yuefbhjwdshiujknvsdiohuewjkd Flashcards

1
Q

investigation for bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT

  • tram tracking / signet ring sign
  • bronchiole wider than neighbouring arteriole
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2
Q

what does lung malignancy cause

A

exudative pleural effusion ie protein >35

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3
Q

thrombolysis drug

A

alteplase

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4
Q

curb65 score >4

A

admit to hospital

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5
Q

tumour marker for HCC

A

alphafeto protein

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6
Q

transmural

A

crohns

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7
Q

reduced goblet cells

A

uc

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8
Q

rockall and ggow/blatchford

A

upper gi bleeding / pre-endoscopy

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9
Q

hepatic encephalopathy grade 3

A

somnolent but arousable

0- nothing wrong
1 - tired / mild confusion / disordered sleep
2 - lethargic / asterixis
4 - coma

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10
Q

anaemia associated with autoimmune diseases

A

pernicious

vitB12

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11
Q

complication of Barrett oesophagus

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

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12
Q

dry skin dry eyes itching jaundice extreme fatigue

anti mitochondrial antibodies +

A

PBC

women under 40yrs

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13
Q

1st 6 weeks tx for h pylori

A

amoxicillin clarithromycin and a PPI

if still present post 6 weeks then try metronidazole instead of clarithromycin

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14
Q

h pylori pre endoscopy

A

The patient should not have taken antibiotics or bismuth products for four weeks and no PPI for two weeks before H. Pylori diagnosis

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15
Q

prophylaxis for hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose

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16
Q

what populations are you likely to see wolf parkinson white

A

younger pop.

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17
Q

if someone has pleuritic chest pain 1-6 weeks after an MI what we thinking !?

A

dresslers !!!!

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18
Q

what is dresslers

A

secondary pericariditis post MI

pleuritic chest pain
low grade fever
worse when lying down

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19
Q

hepatitis most associated with IVDUs

A

C

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20
Q

trans-oesophageal echocardiogram - when to use diagnostically ?

A

anything wrong with heart valves ie infective endocarditis ALWAYS do a TOE

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21
Q

is anaphylaxis any good for IE

A

nopeeeeee just prophylactic antibiotics

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22
Q

features of rheumatic fever

A

polyartritis
chorea
subcutaneous nodules
erythema magnum

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23
Q

left circumflex artery affected ?

A

anteroseptal leads

ie V1-v4

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24
Q

sympathetic activity on the GI system

A

reduced GI blood flow ie fight or flight response - blood is redirected to more things like skeletal muscle

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25
hirschsprungs disease
absence colonic innervation -absent or defective intramural nerves ie 1 month old baby not passing any stools for two weeks - bad constipation
26
most common cause of pre-hepatic jaundice
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency neonatal jaundice sickle cell anaemia gilberts
27
what is mainly responsible for the secretion of GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide)
presence of glucose in the duodenum K cells secrete GIP
28
what are the functions of GIP
induces insulin release from beta cells in the endocrine pancreas decreasing blood sugar levels (ie signal = glucose in the duodenum)
29
MoA of GIP
binds to a GPCR > ATP - cAMP > protein kinase A
30
does pyruvate > acetyl coa require o2
yeah bro if not it becomes lactate
31
enzyme required for pyruvate oxidation
pyruvate dehydrogenase 2 Co As are also required
32
by-products of pyruvate oxidation
two carbon dioxide molecules | two NADH+
33
which layer of the GI tract is responsible for peristalsis and segmentation
muscularis externa
34
how does the myenteric plexus work auerbach's
so food stuffs in the lumen will interact with epithelial cells and the cells can essentially tell if the food is in front of it or behind it , the cells signal the sensory neurones that connects the epithelial cells to the : ascending and descending neurone network in the muscularis externa the sensory neurones trigger either : ORAL -the ascending neurones to cause contraction of the circular inner muscularis via Ach and Sub. P -the descending neurones to cause relaxation of the outer longitudinal muscle via NO and VIP ABORAL the opposite essential ie Ach and Sub P redirected to longitudinal
35
parasympathetic action on GI tract
rest and digest
36
which cells in the intestinal crypts contain digestive enzymes
enterocytes
37
why does HF cause oedema then mate
reduced co kidneys aren't being perfused as well as they could be do can't filter blood as well (ie increase of solutes etc in circulation) this increases venous pressure this increase hydrostatic pressure this means that the pressure gradient needed for tissue fluid to be reabsorbed at the venue is decreased so lots of tissue fluid staying in the tissue =oedema
38
is a VSD a cyanotic lesion
not initially >pulmonary hypertension (eisenmenger's)
39
what congenital defect is most common in people with Down's Syndrome
VSD
40
what type of lesions is a PDA
ASD
41
how to calculate MEAN ARTERIAL PRESSURE not mapb
cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
42
chronic mechanism to compensate for HF
increase right atrial pressure
43
acute mechanisms to compensate for HF
increase sympathetic activity
44
in heart failure - excitation coupling is deranged by what ?
the upregulation of the sarcolemmal Na/Ca exchanger In heart failure, the sarcolemmal Na+/Ca2+ exchanger is upregulated. The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger is located in the sarcolemma, acting to transport Na+ into cardiomyocytes and Ca2+ out of cardiomyocytes.
45
what does adrenaline act on IN THE HEART
b1
46
what effect does adrenaline have on the funny current
increases
47
obligate anaerobe
killed by oxygen
48
microaerophile
needs lower oxygen levels
49
facultative anaerobe
can grow in both absence and presence of oxygen
50
anaerobic bacilli gram +
clostridium bacilli
51
what abx to treat coliforms
gentamicin
52
associated with staph epidermis infection
foreign devices
53
the three bacteriostatic antibiotics
macrolides tetracyclines trimethoprim
54
4cs
co-amoxiclav clindamycin cephalosporins / ceftriaxone ciprofloxacin
55
antibiotic resistance - CDE
change in gene to abx destruction of abx efflux pumps increase
56
when might FISH not be appropriate
looking for small chromosomal changes
57
Philadelphia chromosome
reciprocal translocation between 9 and 22
58
promoter mutation
no protein
59
missense mutation
different non-functioning protein
60
nonsense
short or absent protein
61
splice site mutation
abnormal or absent protein
62
peptide bond formation enzyme
peptidyl transferase
63
central dogma
DNA RNA protein
64
what direction does DNA grow
5 to 3
65
enzyme in TCA cycle
succinate dehydrogenase
66
TCA cycle net yield
``` ATP - 4 NADH - 10 FADH2 - 2 H+ - 10 CO2 - 6 ```
67
role of pyruvate dehydrogenase
catalyses decarboxylation of pyruvate releasing carbon dioxide and producing H+ and NADH
68
ventricular fibrillation tx
electrical defibrillation
69
ventricular tachycardia tx
lignocaine / amiodarone dc cardiovert
70
atrial fibrillation tx
beta blockers
71
atrial flutter tx
radio-frequency catheter ablation