1-3: Intro, biologics Flashcards

1
Q

study of AEs of chemical, biological, or physical agents on living organisms and the environment

A

toxicology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

substances that cause death, injury, or harm

A

poison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chemical/ physical agent/ substance having the characteristics of producing an undesirable or adverse health effect

A

toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ability of a toxic agent to cause adverse effects in living organisms

A

toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

chemical/ physical agent/ substance that produces AEs on biological organisms (anthropogenic source), may be chemical or physical (ex- pesticides)- typically man made

A

toxicant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

toxic substance (peptides or proteins) that is produced by biological systems such as plants, animals, fungi, or bacteria. Venoms are toxins produced by a bite or sting- typically natural

A

toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

anything that can produce an AE (chemical (cocaine), physical (radiation), or biological (venom))

A

toxic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

organisms that invade and multiply within another organism and produce their effects by biological activity are not classified as toxic agents but biological agents (ex- COVID)

A

biological agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

invading organism excretes a chemical that causes the toxicity (ex- tetanus)

A

biological toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T lymphocytes sense foreign peptide fragments presented by

A

antigen presenting cells- MHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

collection of antibodies from a variety of B cells which are capable of recognizing multiple epitopes on the antigen

A

polyclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antibody from single B cell which are only capable of recognizing a distinctive epitope

A

monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

solid organ transplant prolongs life by

A

~4yrs in most patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common solid organ transplant

A

kidney graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the graft rejection sequence

A

organ recipient recognizes graft as foreign → activates B and T cells = differentiate/ divide/ generate immune mediators (ex- cytokines) to upregulate the immune system → host immune system attacks the graft → graft destruction → eventual graft rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe the immune process from when the T cell receptor identifies the antigen bound to the MHC on APC

A

cosimulatory signal activated (CD 80/86-CD28) = activates intracellular activities = increases IL2 generation = feedback amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the purpose of induction therapy

A

enhance initial immunosuppressive effects + delay usage of nephrotoxic agents (Ex- calcineurin inhibitors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

induction therapy is a _______ course, often ________ with maintenance tx

A

short course
overlapping with maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 options for induction therapy

A

depleting agents
immune modulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe depleting agents

A

depletes T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe immune modulators

A

inhibits IL2 associated activation of T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

High immune risk/ steroid sparing = preferred to use ______ as induction therapy

A

depleting agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

low/ medium immunological risk = preferred to use ________________ as induction tx

A

immune modulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

rank the induction agents from low to high risk

A

no induction < basiliximab < alemtuzumab < antithymocyte globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe 3 cases where there would be lower risk of rejecting transplant

A

zero HLA mismatch, live donor, caucasian, lower panel reactive antibody, absence of donor specific antibody, blood group compatibility, immediate graft function, short cold ischemia time, first transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe 3 cases where there would be higher risk of rejecting transplant

A

more HLA mismatches, younger recipient + older donor age, african-american ethnicity, high panel reactive antibody, presence of donor specific antibody, blood group incompatibility, delayed onset of graft function, long cold ischemia time, retransplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is antithymocyte globulin

A

purified gamma globulin from rabbits or horses immunized with human thymocytes

28
Q

ATG is

29
Q

rATG is

30
Q

rabbit ATG is ____ immunogenic, ______ potent compared to equine

A

less immunogenic, more potent

31
Q

agglutination og ATG on as cellular surface results in

A

complement induction + cell mediated cytotoxicity to
phagocytosis by macrophages + necrosis/ apoptosis

32
Q

ant thymocyte globulin binds to

A

T cell surface receptors

33
Q

T or F: antithymocyte globulins can affect B cells or other leukocytes

34
Q

antithymocyte globulin can only be adminsitered

35
Q

ATG distribution

A

binds to circulating lymphocytes, granulocytes, platelets = poor tissue distribution

36
Q

ATG elimination

A

very little urinary excretion, no typical phase 1 or 2 metabolism

37
Q

PK interactions against ATG

A

minimal due to lack of renal excretion + conventional phase 1/2 metabolism

38
Q

how is ATG metabolized

A

proteolysis in the liver +/- reticuloendothelial systems
endocytosis + pinocytosis and degradation in lysosomes

