1 Flashcards

1
Q

Ach-like muscarinic agonists are inhibited by this drug

A

atropine

(phentolamine competitively blocks a-adrenergic receptors, but does not directly interact with the muscarinic receptors on smooth muscle cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

intoxication of ??? causes fever, dry skin/mouth, flushing, blurred vision, AMS

A

atropine (Jimson weed)

-note the anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

?? should be considered when a genetic mutation is identified in the offspring but not the parent

A

germline mosaicism: the presence of multiple, genetically different gamete cell lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

?? is a cytokine produced exclusively by T lymphocytes

A

IL-2: functions to stimulate the growth and differentiation of T, B, NK cells and macrophages
IL-1: produced by mononuclear phagocytes
TNF-a: prod. by activated macrophages–>sepsis, shock, cachexia
IFN-a: monos, macros, B cells, NK cells–>antiviral
GM-CSF: macros, T cells, NKs, mast cells, endothelial cells, fibroblasts–>stem cell production of granulos and monos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

?? bind epithelial cells together in tissues (adherens junctions and desmosomes)

A

Cadherins- Ca2+ dependent

hemidesmosomes (BM) rely on integrins
fibronectin and laminins are extracellular matrix glycoproteins that bind cell surface integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

umbilicated, flesh-colored papules on skin and mucous membranes think ??
what will be seen on biopsy ?

A

molluscum contagiosum (poxvirus)

eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ligand binding to a tyrosine kinase receptor results in ??

A

formation of receptor dimers and a conformational change that exposes tyrosine kinase-active sites

(receptor mediated endocytosis happens with clathrin coats, i.e. LDL: ligand-receptor complex into a vesicle)
(translocation to nucleus happens with steroid, retinoid, or EPO (STAT)–>gene transcription)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pancreatic exocrine secretions changes in response to flow, what ion increases during high flow? what decreases? what maintains the inverse relationship?

A

high flow: HCO3- increases and Cl- drops

opposite in low flow

Cl-/HCO3- exchanger on the apical surface of ductal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ileal secretions tend to be ??

A

slightly alkaline: HCO3-&raquo_space;Cl- during high flow, K+ secretion is also increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Relative risk example

A

% of pts with cancer who have the mutation DIVIDED BY (not subtracted from!) the % of pts w. cancer who do not have the mutation (risk factor) (used in cohort studies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what heme problem ??: intermittent episodes of abdominal pain w. neuro manifestations following exposure to offending medication, darken upon sun exposure but not photosensitive

A

acute intermittent porphyria: deficiency of porphobilinogen deaminase (porphobilinogen–>hydroxymethylbilane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

S4 sound heard in ??

A

HTN heart disease, aortic stenosis, HOCM (reduced ventricular compliance/distensibility)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S3 heard in ??

A

chronic sev. mitral regurg, chronic aortic regurg, heart failure assoc. with DCM (sudden limitations of ventr. movement during rapid passive diastolic filling, suggests ventricular enlargement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

exudates demontrate ?? (vs transudates)

A

^protein (>0.5), ^LDH (>0.6, >2/3 serum)
caused by infection, cancer, PE due to increased cap perm and reduced “sieving” of proteins

transudate is cause by hypoalbuminema, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

splenectomy will result in reduced risk of ??

A

bilirubin gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

My. gravis can present with difficulty chewing and diplopia. there is a common association between myasthenia gravis and ??

A

thymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

does DKA present with hypernatremia or hyponatremia?

A

hyponatremia; osmotic activity of glucose in serum causes Na+ to drib 1.6 mEq/L for every 100 mg/dL rise in glucose (osmotic diuresis–>H2O, Na+ loss)
other findings: ^K+ (H+ into cells, K+ out), ^NH3 (proteolysis)

18
Q

external female genitalia with vagina ending in blind pouch, think ??

A
genotypic male (phenotypic female): complete androgen insensitivity
^testosterone, ^LH, normal FSH
19
Q

premie presenting with decrebrate posturing and bilateral thrombi in lateral ventricles, think ?? due to ??

A

intraventricular hemorrhage due to germinal matrix fragility (matrix involutes by term)

20
Q

carboxyl tails of protein receptors can be anchored to plasma membranes via ??

