003 Flashcards

1
Q

A function of the cell-mediated immune response not associated with humoral immunity is:

a. Defense against viral and bacterial infection
b. Initiation of rejection of foreign tissues and tumors
c. Defense against fungal and bacterial infection
d. Antibody production

A

b. Initiation of rejection of foreign tissues and tumors

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2
Q

The primary or central lymphoid organs in humans are the:

a. Bursa of Fabricius and thymus
b. Lymph nodes and thymus
c. Bone marrow and/or fetal liver and thymus
d. Lymph nodes and spleen

A

c. Bone marrow and/or fetal liver and thymus

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3
Q

All the following are a function of T cells except:

a. Mediation of delayed-hypersensitivity reactions
b. Mediation of cytolytic reactions
c. Regulation of the immune response
d. Synthesis of antibody

A

d. Synthesis of antibody

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4
Q

Match the type of lymphocyte with its function (use an answer only once).
4. ____ T cells
5. ____ B cells
6. ____ K-type lymphocytes
7. ____ Natural killer (NK) cells
a. Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) reaction
b. Cellular immune response
c. Cytotoxic reaction
d. Humoral response
e. Phagocytosis

A
  1. ____ T cells b
  2. ____ B cells d
  3. ____ K-type lymphocytes a
  4. ____ Natural killer (NK) cells c
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5
Q

Match the surface membrane marker with the appropriate normal T cell type.
8. ____ CD4
9. ____ CD8
10. ____ CD3
a. All or most T lymphocytes
b. Helper-inducer T cells
c. Suppressor-cytotoxic T cells

A
  1. ____ CD4 b
  2. ____ CD8 c
  3. ____ CD3 a
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6
Q

All the following are B cell surface membrane markers except:
a. sIg
b. Fc receptor
c. C3 receptor
d. CD4

A

d. CD4

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7
Q

Match the following congenital or acquired disorders with the major type of lymphocyte affected.
12. ____ Thymic hypoplasia
13. ____ AIDS
14. ____ Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
15. ____ Systemic lupus erythematosus
16. ____ Multiple myeloma
17. ____ Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
a. Congenital T cell disorder
b. Congenital B cell disorder
c. Acquired T cell disorder
d. Acquired B cell disorder

A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. C
  4. C
  5. D
  6. B
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8
Q

Most diseases associated with a primary defect are _______________ disorders.
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. Complement
d. Phagocytic

A

b. B cell

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9
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency is caused by:
a. T cell depletion
b. B cell depletion
c. Inappropriate development of stem cells
d. Phagocytic dysfunction

A

c. Inappropriate development of stem cells

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10
Q

DiGeorge’s syndrome is caused by:
a. Faulty embryogenesis
b. Deficiency of calcium in utero
c. Inappropriate stem cell development
d. Autosomal recessive disorder

A

a. Faulty embryogenesis

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11
Q

The major clinical manifestation of a B cell deficiency is:
a. Impaired phagocytosis
b. Diminished complement levels
c. Increased susceptibility to bacterial infections
d. Increased susceptibility to parasitic infections

A

c. Increased susceptibility to bacterial infections

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12
Q

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia is a(n):

a. Acquired disorder
b. Autosomal genetic disorder
c. Sex-linked genetic disorder
d. Disorder occurring primarily in girls

A

c. Sex-linked genetic disorder

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13
Q

Which of the following disorders does not result in a secondary immunodeficiency?
a. Sickle cell disease
b. Uremia
c. AIDS
d. Poison ivy hypersensitivity

A

d. Poison ivy hypersensitivity

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14
Q

The secondary lymphoid tissues in mammals are:
a. Thymus and bursa of Fabricius
b. Lymph nodes
c. Spleen
d. Both b and c

A

d. Both b and c

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15
Q

In mammalian immunologic development, the precursors of lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:
a. Yolk sac
b. Lymph nodes
c. Spleen
d. Both b and c

A

d. Both b and c

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16
Q

The thymus is embryologically derived from the:
a. Yolk sac
b. Pharyngeal pouches
c. Lymphoblasts
d. Bone marrow

A

b. Pharyngeal pouches

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17
Q

The process of aging causes the thymus to:
a. Decrease in size
b. Not to change over time
c. Lose cellularity
d. Both a and c

A

d. Both a and c

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18
Q

T lymphocytes can also be referred to as:
a. Mast cells
b. Memory cells
c. Phagocytic cells
d. Short-lived cel