39
Q

MOA of serum sickness to ATG

A

formation and deposition of antibody-ATG complex in tissues = arthralgia + painful joints, ↓ LT graft survival,

40
Q

common infusion related SEs

A

chills/ fever/ itching/ erythema

41
Q

how to tx common ATG infusionr eactions

A

prophylactic antihistamine, antipyretics (ex- APAP), slow infusion (4-6hrs)

42
Q

how tto avoid phlebitis from ATG

A

infuse ATG through central vein

43
Q

how to tx ATG anaphylaxis

A

stop ATG inf + admin epi, steroids, do not restart

44
Q

how to tx ATG hemolysis

A

transfusion, pharmtx (eg mannitol to ↓ osmotic swelling of RBCs), hold ATG PRN

45
Q

describe thrombocytopenia as a SE to ATG tx + treatment

A

transient in kidney transplant pts → platelet count usually return to normal w/out stopping ATG, may req platelet transfusion in resistant cases

46
Q

how to treat respiratory distress from ATG

A

possible sign of anaphylaxis → can hold ATG, admin antihistamine, epi, corticosteroids

47
Q

chest, flank, back pain to ATF infusion is possibly a sx of

A

anaphylaxis

48
Q

persistent hypotension from ATG infusion is a possible sx of

A

anaphylaxis

49
Q

how to tx persistent hypotension from ATG

A

possible sx of anaphylaxis → stop ATG inf + admin epi, steroids, do no restart ATG, pressors PRN

50
Q

monoclonal antibodies ADME

A

same as ATG

51
Q

OKT3 (muromonab) is a

A

depleting agent

52
Q

alemtuzumab is a

A

depleting agent

53
Q

OKT3 MOA

A

murine monoclonal antibody, binds to CD3 on the T receptor complex on the surface of T lymphocytes, inactivates T cells = eventual phagocytosis

54
Q

OKT3 indication

A

solid organ transplants

55
Q

alemtuzumab indication

A

off label for solid organ transplant for induction + tx of acute rejection

56
Q

alemtuzumab MOA

A

humanized monoclonal antibody agent against CD52 surface antigen (T and B lymphocytes, macrophages, monocytes, eosinophils), binding to CD52 = antibody dependent lysis = T and B cell removal from various tissues = complete lymphocyte depletion

57
Q

basilizimab indication

A

induction tx in kidney transplant
allows delayed initiation or low dose calcineurin inhibitor

58
Q

basiliximab MOA

A

chimeric monoclonal antibody which binds competitively to the alpha chain on the CD25 protein (IL2 receptor) on activated T lymphocytes = prevents IL2 mediated T cell activation/ proliferation, immunomodulatory, non depleting

59
Q

belatacept indication

A

alt to calcineurin inhibitors fro prophylaxis of organ rejection in kidney graft recipients in conjunction wiht basiliximab induction, mycophenolate mofetil, and steroids
first MAB maintenance tx in organ transplant

60
Q

belatacept MOA

A

blocks T cell costimulation inhibitor (binds CD80/86 on APC = reduces interactions and activation = T cell apoptosis)

61
Q

belatacept must be used in conjunction with

A

basilizimab, mycophenolate mofetil, and steroids

62
Q

which biologic sees post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder in Epstein- Barr virus seronegative patients

A

belatacept

63
Q

belatacept has a modified ____ segment connected to the extracellular domain of human ______ with ___ mutations to enhance bindign to CD80 /86

A

modified Fc segment
CTLA4
2 mutations

64
Q

leukopenia is more common with _________ agents

A

lymphocyte depleting agents

65
Q

leukopenia would be more expected with
1. OKT3
2. belataceptt
3. mycophenolate mofetil
4. steroids

66
Q

there is a higher incidence of cytomegalovirus infection with

A

depleting agents

67
Q

rATGs are associated with
1. melanoma
2. nonhodkin’s lymphoma
3. colorectal cancer
4. kidney disease