yuefbhjwdshiujknvsdiohuewjkd Flashcards

1
Q

investigation for bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT

  • tram tracking / signet ring sign
  • bronchiole wider than neighbouring arteriole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does lung malignancy cause

A

exudative pleural effusion ie protein >35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

thrombolysis drug

A

alteplase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

curb65 score >4

A

admit to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tumour marker for HCC

A

alphafeto protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

transmural

A

crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

reduced goblet cells

A

uc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rockall and ggow/blatchford

A

upper gi bleeding / pre-endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hepatic encephalopathy grade 3

A

somnolent but arousable

0- nothing wrong
1 - tired / mild confusion / disordered sleep
2 - lethargic / asterixis
4 - coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

anaemia associated with autoimmune diseases

A

pernicious

vitB12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

complication of Barrett oesophagus

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dry skin dry eyes itching jaundice extreme fatigue

anti mitochondrial antibodies +

A

PBC

women under 40yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1st 6 weeks tx for h pylori

A

amoxicillin clarithromycin and a PPI

if still present post 6 weeks then try metronidazole instead of clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

h pylori pre endoscopy

A

The patient should not have taken antibiotics or bismuth products for four weeks and no PPI for two weeks before H. Pylori diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

prophylaxis for hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what populations are you likely to see wolf parkinson white

A

younger pop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

if someone has pleuritic chest pain 1-6 weeks after an MI what we thinking !?

A

dresslers !!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is dresslers

A

secondary pericariditis post MI

pleuritic chest pain
low grade fever
worse when lying down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hepatitis most associated with IVDUs

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

trans-oesophageal echocardiogram - when to use diagnostically ?

A

anything wrong with heart valves ie infective endocarditis ALWAYS do a TOE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

is anaphylaxis any good for IE

A

nopeeeeee just prophylactic antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

features of rheumatic fever

A

polyartritis
chorea
subcutaneous nodules
erythema magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

left circumflex artery affected ?

A

anteroseptal leads

ie V1-v4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sympathetic activity on the GI system

A

reduced GI blood flow ie fight or flight response - blood is redirected to more things like skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

hirschsprungs disease

A

absence colonic innervation

-absent or defective intramural nerves

ie 1 month old baby not passing any stools for two weeks - bad constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most common cause of pre-hepatic jaundice

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

neonatal jaundice

sickle cell anaemia

gilberts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is mainly responsible for the secretion of GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide)

A

presence of glucose in the duodenum

K cells secrete GIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the functions of GIP

A

induces insulin release from beta cells in the endocrine pancreas

decreasing blood sugar levels (ie signal = glucose in the duodenum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MoA of GIP

A

binds to a GPCR > ATP - cAMP > protein kinase A

30
Q

does pyruvate > acetyl coa require o2

A

yeah bro if not it becomes lactate

31
Q

enzyme required for pyruvate oxidation

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase

2 Co As are also required

32
Q

by-products of pyruvate oxidation

A

two carbon dioxide molecules

two NADH+

33
Q

which layer of the GI tract is responsible for peristalsis and segmentation

A

muscularis externa

34
Q

how does the myenteric plexus work

auerbach’s

A

so food stuffs in the lumen will interact with epithelial cells and the cells can essentially tell if the food is in front of it or behind it ,

the cells signal the sensory neurones that connects the epithelial cells to the : ascending and descending neurone network in the muscularis externa

the sensory neurones trigger either :
ORAL
-the ascending neurones to cause contraction of the circular inner muscularis via Ach and Sub. P
-the descending neurones to cause relaxation of the outer longitudinal muscle via NO and VIP

ABORAL
the opposite essential ie Ach and Sub P redirected to longitudinal

35
Q

parasympathetic action on GI tract

A

rest and digest

36
Q

which cells in the intestinal crypts contain digestive enzymes

A

enterocytes

37
Q

why does HF cause oedema then mate

A

reduced co
kidneys aren’t being perfused as well as they could be do can’t filter blood as well (ie increase of solutes etc in circulation)
this increases venous pressure
this increase hydrostatic pressure
this means that the pressure gradient needed for tissue fluid to be reabsorbed at the venue is decreased so lots of tissue fluid staying in the tissue
=oedema

38
Q

is a VSD a cyanotic lesion

A

not initially

> pulmonary hypertension (eisenmenger’s)

39
Q

what congenital defect is most common in people with Down’s Syndrome

A

VSD

40
Q

what type of lesions is a PDA

A

ASD

41
Q

how to calculate MEAN ARTERIAL PRESSURE not mapb

A

cardiac output x total peripheral resistance

42
Q

chronic mechanism to compensate for HF

A

increase right atrial pressure

43
Q

acute mechanisms to compensate for HF

A

increase sympathetic activity

44
Q

in heart failure - excitation coupling is deranged by what ?

A

the upregulation of the sarcolemmal Na/Ca exchanger

In heart failure, the sarcolemmal Na+/Ca2+ exchanger is upregulated. The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger is located in the sarcolemma, acting to transport Na+ into cardiomyocytes and Ca2+ out of cardiomyocytes.

45
Q

what does adrenaline act on IN THE HEART

A

b1

46
Q

what effect does adrenaline have on the funny current

A

increases

47
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

killed by oxygen

48
Q

microaerophile

A

needs lower oxygen levels

49
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

can grow in both absence and presence of oxygen

50
Q

anaerobic bacilli gram +

A

clostridium bacilli

51
Q

what abx to treat coliforms

A

gentamicin

52
Q

associated with staph epidermis infection

A

foreign devices

53
Q

the three bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

macrolides

tetracyclines

trimethoprim

54
Q

4cs

A

co-amoxiclav

clindamycin

cephalosporins / ceftriaxone

ciprofloxacin

55
Q

antibiotic resistance - CDE

A

change in gene to abx
destruction of abx
efflux pumps increase

56
Q

when might FISH not be appropriate

A

looking for small chromosomal changes

57
Q

Philadelphia chromosome

A

reciprocal translocation between 9 and 22

58
Q

promoter mutation

A

no protein

59
Q

missense mutation

A

different non-functioning protein

60
Q

nonsense

A

short or absent protein

61
Q

splice site mutation

A

abnormal or absent protein

62
Q

peptide bond formation enzyme

A

peptidyl transferase

63
Q

central dogma

A

DNA RNA protein

64
Q

what direction does DNA grow

A

5 to 3

65
Q

enzyme in TCA cycle

A

succinate dehydrogenase

66
Q

TCA cycle net yield

A
ATP - 4
NADH - 10
FADH2 - 2
H+ - 10
CO2 - 6
67
Q

role of pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

catalyses decarboxylation of pyruvate releasing carbon dioxide and producing H+ and NADH

68
Q

ventricular fibrillation tx

A

electrical defibrillation

69
Q

ventricular tachycardia tx

A

lignocaine / amiodarone

dc cardiovert

70
Q

atrial fibrillation tx

A

beta blockers

71
Q

atrial flutter tx

A

radio-frequency catheter ablation