weight of the pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel and drainable oil

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14
Q

What flight characteristics will be affected when aircraft is overloaded

A

Higher Takeoff Speed

Longer Takeoff Roll

Reduced rate of climb

Lower maximum altitude

Shorter range

Reduced cruising speed

Reduced maneuverability

Higher Stalling Speed

Higher Landing Roll

Longer Landing roll

Excessive weight on nosewheel

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15
Q

What affects does a forward CG have

A

Increased Stall Speed (Higher AoA to remain level)

Decreased Cruise Speed (More drag at higher AoA)

Increased Lateral Stability (More leverage)

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16
Q

What affects does a aft CG have

A

Decreased stall speed (Lower AoA to remain level)

Increased Cruise speed (Lower AoA)

Less Stable (Less leverage)

Poor Stall/Spin recovery (due to less stability)

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17
Q

What are the weights to Gasoline, Oil, and Water

A

Gas 6lbs

Oil 7.5lbs

Water 8.35lbs

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18
Q

Is it okay having a change CG not logged

A

No, its a requirement for an A&P to annotate and log any change of the CG

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19
Q

What are the main elements of aircraft performance

A

Takeoff and Landing distance

Rate of climb

Ceiling

Payload

Range

Speed

Fuel Economy

Maneuverability

Stability

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20
Q

What factors effect an aircraft on takeoff and landing

A

Air Density

Surface Wind

Runway surface

Upslope or Downslope runway

Weight

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21
Q

How does weight affect takeoff and landing performance?

A

higher takeoff speed, Slow acceleration, Increased drag and friction, increased landing speed, increased ground roll, decreases climb rate, and longer takeoff roll

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22
Q

Effects of increased density altitude

A

increased landing roll, increased TAS on approach/landing, reduced rate of climb, increased takeoff distance,

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23
Q

What does air density have a direct relation too

A

lift produced, propeller efficiency, drag, and engine performance

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24
Q

What affects air density

A

altitude, temperature, and humidity

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25
Q

How many N.M. can a Cessna 172 glide per 1000’ loss of altitude

A

1.5 N.M. per 1000’ loss of altitude

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26
Q

what is the common type of Hydraulic Fluid

A

mineral-h-5606, red

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27
Q

Fuel Injection system described

A

Engine Driven Fuel pump provides fuel to air control unit and Auxiliary Fuel Pump provides fuel to fuel/air control unit or to starter

Fuel/Air control unit meters fuel based on mixture control sends fuel/air mixture to throttle control

Fuel Manifold Valve distributes fuel to discharge nozzles

Discharge Nozzles inject fuel/air mixture

Fuel Pressure indicator measures fuel pressure

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28
Q

What does the aircraft electrical system provide power too.

A

Lighting, Turn Coordinator, Fuel Temperature Gauge, Fuel Gauges, Tachometer, Anti-Icing equipment, Avionics, Flaps, Stall Warning System

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29
Q

Oil Functions

A

Seal, Clean, Lubricate, Cool

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30
Q

Detonation cause and effects

A

Caused by High engine temperatures, High Power Setting or using lower grade of fuel

Effects are Excessive Temperature, Roughness, Loss of Power, and Excessive Piston Pressure which can lead to piston cylinder or valves failing

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31
Q

Detonation Corrective Action

A

Ensure proper grade of fuel is used, Keep cowl flaps open while on ground, Enrich mixture, Avoid extended high power steep climbs, Monitor engine instruments

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32
Q

Preignition Cause and Effects

A

Cause: Cylinder Hot Spot, Small Carbon Deposit on spark plugs, cracked spark plug, or cylinder damage

Effects: Excessive Temperature, Roughness, Loss of Power, and Pressure which can lead to piston cylinder or valves failing

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33
Q

Corrective Action Preignition

A

Reduce Power, Reduce climb rate, enrich mixture, open cowl flaps

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34
Q

Ammeter Indications defined

A

Positive After starting and in Flight - Battery Power being replenished

Full Positive in Flight - Faulty Voltage regulator causing overcharge to battery

Full Positive After starting - If static for 1 minute, Starter still Engaged, engine should be shut down

Negative After starting - Normal unless it continues which would indicate alternator failure or overload

Negative in Flight - Alternator not functioning or overload

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35
Q

Corrective Action for Continuous discharge or charge in flight

A

Alternator shut off/removed from circuit

All electrical equipment not essential must be turned off

Flight should be terminated

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36
Q

What can happen if alternator overcharges the battery

A

If the Voltage regulator is broken the battery can be overcharged which will evaporate electrolytes at extreme amounts releasing explosive chemicals and if a short circuit were to happen the battery would explode