A

palmitoylation (increases protein hydrophobicity)

21
Q

low Ca2+, ^PTH, ^Phos

think ??

A

pseudohyperPTH: end organ resistance to PTH: Albright hereditary osteodystrophy: short stature and finger/toe bones

IN CONTRAST: vitamin D deficiency: low Ca2+, ^PTH, LOW Phos (PTH trashes Phos)

22
Q

hepatomegaly, DM, arthropathy, pit hormone deficiencies (hypogonadism)m hyperpigmentation, RCM, infections, think ??

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

classic triad: cirrhosis, DM, hyperpigmentation- “bronze DM”

23
Q

preproinsulin–>proinsulin happens where ??

A

edge of RER, N-terminal signal peptide goes to cytoplasm, proinsulin to RER

  • proinsulin then cleaved to insulin and C-peptide, packed in secretory granules in RER
  • vesicles travel to Golgi
  • vesicles secreted out into EC space
24
Q

maple syrup urine disease is a deficiency of ?? which requires this cofactor ?

A

branched chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase

requires vitamin B1 (thiamine)

25
Q

a-thalassemia seen in this population?
what seen on smear?
most severe would result in?

A

Asian
hypochromic, microcytic cells
HbBarts (4 y chains): hydrops fetalis: anasarca, ascities, plerual/pericaridial effusions, incompatible with life

26
Q

the seminiferous tubules and epididymis must maintain ^testosterone relative to circulation. this is accomplished by ?? which are synthesized by ??

A

androgen binding protein (ABP) synthesized by Sertoli cells

27
Q

ablation of ?? can reduce armpit sweating

A

thoracic sympathetic trunk

28
Q

PE: PaO2? PaCO2? pH?

A

decreased PaO2 (hypoxemia, V/Q mismatch), decreased PaCO2 (hyperventilating), ^pH (respiratory alkalosis)

29
Q

red man syndrome with vancomycin tx is worsened with ?? and is due to ??

A

worsened with rapid administration, it is a result of histamine release due to nonspecific mast cell degranulation, NOT an IgE mediated allergic reaction

30
Q

right ventricular heart failure and hypertrophy, what changes in lung?

A

pulmonary endothelial dysfunction (pulm. arterial HTN)

In contrast, alveolar hyaline membrane formation is seen in ARDS, which is not typically assoc. w. pulm. HTN

31
Q

heavy menstrual bleeding, anemia, distortion of uterus size think ??

A

leiomyoma

In contrast: endometriosis is typically outside uterus and will not present with endometrial bleeding, endometrial polyps can cause bleeding but not uterine enlargement

32
Q

hypoglycemia after fasting, inappropriately low ketone bodies, think ??

A

impaired Beta-oxidation of FAs: medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (most common)

33
Q

increasing amount of enzyme available will alter Km and Vmax how?

A

Vmax will increase, but no change in Km

34
Q

how to deal with ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy

A

“trap” ammonia in the GIT by acidification w. lactulose (NH3–>NH4+)
also: Rifaximin to decrease􏰂 colonic ammoniagenic bacteria
Benzoate, phenylacetate, or phenylbutyrate to bind to NH4+ and lead to excretion

35
Q

impaired mineralization of ?? is seen in osteomalacia (Vit D def)
?? in osteoporosis
?? in Paget’s

A

osteomalacia: osteoid
osteoporosis: compact and trabecular

Paget’s: abnormal formation of lamellar bone

36
Q

the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx responsible for sound production EXCEPT for the ??

A

cricothyroid (external laryngeal nerve)

37
Q

In general, DNA viruses replicate in the ?? (except poxvirus)

RNA viruses replicate in the ??

A

nucleus

cytoplasm

38
Q

nerve fibers that are unmyelinated include ?

A

those responsible for slow pain, heat sensation, and olfaction

most efferents are myelin ate EXCEPT postganglionic autonomic neurons

39
Q

acute tubular necrosis (ATN) can be due to ?

characterized by ?

A

toxins or ischemia (frequently affecting the medullary regions)
-focal necrosis of tubular epithelium in renal medulla, tubular cell detachment from BM, and tubular lumen occlusion w. cellular debris and casts

40
Q

intersitial nephritis may present like ATN with interstitial inflammation and edema w. possible tubular damage but will also have ??

A

an intense leukocytic infiltrate