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Immunology And Serology > 002 > Flashcards

002 Flashcards

1
Q

A synonym for an antigenic determinant is:

a. Immunogen
b. Epitope
c. Binding site
d. Polysaccharide

A

b. Epitope

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2
Q

Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:
a. Allogenic
b. Heterogenic
c. Autogenic
d. Isogenic

A

a. Allogenic

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3
Q

Antigenic substances can be composed of:
a. Large polysaccharides
b. Proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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4
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an antigen is the least important?
a. Foreignness
b. Degradability
c. Molecular weight
d. Presence of large repeating polymers

A

d. Presence of large repeating polymers

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5
Q

The chemical composition of an antibody is:
a. Protein
b. Lipid
c. Carbohydrate
d. Any of the above

A

a. Protein

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6
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate antibody class (use an answer only once).
6. ____ IgM
7. ____ IgG
8. ____ IgA
9. ____ IgE
10. ____ IgD
a. Highest in plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
b. Shortest half-life
c. 19S
d. Can exist as a dimer
e. No known subclasses

A
  1. C
  2. A
  3. D
  4. B
  5. E
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7
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate antibody (use an answer only once).

  1. ____ IgG
  2. ____ IgM
  3. ____ IgA
  4. ____ IgD
  5. ____ IgE
    a. Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b. Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c. Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d. Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
    e. Produced early in an immune response
A
  1. ____ IgG b
  2. ____ IgM e
  3. ____ IgA a
  4. ____ IgD d
  5. ____ IgE c
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8
Q

Match each of the following antigenic determinant terms with its appropriate definition

  1. ____ Isotype
  2. ____ Allotype
  3. ____ Idiotype
    a. Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species
    b. Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species
    c. Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody
A
  1. ____ Isotype b
  2. ____ Allotype a
  3. ____ Idiotype c
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9
Q

Arrange the sequence of events of a typical antibody response.

  1. ____
  2. ____
  3. ____
  4. ____
    a. Plateau
    b. Lag phase
    c. Log phase
    d. Decline
A
  1. ____b
  2. ____ c
  3. ____ a
  4. ____ d
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10
Q

Which of the following statements is false about an anamnestic response versus a primary response?

a. Has a shorter lag phase
b. Has a longer plateau
c. Antibodies decline more gradually.
d. IgM antibodies predominate.

A

d. IgM antibodies predominate.

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11
Q

Which type of antibody is capable of placental transfer?

a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

b. IgG

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12
Q

Match the following terms and their respective definitions.

  1. ____ Specificity
  2. ____ Affinity
  3. ____ Avidity
  4. ____ Immune complex
    a. Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
    b. Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
    c. Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
    d. Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
A
  1. ____ Specificity c
  2. ____ Affinity a
  3. ____ Avidity d
  4. ____ Immune complex b
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13
Q

Which of the following type(s) of bonding is (are) involved in antigen-antibody reactions?
a. Hydrophobic
b. Hydrogen
c. Van der Waals
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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14
Q

Monovalent antibodies have also been referred to as:

a. Complete antibodies
b. Incomplete antibodies
c. none of the choices

A

b. Incomplete antibodies

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15
Q

Which of the following is an accurate statement about monoclonal antibodies (MAbs)?

a. MAbs are antibodies engineered to bind to a single epitope.
b. MAbs are purified antibodies cloned from a single cell.
c. MAbs are used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane characteristics.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct.

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16
Q

Antigens are characterized by all the following except that they:

a. Are usually large organic molecules
b. Are usually lipids
c. Can be glycolipids or glycoproteins
d. Are also called immunogens

A

b. Are usually lipids

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17
Q

The immunogenicity of an antigen depends greatly on:
a. Its biochemical composition
b. Being structurally unstable
c. Its degree of foreignness
d. Having a low molecular weight

A

c. Its degree of foreignness

18
Q

Antibodies are also referred to as:
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Haptens
c. Epitopes
d. Gamma globulins

A

a. Immunoglobulins

19
Q

Match the following immunoglobulins with the appropriate description. 35. ____ IgM
36. ____ IgG
37. ____ IgA
38. ____ IgE
39. ____ IgD
a. Accounts for 10% of Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
b. Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
c. Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
d. Makes up less than 1% of total immunoglobulins
e. Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms

A
  1. ____ IgM a
  2. ____ IgG e
  3. ____ IgA c
  4. ____ IgE b
  5. ____ IgD d
20
Q

Which of the following statements about IgM is false?
a. Composed of five basic subunits
b. More efficient in the activation of the complement cascade and agglutination than IgG
c. Predominant in an initial antibody response
d. Predominant in a secondary (anamnestic) response

A

d. Predominant in a secondary (anamnestic) response

21
Q

a secondary (anamnestic) response, all the following characteristics are correct except:
a. IgG is the predominant antibody type
b. It has a shorter lag phase
c. The antibody titer is lower
d. It has a more gradual decline in antibody response

A

c. The antibody titer is lower

22
Q

Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as:
a. Hydrogen bonding
b. Van der Waals forces
c. Electrostatic forces
d. Noncovalent bonding