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37
Q

What does Continuous discharge in flight indicate

A

Alternator off, Alternator Failure, or Overload

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38
Q

What is indicated if Oil Pressure is low but Oil temperature is normal and what is the corrective action

A

Lack of oil, clogged oil pressure relief valve, oil pressure gauge malfunction. Land as soon as possible

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39
Q

Partial loss of power corrective actions

A

Correct to Best Glide Speed, and find a field to land

If Time Permits:

Contact ATC

Check Carburetor heat

Check Fuel amount

Check Fuel selector

Check mixture control

Check Primer is in default position and locked

Check Magnetos

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40
Q

Procedures for inflight fire

A

Mixture Idle

Fuel Selector Off

Master Off

Cabin Heat off

Air Vents On

Establish an airspeed of 100KTS or greater

Execute forced landing procedures

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41
Q

Procedures for Startup fire

A

If engine starts: Increase RPM, then shut down engine

If engine doesn’t start: Throttle Full, Mixture Idle, and continue to try to start engine

If fire continues: Ignition Off, Master Off, Fuel Selector Off

Evacuate aircraft and get assistance and fire extinguisher if needed

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42
Q

Purpose for continuing start up during engine fire

A

Sucking fuel through carburetor to vacuum the fire out

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43
Q

What are the limitations of ASI

A

limited to to only proper flow of air in pitot/static system

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44
Q

Errors of the airspeed indicator

A

Position Error caused by static sensing erroneous static pressure from spiraling slipstream

Density Error caused by changed in altitude and temperature

Compressibility Error caused by packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications

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45
Q

Limitations of the Vertical Speed Indicator

A

not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized, 6-9 second lag is required to stabilize or equalize pressure

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46
Q

What are the fundamental properties of Gyroscopes

A

Rigidity in space and Gyroscopic Precession

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47
Q

What are the attitude indicator limitations

A

100 - 110 degrees of bank and 60 - 70 degrees of pitch if either are exceeded the instrument will tumble or spill until reset

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48
Q

Attitude Indicator Errors

A

Turn error: after 180 turn, it indicates a slight turn and bank on opposite direction. Following 360 turn, it cancels out.

Acceleration error: horizon bar moves down indicating a climb.

Deceleration error: horizon bar moves up indicating a descent.

These errors fix themselves after a couple minutes of straight and level flight

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49
Q

Limitations Heading Indicator

A

55 degrees of bank or pitch will cause tumble or spills until reset

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50
Q

Heading Indicator Errors

A

Due to gyroscopic precession friction causes heading indicator to drift

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51
Q

Hows does a Turn Coordinator work

A

When the aircraft yaws, or rolls, it produces a force in the horizontal plane that, due to precession, causes the gyro and its gimbal to rotate about the gimbal’s axis

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52
Q

What information does the turn coordinator provide

A

Slip, Skid, Rate of turn, Yaw, and Roll

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53
Q

Slip Defined

A

The ball on the turn coordinator is on the inside of the turn, not enough rate of turn for amount of bank

54
Q

Skid Defined

A

The ball on the turn coordinator is on the outside of the turn, too much rate of turn for the amount of bank

55
Q

Limitations of magnetic compass

A

At steeper bank angles the compass indicates erratic and unpredictable

56
Q

Compass Errors

A

Oscillation of the compass is erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control

Deviation electrical and magnetic disturbances

Variation angular difference between true north and magnetic north

Accelerate North Decelerate South

Slow turn From North, Fast turn from South

57
Q

What are three most common ways to navigate

A

Radio Navigation, Pilotage, and Dead Reckoning

58
Q

Latitude and Longitude Defined

A

Latitude is Horizontal and Longitude is Vertical

59
Q

Types of Navigation AIDs

A

VOR

VORTAC

VOR-DME

DME

RNAV

60
Q

VOR Defined

A

Very High Frequency Omnidirectional radio, projects radio signals through all directions

61
Q

Navaid classification

A

Terminal, High, and Low

62
Q

Methods for checking VOR accuracy

A

VOT check

Ground Checkpoint

Airborne Checkpoint

Dual VOR Check

63
Q

What are three fundamental elements of GPS

A

Space element (30 satellites)

Control Element (accuracy of GPS and their clocks)

User Element (position, velocity, and precise timing)

64
Q

Purpose of RAIM

A

Self monitor of GPS signals to make sure GPS signals are accurate

65
Q

What happens if RAIM capability is lost

A

No way to check accuracy of GPS in flight

66
Q

How to determine which operations GPS is approved for

A

Check the POH/AFM to determine limitations and operating procedures

67
Q

How many satellites does a GPS require to compute position?

