II Flashcards

1
Q

site of sperm production

A

seminiferous tubules

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2
Q

drains semen into the urethra

A

ejaculatory duct

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3
Q

drains venous blood directly into systemic venous system (gi)

A

anal canal

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4
Q

fracture of this bone could injure the kidney

A

rib 11

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5
Q

appendicular skeleton use for bone marrow aspirates

A

ilium

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6
Q

bone that doesnt articulate with other bones

A

hyoid

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7
Q

a fingertip inserted through the gastro-mental foramen will be within this space

A

lesser sac

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8
Q

peritoneal structure attached to stomach

A

greater momentum

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9
Q

pelvic splanchnic nerves found here

A

mesentery of sigmoid colon

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10
Q

circular muscle forming a sphincter under somatic control

A

anus

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11
Q

contains circular and longitudinal muscle stimulated to contract by pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

sigmoid colon

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12
Q

retroperitoneal structure under control of postganglionic fibres from celiac plexus

A

3rd part of duodenum

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13
Q

abnormal function of vagus nerve is responsible for this motor deficit

A

muscle of phonation

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14
Q

abnormal function of the oculomotor nerve responsible for this motor deficit

A

muscle that constricts pupil

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15
Q

abnormal function of trigeminal nerve responsible for this motor deficit

A

upper lip connection to cheek bone

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16
Q

an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel, patient would only suffer a stroke

A

second branch of arch of aorta

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17
Q

an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel, patient would have sharp stabbing pain well-localised to poster-lateral intercostal space

A

branch of descending thoracic aorta

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18
Q

infected embolus from this valve occluded this vessel, loss of function in one upper limb

A

third branch of arch of aorta

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19
Q

during the absorptive state

A

glucose is the main energy source

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20
Q

how many ADP molecules per glucose are phosphorylated to ATP during glycolysis

A

2

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21
Q

which complex does not pump protons as electrons pass through respiratory chain

A

complex II

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22
Q

how many NAD+ molecules are reduced in the degradation of palmitoyl-CoA to form 8 molecules of acetyl Co A

A

7

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23
Q

where is G6 phosphatase enzyme found

A

in cells able to store glycogen

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24
Q

carrier molecule for transporting fatty acids through inner mitochondria membrane

A

carnitine

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25
Q

ATP synthesis mechanism in glycolytic pathway

A

substrate phosphorylation

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26
Q

characteristics of a malignant cell

A

abnormal karyotype
increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio
diploidy
abnormal mitotic figures

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27
Q

classical oncogenes

A

stimulate proliferation

act in a dominant manner

activated by point mutation

first identified as genes encoding proteins responsible for carcinogenic properties of DNA tumour viruses

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28
Q

G protein signalling

A

signalling is terminated by hydrolysis of GTP to GDP by GTPase activity of the g protein alpha subunit

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29
Q

aspirin - total percentage of molecules ionised

A

99.00

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30
Q

first order elimination kinetics

A

doubling dose of drug given as IV infusion doubles plasma conc

31
Q

normal range for MABP

A

70-105mmHg

32
Q

reduction of pyruvate to kinase

A

allows for NAD+ recycling

33
Q

what reaction is glycogen phosphorylase involved in

A

glycogen breakdown

34
Q

how to calculate MABP

A

diastolic x 2

add systolic to this

divide all by 3

35
Q

horizontal fissure right lung what is the anterior anatomical landmark

A

rib 4

36
Q

AC joint - inferior aspect

A

coracoid process

37
Q

lung apex lies superior to ?