A

d. Noncovalent bonding

23
Q

The strongest bond of antigen and antibody chiefly results from the:
a. Type of bonding
b. Goodness of fit
c. Antibody type
d. Quantity of antibody

A

b. Goodness of fit

24
Q

Monoclonal antibodies have all the following characteristics except:
a. Purified antibodies
b. Cloned from a single cell
c. Engineered to bind to a single specific antigen
d. Frequent occurrence in nature

A

d. Frequent occurrence in nature

25
Q

The site of hematopoiesis in the first month of gestation is the:
a. Yolk sac
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Bone marrow

A

a. Yolk sac

26
Q

The principal type of leukocyte in the process of phagocytosis is the:
a. Eosinophil
b. Basophil
c. Monocyte
d. Neutrophil

A

d. Neutrophil

27
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:
a. Oxidative metabolism
b. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils
c. Diapedesis
d. Chemotaxis

A

a. Oxidative metabolism

28
Q

A primary function of the eosinophil is:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Suppression of the inflammatory response
c. Reacting in acute, systemic hypersensitivity reactions
d. Antigen recognition

A

b. Suppression of the inflammatory response

29
Q

The cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system include:
a. Monocytes and promonocytes
b. Monocytes and macrophages
c. Lymphocytes and monocytes
d. Both a and b

A

d. Both a and b

30
Q

The host defense function(s) of monocytes-macrophages include(s):
a. Antigen presentation
b. Phagocytosis
c. Secretion of biologically active molecules
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

31
Q

The surface MHC class II gene product is important in:
a. Antigen recognition by T lymphocytes
b. Antigen recognition by B lymphocytes
c. Synthesis of antibody by plasma cells
d. Phagocytosis

A

a. Antigen recognition by T lymphocytes

32
Q

Match the appropriate monocyte-macrophage abnormality with its respective condition.

  1. ____ Defect in phagocytic killing
  2. ____ Defective monocyte cytotoxicity
  3. ____ Defective release of macrophage-activating factors
  4. ____ Depressed migration
  5. ____ Impaired phagocytosis

a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Burns or diabetes
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Corticosteroid therapy
e. Intracellular infections

A
  1. ____ Defect in phagocytic killing d
  2. ____ Defective monocyte cytotoxicity a
  3. ____ Defective release of macrophage-activating factors e
  4. ____ Depressed migration b
  5. ____ Impaired phagocytosis c
33
Q

Arrange the steps of phagocytosis in the proper sequence.

a. Digestion of bacteria
b. Increase in chemoattractants at site of tissue damage
c. Ingestion of bacteria
d. Movement of phagocytic cells

A

B
D
C
A

34
Q

Match the following cell types to their respective functions. (An answer can be used more than once.)

  1. ____ Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) leukocytes
  2. ____ Lymphocytes
  3. ____ Mononuclear monocytes-macrophages
  4. ____ Plasma cells B
    a. Primary phagocytic cells
    b. Antibody-synthesizing cells
    c. Recognition of foreign antigen and production of antibody
A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. A
  4. B
35
Q

Arrange the sites of blood cell development (hematopoiesis) in the embryo and fetus in the correct sequence of development.

  1. ____ Site of initial red blood cell production
  2. ____ Predominant site from 2 to 5 months of fetal life
  3. ____ Ultimate site of primary hematopoiesis

a. Liver and spleen
b. Yolk sac
c. Bone marrow

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
36
Q

Patients with a marked decrease in neutrophils or severe defects in neutrophil function have:
a. A high rate of infection
b. Recurrent systemic bacterial infections
c. Recurrent life-threatening fungal infections
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

37
Q

Match each disorder or deficiency to its characteristics.

  1. ____ Chronic granulomatosus disease
  2. ____ Lazy leukocyte syndrome
  3. ____ Chédiak-Higashi anomaly (syndrome)
  4. ____ Myeloperoxidase deficiency
    a. Marked defect in cellular response to chemotaxis
    b. Failure to exhibit increased anaerobic metabolism during phagocytosis
    c. Mild to marked defect in bactericidal ability of neutrophils
    d. Defective leukocyte locomotion
A
  1. B
  2. D
  3. A
  4. C
38
Q

Which statement about eosinophils is false?
a. They are homeostatic regulators of inflammation.
b. They attempt to suppress an inflammatory reaction.
c. They participate in hypersensitivity reactions.
d. They interact with the larval stages of some helminth parasites.

A

c. They participate in hypersensitivity reactions.

39
Q

Which statement about basophils is false?
a. They have a high concentration of heparin in the granules.
b. They have a high concentration of histamine in the granules.
c. They react with two adjacent IgA molecules on mast cells.
d. They are associated with anaphylactic shock

A

c. They react with two adjacent IgA molecules on mast cells.

40
Q

The cells that constitute the physiologic, mononuclear phagocyte system do not include:
a. Promonocytes and their precursors
b. Monocytes in circulating blood
c. Macrophages in tissues
d. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

A

d. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

Immunology And Serology (9 decks)

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