005 Flashcards
The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called
a. redundancy.
b. pleiotropy.
c. autocrine stimulation.
d. endocrine effect.
b. pleiotropy.
Which of the following can be attributed to IL-1?
a. Mediator of the innate immune response
b. Differentiation of stem cells
c. Halts growth of virally infected cells
d. Stimulation of mast cells
a. Mediator of the innate immune response
Which of the following are target cells for IL-3?
a. Myeloid precursors
b. Lymphoid precursors
c. Erythroid precursors
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
A lack of IL-4 might result in which of the following?
a. Inability to fight off viral infections
b. Increased risk of tumors
c. Lack of IgE
d. Decreased eosinophil count
c. Lack of IgE
Which of the following is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
a. IFN-
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. IL-10
c. IL-2
Which chemokine receptor does HIV need for cellspecific binding?
a. CCR1
b. CCR3
c. CCR4
d. CCR5
d. CCR5
IFN-α and IFN-β differ in which way from IFN-у?
a. IFN- α and IFN-β are called immune interferons, and IFN- у is not.
b. IFN- α and IFN-β primarily activate macrophages, while IFN-у halts viral activity.
c. They are made primarily by activated T cells, while IFN-у is made by fibroblasts.
d. IFN-α and IFN-β inhibit cell proliferation, while IFN- β stimulates antigen presentation by class II MHC molecules.
d. IFN-α and IFN-β inhibit cell proliferation, while IFN- β stimulates antigen presentation by class II MHC molecules.
A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms:
high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms?
a. IL-2
b. TNF
c. IL-12
d. IL-7
b. TNF
IL-10 acts as an antagonist to what cytokine?
a. IL-4
b. TNF- α
c. IFN- у
d. TGF-β
c. IFN- у
Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?
a. Blast formation
b. T-cell proliferation
c. Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis
d. ELISA testing
d. ELISA testing
The classical complement pathway is activated by
a. most viruses.
b. antigen–antibody complexes.
c. fungal cell walls.
d. All of the above
b. antigen–antibody complexes.
All of the following are characteristic of complement components except
a. normally present in serum.
b. mainly synthesized in the liver.
c. present as active enzymes.
d. heat-labile.
c. present as active enzymes.
All of the following are true of the recognition unit except
a. it consists of C1q, C1r, and C1s.
b. the subunits require calcium for binding together.
c. binding occurs at the FC region of antibody molecules.
d. Clq becomes an active esterase.
d. Clq becomes an active esterase.
Which is referred to as C3 convertase?
a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. iC3Bb
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?
a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4
c. C1q
Which of the following describes the role of properdin in the alternative pathway?
a. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase
b. Conversion of B to Bb
c. Inhibition of C3 convertase formation
d. Binding to the initiating antigen
a. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase
Which best characterizes the membrane attack complex?
a. Each pathway utilizes different factors to form it.
b. C5 through C9 are not added in any particular order.
c. One MAC unit is sufficient to lyse any type of cell.
d. C9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel.
d. C9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel.
All of the following represent functions of the complement system except
a. decreased clearance of antigen–antibody complexes.
b. lysis of foreign cells.
c. increase in vascular permeability.
d. migration of neutrophils to the tissues.
a. decreased clearance of antigen–antibody complexes.
Which of the following is true of the amplification loop in complement activation?
a. It is found in the alternative pathway.
b. iC3 binds factor B to generate amplification.
c. C3b is the product that is increased.
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site?
a. Factor B
b. Factor D
c. C3B
d. Factor I
a. Factor B
A lack of CR1 receptors on red blood cells would result in which of the following?
a. Decreased binding of C3b to red blood cells
b. Lack of clearance of immune complexes by the spleen
c. Increased breakdown of C3b to C3d and C3dg
d. All of the above
b. Lack of clearance of immune complexes by the spleen
A lack of CR2 on cell membranes would result in which of the following?
a. Decrease in hemolysis
b. Increased susceptibility to infection
c. Decreased antibody production
d. Increase in antibody of the IgG class
c. Decreased antibody production
Why is complement not activated with anti-Rh (D) antibodies?
a. Rh antigens stimulate little antibody production.
b. Rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells.
c. Rh antibodies are not capable of fixing complement.
d. DAF protects red blood cells from buildup of antibody.
b. Rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells.
The CH50 test measures which of the following?
a. The dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50 percent of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells
b. Functioning of both the classical and alternative pathways
c. Genetic deficiencies of any of the complement components
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following would be most effective in preventing bystander lysis of red blood cells?
a. C1INH
b. Factor B
c. DAF
d. Factor H
c. DAF
Decreased CH50 levels may be caused by
a. inadequate refrigeration of specimen.
b. coagulation-associated complement consumption.
c. autoimmune disease process.
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Benign tumors are characterized as:
a. Growing slowly
b. Resembling the parent tissue
c. Usually invading tissues (metastasizing)
d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
Match the following.
2. _______ Benign tumor arising from glands
3. _______ Benign tumor arising from epithelial surfaces
4. _______ Malignant tumor of connective tissue
5. _______ Malignant tumor of glandular epithelium (e.g., colon)
a. Sarcoma
b. Adenoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Papillomas
B
D
A
C
Which of the following factors is not a risk factor in the development of cancer?
a. Smoking
b. Low-fat diet
c. Obesity
d. Sedentary lifestyle
b. Low-fat diet
Risk factors associated with breast cancer include:
a. First-degree family history of breast cancer
b. Pregnancy after 30 years of age
c. Use of estrogen (oral contraceptives or hormone replacement)
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
True or False
Antibodies dominate body defenses against cancer.