A

3 Satellites - 2D latitude and longitude position

4 Satellites - 3D latitude, longitude, and altitude

5 Satellites - 3D and RAIM

6 Satellites - 3D and RAIM (adds redundancy)

68
Q

What happens to a Flight Plan if not activated

A

If an hour passes the flight plan will be canceled

69
Q

If you can’t locate your position what should you do?

A

Climb to a higher altitude for better communication
and landmark visibility

Communicate (contact 121.5 if you have to)

Confess your problem

Comply with orders

70
Q

What is CTAF

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency is a frequency used to carry out airport advisory practices

71
Q

What is a UNICOM

A

Airport information or traffic advisory frequency

72
Q

What is a ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service the continuous broadcast of recorded non control information in selected high activity terminal areas.

73
Q

Operating in an airspace with no control tower, FSS, or UNICOM which procedure should be followed

A

The procedures to follow are MULTICOM frequency 122.9 and use self announcing procedures

74
Q

What is the proper frequency for activating the VFR flight plan

A

FSS or Consult communications section in the Chart Supplement

75
Q

Frequency printed on NAVAID on sectional charts are

A

the best frequency for FSS in the vicinity of the NAVAID

76
Q

Where can you find the frequency for the controlling agency of a facility

A

Special use airspace information can be found on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart

77
Q

What responsibilities does a Private Pilot have in a inflight emergency

A

The PIC is directly responsible and final authority to the operation of the aircraft

The PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent of that emergency

Each person who deviates from any rule in Part 91 must send a written report to the FAA upon request

78
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?

A

Aircraft operators of air carriers or aircraft operating under IFR are not allowed to use electronic devices with exceptions

79
Q

What preflight action is required of a pilot prior to any flight?

A

Familiarize oneself with all available information concerning that flight

80
Q

What Preflight action is required outside of the vicinity of the departure airport

A

NOTAMS

Weather reports and Forecasts

Runway lengths at airports of intended use

Alternative airports

Fuel Requirements

Takeoff/Landing Data

81
Q

What preflight action is required concerning the use of seatbelts to passengers

A

The PIC must brief the passenger how to correctly put on seatbelts and harnesses

82
Q

When are flight crewmembers required to have seatbelts fastened

A

During takeoff, landing, and while enroute crewmembers are required to have seatbelts and safety harnesses fastened

83
Q

What regulations apply to operating an aircraft in formation

A

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another as to create a collision hazard

No person may operate an aircraft in formation except by arrangement with the PIC in each aircraft

No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight

84
Q

In areas other then congested what minimum safe altitudes shall be useed

A

An aircraft shall not be operated no lower then 500 AGL except over water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or property

85
Q

Cruising altitudes below 18,000’ what altimeter setting procedure is required

A

Below 31.00”Hg or less, altitude must be held to the nearest reporting station altimeter report.

86
Q

When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction

A

An amended clearance from ATC

An Emergency

In response to traffic and collision avoidance

87
Q

What actions are required if you deviate from ATC instruction

A

PIC must notify any deviation to ATC immediately

PIC must send a written report to ATC upon request within 48 hours

88
Q

If aircraft radio fails while operating in a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing

A

Weather conditions must be at or above VFR weather minimums

Visual contact with the tower must be maintained

A clearance to land is received

89
Q

Traffic Pattern rules are

A

Airplanes approaching to land make all turns to the left unless otherwise stated

Airplanes departing comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93

90
Q

Which landing procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Slope Indicator

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

91
Q

What is an emergency locator transmitter

A

Radio sweep transmitter with its own power source connected to 121.5, 243.0, and 406.0

92
Q

When are ELTs required aboard aircraft and what are the exceptions to this rule

A

No person may operate an aircraft without an ELT aboard in operable condition.

Exceptions:

Aircraft Engaged in training operations conducted within 50 NM from departure airport

Aircraft engaged in design testing

New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation, and delivery

Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations

93
Q

Where is aerobatic flight prohibited

A

Over any congested area of city, town, or settlement

Over an open air assembly of persons

Within lateral boundaries of the surface areas Class B, C, D, E airspaces

Within 4NM of the center line of a Federal Airway

Below an altitude of 1,500’ feet above the surface

When flight visibility is less than 3 SM

94
Q

Aerobatic Flight Defined

A

intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration

95
Q

When are parachutes required aboard aircraft

A

Parachutes are required aboard aircraft if bank angle is exceeded past 60° or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° is exceeded

96
Q

What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace

A

PIC holds at least a private pilot certificate

97
Q

What minimum equipment is required to operate within Class C airspace

A

Two way radio

Mode C transponder

ADS-B out equipment

98
Q

Departing a satellite airport without a control tower, located within a controlled airspace. What requirements must be met

A

You must establish two way radio with the controlling agency of the controlled airspace

99
Q

Define Basic Radar Service, TRSA Service, Class C Radar Services, Class B radar services