A

b. Memory cells

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19
Q

Which of the following characteristics of T lymphocytes is false?
a. Can form a suppressor-cytotoxic subset
b. Can be helpers-inducers
c. Can be CD4+ or CD8+
d. Can synthesize and secrete immunoglobulin

A

d. Can synthesize and secrete immunoglobulin

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20
Q

Match each type of lymphocyte to the appropriate function.
31. ____ T lymphocytes
32. ____ B lymphocytes
a. Cellular immune response
b. Humoral antibody response

A
  1. A
  2. B
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21
Q

Match each to the appropriate function.
33. ____ Cytotoxic or effector T cells
34. ____ Helper or regulator T cells
35. ____ Suppressor T cells C
a. Secrete a variety of cytokines
b. Recognize antigens associated with MHC class I
c. Inhibit response of helper T cells

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
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22
Q

Natural killer cells:
a. Produce interferon
b. Produce IL-2
c. Were previously called null cells
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

23
Q

Calculate the absolute lymphocyte count when the following conditions exist: Total leukocyte count = 20 × 109/L
Relative percentage of lymphocytes = 50%
a. 5 × 10^9/L
b. 10 × 10^9/L
c. 15 × 10^9/L
d. 20 × 10^9/L

A

b. 10 × 10^9/L

24
Q

The complement system is:
a. A heat-labile series of plasma proteins
b. Composed of many proteinases
c. Composed of three interrelated pathways
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

25
Q

All the following are complement-controlling proteins except:
a. C1 (INH)
b. Factor I
c. Factor H
d. C3

A

d. C3

26
Q

The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of cleavage of complement component _____.
a. C3
b. C5
c. C7
d. C8

A

a. C3

27
Q

All the following result from complement activation except:
a. Decreased cell susceptibility to phagocytosis
b. Blood vessel dilation and increased vascular permeability
c. Production of inflammatory mediators
d. Cytolysis or hemolysis

A

a. Decreased cell susceptibility to phagocytosis

28
Q

Complete the following activation sequence of the classic complement pathway: C1 to C_(5)-C_ (6)- _-C3-C(7) ___-C6-C7- C(8) _-C9
BACD
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8

A

4
2
5
8

29
Q

Which complement component is present in the greatest quantity in plasma?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8

A

b. 3

30
Q

Arrange the three stages of the classic complement pathway in their correct sequence.
10. _____
11. _____
12. _____
a. Enzymatic activation
b. Membrane attack
c. Recognition

A

C
A
B

31
Q

Fixation of the C1 complement component is related to each of the following factors except:
a. Molecular weight of the antibody
b. The presence of IgM antibody
c. The presence of most IgG subclasses
d. Spatial constraints

A

a. Molecular weight of the antibody

32
Q

At which stage does the complement system reach its full amplitude?
a. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4

A

c. C3

33
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the membrane attack complex?
a. C3b
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8

A

a. C3b

34
Q

The final steps (C8 and C9) in complement activation lead to:

a. Cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Immune opsonin adherence
d. Virus neutralization

A

a. Cell lysis

35
Q

Select the appropriate pathway response.
17. _____ Activated by antigen-antibody complexes
18. _____ Generates an active (C3b, Bb) C3 convertase
19. _____ Activated by microbial and mammalian cell surfaces
20. _____ Terminates in a membrane attack complex
a. Classic pathway
b. Alternative pathway
c. Both a and b

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. B
  4. C
36
Q

The alternate complement pathway is(can be):
a. Initiated by the formation of antigen-antibody reactions
b. Predominantly a non–antibody-initiated pathway
c. Activated by factors such as endotoxins
d. Both b and c

A

d. Both b and c

37
Q

Which of the following conditions can be associated with hypercomplementemia?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

a. Myocardial infarction

38
Q

Match the following complement deficiency states in humans with their respective deficient components. (Use an answer only once.)
23. _____ C2
24. _____ C5 dysfunction
25. _____ C6 and C7
26. _____ C8
a. Xeroderma pigmentosa
b. Leiner’s disease
c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
d. Recurrent pyogenic infections

A
  1. D
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
39
Q

A (the) nonspecific component(s) of the immune system is (are):
a. Complement
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Both a and b

A

d. Both a and b

40
Q

Match the following:
28. _____ Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
29. _____ Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
30. _____ Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
31. _____ Interleukin-5 (IL-5)
a. T cell growth factor
b. Lymphocyte-activating factor
c. B cell growth factor 2
d. Multicolony colony-stimulating factor