False
True or False
Tumors express antigens that can be recognized as foreign by the immune system of the tumor-bearing host.
True
True or False
The normal immune response frequently fails to prevent the growth of tumors.
True
The cells involved in the immune response to tumors are:
a. T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, and macrophages
b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes, NK cells, and macrophages
c. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes
d. CD8+ lymphocytes, monocytes, and basophils
b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes, NK cells, and macrophages
Which of the following is not an environmental factor associated with carcinogenesis?
a. Ultraviolet light
b. Organically grown herbs
c. Benzene
d. Asbestos
b. Organically grown herbs
The risk factor associated with the development of basal cell carcinoma or malignant melanoma is:
a. Infrared light
b. Sunless tanning lotions
c. Ultraviolet light
d. Strobe lights
c. Ultraviolet light
Patients with Down syndrome have a higher incidence of:
a. Leukemia
b. Breast cancer
c. Prostate cancer
d. Teratomas
a. Leukemia
Tumor cells typically carry _______ genetic change(s).
a. One
b. Two
c. Three to six
d. Multiple
d. Multiple
Cancer-predisposing genes may:
a. Affect a host’s ability to repair damage to DNA
b. Increase cell cohesiveness
c. Decrease cell motility
d. Enhance the host’s immune ability to recognize and eradicate incipient tumors
d. Enhance the host’s immune ability to recognize and eradicate incipient tumors
Oncogenes are:
a. Genetic targets of carcinogens
b. Altered versions of normal genes
c. Detectable in 15% to 20% of a variety of human tumors
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- ______ Mutation or overexpression of oncogenes
- ______ Mutation or overexpression of tumor suppressor genes
a. Results in the production of nonfunctional proteins that can no longer control cell proliferation
b. Produces proteins that can stimulate uncontrolled cell growth
A
B
Which of the following is used to determine the risk of developing cancer?
a. p53 gene
b. c-erbB-2 gene
c. Squamous cell carcinoma antigen
d. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
a. p53 gene
A tumor marker assay is most useful:
a. To screen patients for malignancies
b. To monitor a cancer patient for disease recurrence
c. To determine the degree of tumor burden
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- ______ Tumor-specific antigens
- ______ Tumor-associated antigens
- ______ Carcinofetal antigens
a. Cell surface molecules coded for by tumorigenic viruses
b. Gene products resulting from gene derepression
c. Antigens uniquely related to each tumor
d. Probably do not produce unique antigens
C
A
B
Carcinoembryonic antigen is:
a. An oncofetal protein, elevated in some types of cancer, that is found on normal fetal endocrine tissue in the second trimester of gestation
b. An elevated oncofetal protein, strongly correlated with various malignancies, that is found on normal
fetal endocrine tissue in the second trimester of gestation
c. Used clinically to monitor tumor progress in some types of patients, persistently elevated even in residual disease or poor therapeutic response
d. Both b & c
d. Both b & c
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP):
a. Is synthesized by the fetal liver and yolk sac
b. Can be elevated in some nonneoplastic conditions
c. Is a very reliable marker for monitoring a patient’s response to chemotherapy and radiation therapy
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
β-hCG is not:
a. Elevated in normal pregnancy
b. A sensitive tumor marker
c. Elevated in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
d. Elevated in teratocarcinoma and choriocarcinoma
c. Elevated in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
Prostate-specific antigen is:
a. Prostate tissue–specific
b. Prostate cancer–specific
c. Not useful for monitoring response to therapy in patients with prostate cancer
d. Not directly proportional to tumor volume in prostate malignancies
a. Prostate tissue–specific
- ______ CEA
- ______ AFP
- ______ CA 125
- ______ CA 19-9
- ______ CA 27-29
a. Frequently elevated in endometrially derived gastrointestinal neoplasms
b. Most useful in ovarian and endometrial carcinomas
c. Increased levels may indicate recurrent breast carcinoma.
d. May be elevated in patients with gastrointestinal malignancies
e. Should be quantitated with β-hCG initially in all patients with teratocarcinoma
A
E
B
D
C
Which tumor marker is used to monitor patients with breast cancer for recurrence of disease?
a. CA 15-3
b. Estrogen receptor (ER)
c. Cathepsin-D
d. CA 50
a. CA 15-3
- ______ 6-Mercaptopurine
- ______ Corticosteroids
- ______ Alkylating agents
- ______ Vinca alkaloids
a. Cell cycle active, phase-specific
b. Cell cycle active, phase-nonspecific
c. Non–cell cycle active
d. b or c
A
C
D
A
Tamoxifen acts as a(an) _______ pharmaceutical agent.
a. Cell cycle active, phase-specific
b. Non–cell cycle active
c. Estrogen receptor–blocking
d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
Active host immunotherapy responses may be achieved by:
a. Transferring immune cells into host.
b. Vaccination with killed tumor cells.
c. Administration of tumor-specific MAbs.
d. Administration of IFN-α
b. Vaccination with killed tumor cells.
- _______ Benzene
- _______ Estrogen
- _______ Epstein-Barr virus
- _______ Hepatitis B
- _______ Asbestos
a. Endometrial cancer
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma virus
d. Leukemia
e. Mesothelioma
D
A
C
B
E