A

Basic Radar Service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, radar vectoring,

TRSA Service - radar sequencing and separation

Class C Radar Services - Basic Radar, IFR/VFR seperation, sequencing of VFR arrivals

Class B Radar Services - Basic Radar, IFR/IFR, IFR/VFR, Weight seperation, and sequencing

100
Q

Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B out required

A

Class A, B, C airspace

Above Class B and C airspace up to 10,000’

Above 10,000’ in Class E airspace

Within the Mode C veil

(ADS-B out only) required 3000’ - 12NM from Coastline

(Mode C only) Flying in, within, or across United States ADIZ

101
Q

Is ATC Clearance required within Class E extensions

A

No, Class E extensions to Class B, C, D, and E surface areas do not require any ATC clearance. Only Class A and B airspaces require ATC clearance

102
Q

When control towers cease operations what happens to the airspace the control tower was within

A

The airspace turns to a Class E or G, but specifications for each airport lie within Chart Supplements for airports

103
Q

Types of Class E airspace

A

Class E airports (surface areas)

Extension to other airspaces

Transition to/from terminal

Federal Airways

Offshore beyond 3000’ - 12NM

104
Q

Purpose of Class E transition areas

A

To help separate IFR traffic from VFR traffic in the vicinity

105
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class G airspace

A

Yes, you must establish two-way communication with all airports with a control tower

106
Q

When are communications required to be established with uncontrolled airports

A

4NM from the airport

107
Q

What are the weather minimums of Class G airspace in the traffic pattern

A

3 - 1 SM of visibility and to remain clear of clouds (Day and Night)

108
Q

What are the Class G weather minimums more then 1,200’ AGL but less then 10,000’ MSL

A

1-512 (Day)

3-512 (Night)

109
Q

What is VFR Minimums in Class B, C, D, and E airspace

A

1000’ Ceiling and 3SM visibility

110
Q

Do all airports provide SVFR

A

Some airports prohibit clearance of SVFR

111
Q

What is a Warning Area

A

Airspace 3NM outward from coast containing possible hazards to aircraft

112
Q

Special Air Traffic Rules and Special Flight Rules Area described

A

SATR: Flight rules governed in Part 93

SFRA: Special Air traffic rules govern the area unless otherwise authorized by ATC

113
Q

Where can Special use airspace information be found

A

The controlling agency on the sectional tab or online

114
Q

Where can information for Flyways, Corridors, and transition routes be found

A

on the opposite side of Terminal Area Charts (TACS) or online

115
Q

What are Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) and where are they located

A

An area where identification and location of aircraft are required for national security

ADIZ are located on international boundaries, Coast, and Land

116
Q

What are requirements to operate within ADIZ zones

A

Flight Plan, Two-way Radio, Transponder, Position Reports, and understanding of ADIZ NOTAM requirements

117
Q

When is immediate Notification required to the NTSB

A

Flight Control Malfunction, Crew-member unable to perform normal duties, Inflight fire, Inflight Collision, Property Damage estimated $25,000 or greater, Overdue aircraft in accident, loss of propeller inflight, and 50% loss of information from EFIS

118
Q

Aircraft Incident Defined

A

Occurrence other then an accident that affects or could affect flight safety

119
Q

Accident Serious Injury Defined

A

Hospitalization for more then 48 hours within 7 days of the accident

Results in bone fracture

Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage

Involves internal organs

Involves third/second degree burns affecting 5% or more of the body

120
Q

Accident Substantial Damage Defined

A

Damage that affects structural strength, performance, and flight characteristics that normally requires major repair or replacement of affected component

121
Q

How soon do you have to report an aircraft accident or incident

A

10 days after the accident

7 days after an aircraft overdue is still missing

122
Q

Can the FAA use NASA aviation safety reports for enforcement purposes

A

No

123
Q

What are Visual Slope Indicators indications

A

Red over Red - Below Glide Path
Red over white - on glide path
White over white - Above glide path

124
Q

What services can ARTCC provide and what is ARTCC purpose

A

Flight Following

ARTCC purpose is to provide air traffic services while enroute

125
Q

When should contact be made with a control tower

A

15NM from the airport

126
Q

What is good operating practice when departing airports

A

Remain on frequency for traffic advisories till you leave the airspace

127
Q

Where can NOTAM information be obtained

A

FSS

Online

FIS-B

128
Q

When are VFR flight plans required to be filed

A

VFR flight plans are not required unless operating under ADIZ/DEWIZ

129
Q

When are ICAO flight plans required

A

Flight Plan within international airspace

Flights expecting routing or seperation

Flight expects ADS-B services

130
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan

A

Defense VFR flight plans required for ADIZ/DEWIZ

Drew's Test (10 decks)

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