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. D
  4. C
41
Q

Match the following:
32. _____ Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
33. _____ Interleukin-7 (IL-7)
34. _____ Interleukin-8 (IL-8)
35. _____ Interleukin-12 (IL-12)
a. NK cell stimulatory factor
b. Stimulates neutrophils in chemotaxis
c. Induce acute phase response
d. Stimulates expansion of immature T and B cells

A
  1. C
  2. D
  3. B
  4. A
42
Q

Match the following:
36. _____ Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
37. _____ Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
38. _____ Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
39. _____ Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
a. Enhances cytolytic activity of lymphokine-activated killer cells (LAK)
b. Potent mediator in acute-phase response
c. Stimulates hematopoietic cells
d. Enhances production of IgG and inhibits production of IgE by activated B cells

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. D
43
Q

Match the following:
40. _____ Interleukin-5 (IL-5)
41. _____ Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
42. _____ Interleukin-7 (IL-7)
43. _____ Interleukin-8 (IL-8)
a. Induction of secretion of Ig
b. Activates the respiratory burst
c. Stimulates early B cell progenitor cells
d. Activates eosinophils

A
  1. D
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
44
Q
  1. _____ Interleukin-9 (IL-9)
  2. _____ Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
  3. _____ Interleukin-11 (IL-11)
  4. _____ Interleukin-12 (IL-12)
    a. Inhibits cytokine synthesis
    b. Increases the number of IgG-secreting B lymphocytes
    c. Stimulates proliferation of T cells and mast cells
    d. Enhances the activity of cytotoxic effector T cells
A

C
A
B
D

45
Q
  1. _____ Interleukin-13 (IL-13)
  2. _____ Interleukin-14 (IL-14)
  3. _____ Interleukin-15 (IL-15)
  4. _____ Interleukin-16 (IL-16}
    a. Inhibits activation of macrophages
    b. Produced in response to viral infection
    c. Acts as a T cell chemoattractant
    d. Acts as a B cell growth factor
A

A
D
B
C

46
Q
  1. _____ Interleukin-17 (IL-17)
  2. _____ Interleukin-18 (IL-18)
  3. _____ Interleukin-19 (IL-19)
  4. _____ Interleukin-20 (IL-20)
    a. Acts as a synergist with IL-12
    b. Suppresses activities of Th1 and Th2
    c. Associated with skin inflammations
    d. Induces granulopoiesis
A

D
A
B
C

47
Q
  1. _____ Interleukin-21 (IL-21)
  2. _____ Interleukin-22 (IL_22)
  3. _____ Interleukin-23 (IL-23)
  4. _____ Interleukin-25 (IL-25)
    a. Promotes increased production of T cells
    b. Somewhat similar to IFN-α, IFN-β, and IFN-γ
    c. A member of the IL-17 cytokine family
    d. Shares some in vivo functions with IL-12
A

A
B
D
C

48
Q

True or False

  1. _____ Cytokines secreted by lymphocytes are also called lymphokines.
  2. _____ Cytokines are polypeptide products of activated cells.
  3. _____ Cytokines are released only in response to specific antigens.
  4. _____ Most cytokines have multiple activities and act on numerous cell types.
A

T
T
F
T

49
Q
  1. _____ Interleukins
  2. _____ Interferons
  3. _____ Tumor necrosis factor
  4. _____ Colony-stimulating factors
    a. Unable to stimulate T cell proliferation
    b. Act(s) between leukocytes
    c. Discovered in virally infected cells
    d. Provide(s) a link between the lymphoid hematopoietic system
A

B
C
A
D

50
Q

Transforming growth factors:
a. Are products of virally transformed cells
b. Can be a potent inhibitor of IL-1–induced T cell proliferation in their beta form c. Are important in inflammation, tumor defense, and cell growth
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

51
Q

Which activity is associated with interferon?
a. Enhances phagocytosis
b. Retards expression of specific genes
c. Promotes complement-mediated cytolysis
d. Interferes with viral replication

A

d. Interferes with viral replication

52
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) differs from IL-1 in that TNF is not able to:
a. Mediate an acute inflammatory reaction
b. Increase the expression of IL-2 receptors
c. Enhance the proliferation and differentiation of B lymphocytes
d. Stimulate T cell proliferation

A

d. Stimulate T cell proliferation

53
Q
  1. _____ Tumor necrosis factor
  2. _____ Colony-stimulating factors
  3. _____ Transforming growth factors
    a. Stimulates hematopoietic growth factor
    b. Encoding gene located in the HLA region between the HLA-DR and HLA-B loci
    c. Induce phenotypic transformation in non-neoplastic cells
A

B
A
C