A

sternal medial end of clavicle

38
Q

what receptors are involved in airway relaxation

A

B2

39
Q

what receptors are involved in increased mucus secretion and airway contraction

A

M3

40
Q

what cytokine does Th2 produce to activate B cells

A

interleukin 4

41
Q

inspiratory capacity

A

the sum of inspiratory residual volume and tidal volume

42
Q

IR volume

A

‘the max vol. that can be inhaled from end respiratory level’

43
Q

TLCO

A

max vol. of air present in lungs

44
Q

vital capacity

A

volume of air breathed out after deep inhalation

45
Q

complications of lung tumours

A

SPHERE

S- SVC obstruction 
P- pan coast tumour 
H- horner's 
E- endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes 
R- recurrent laryngeal  damage 
E- effusions
46
Q

what is a manifestation of LHF

A

pulsus alternans - strong and then weak pulse

S3 gallop

47
Q

HF-pEF

A

diastolic HF - impaired ventricular filling

causes : HOCM, restrictive cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade

48
Q

HF-rEF

A

systolic HF - impaired myocardial contraction

causes : ischeamia, dilated cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, infiltrate

49
Q

what is released in response to myocardial stretch

A

BNP - congestive heart failure

need to refer to trans-thoracic echocardiogram

50
Q

heart failure chest x-ray mnemonic

A
A - alveolar oedema (batwing)
B - kerley B lines
C - cardiomegaly 
D - upper lobe blood diversion
E - pleural effusion
F - fluid in horizontal fissure
51
Q

pharmacological management of HF

A
1. ACEi and Bb
switch to ARB if intolerant to ACEi 
if intolerant to ARB and ACEi then try 
hydralazine and nitrates
Loop diuretics - furosemide or bumetanide
2. if NYHA >2
spironolactone / eplerenone
ivabradine 
digoxin 
hydralazine and nitrate for afro-carribean
52
Q

antibiotic induced colitis

A

produces mucosal pseudomembranous exudate

-‘profuse watery diarrhoea after some sort of antibiotic treatment’

53
Q

effect of oral morphine on GI tract

A

increase fluid absorption

54
Q

can increased haemolysis increase bilirubin

A

yes

55
Q

oral manifestation of coeliac

A

recurrent apthous ulceration

56
Q

milk sugar broken down into

A

glucose and galactose

57
Q

role of bile in digestion

A

fat, duodenum

58
Q

what percentage of fluid entering the small intestine is reabsorbed before leaving the anus ?

A

95%

such a weird question

59
Q

what disease is associated with UC

A

PSC

60
Q

primary factor responsible for moving chyme forward in the small intestine

A

a gradient in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine

61
Q

pre ganglionic parasympathetic fibres and sympathetic fibres all release Ach and what is their receptor

post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres also release Ach

A

nicotinic Ach receptor

62
Q

post ganglionic sympathetic fibres use what kind of neurotransmitter , and what is the receptor

A

noradrenaline (alpha1 alpha2 beta receptors)

63
Q

56 yr old man has progressive dysphagia, can only manage fluids, lost 4kg in wt, diagnosed with Barret’s 3 years ago - likely diagnosis ?

A

malignant oesophageal stricture

64
Q

sudden outbreak of vomitting and diarrhoea affecting staff and patients in a single ward - most likely causative organism

A

norovirus

65
Q

25 yr old man with a 5 day history of severe abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhoea, had a bbq last week with lots of beef burgers - organism ?

A

e. coli 0157

66
Q

upper limit BMI for underweight people

A

<18.5

67
Q

BMI range for overweight people

A

25-30 (>30 = obese)

68
Q

bacteria that lives in nose and throat of 40% healthy individual but can easily be transferred into food via hand ?

A

staph. aureus

69
Q

what favours the formation of ketone bodies ?

A

when there is not enough oxaloacetate to react with acetyl-CoA

70
Q

how is specificity defined ?

A

proportion of people who test negative and are actually negative (of the disease/don’t have it)

71
Q

33 yr old F has 6 week history of increased bowel frequency and occasional incontinence, stools are loose and mixed with blood, no antibiotic use or close contacts with same symptoms - diagnosis ?

A

UC

72
Q

check response of anti-viral ?

A

DNA viral load

73
Q

piecemeal liver necrosis

A

drug induced liver damage