II Flashcards

1
Q

site of sperm production

A

seminiferous tubules

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2
Q

drains semen into the urethra

A

ejaculatory duct

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3
Q

drains venous blood directly into systemic venous system (gi)

A

anal canal

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4
Q

fracture of this bone could injure the kidney

A

rib 11

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5
Q

appendicular skeleton use for bone marrow aspirates

A

ilium

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6
Q

bone that doesnt articulate with other bones

A

hyoid

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7
Q

a fingertip inserted through the gastro-mental foramen will be within this space

A

lesser sac

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8
Q

peritoneal structure attached to stomach

A

greater momentum

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9
Q

pelvic splanchnic nerves found here

A

mesentery of sigmoid colon

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10
Q

circular muscle forming a sphincter under somatic control

A

anus

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11
Q

contains circular and longitudinal muscle stimulated to contract by pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

sigmoid colon

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12
Q

retroperitoneal structure under control of postganglionic fibres from celiac plexus

A

3rd part of duodenum

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13
Q

abnormal function of vagus nerve is responsible for this motor deficit

A

muscle of phonation

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14
Q

abnormal function of the oculomotor nerve responsible for this motor deficit

A

muscle that constricts pupil

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15
Q

abnormal function of trigeminal nerve responsible for this motor deficit

A

upper lip connection to cheek bone

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16
Q

an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel, patient would only suffer a stroke

A

second branch of arch of aorta

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17
Q

an infected embolus from the valve suddenly occluded this vessel, patient would have sharp stabbing pain well-localised to poster-lateral intercostal space

A

branch of descending thoracic aorta

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18
Q

infected embolus from this valve occluded this vessel, loss of function in one upper limb

A

third branch of arch of aorta

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19
Q

during the absorptive state

A

glucose is the main energy source

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20
Q

how many ADP molecules per glucose are phosphorylated to ATP during glycolysis

A

2

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21
Q

which complex does not pump protons as electrons pass through respiratory chain

A

complex II

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22
Q

how many NAD+ molecules are reduced in the degradation of palmitoyl-CoA to form 8 molecules of acetyl Co A

A

7

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23
Q

where is G6 phosphatase enzyme found

A

in cells able to store glycogen

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24
Q

carrier molecule for transporting fatty acids through inner mitochondria membrane

A

carnitine

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25
ATP synthesis mechanism in glycolytic pathway
substrate phosphorylation
26
characteristics of a malignant cell
abnormal karyotype increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio diploidy abnormal mitotic figures
27
classical oncogenes
stimulate proliferation act in a dominant manner activated by point mutation first identified as genes encoding proteins responsible for carcinogenic properties of DNA tumour viruses
28
G protein signalling
signalling is terminated by hydrolysis of GTP to GDP by GTPase activity of the g protein alpha subunit
29
aspirin - total percentage of molecules ionised
99.00
30
first order elimination kinetics
doubling dose of drug given as IV infusion doubles plasma conc
31
normal range for MABP
70-105mmHg
32
reduction of pyruvate to kinase
allows for NAD+ recycling
33
what reaction is glycogen phosphorylase involved in
glycogen breakdown
34
how to calculate MABP
diastolic x 2 add systolic to this divide all by 3
35
horizontal fissure right lung what is the anterior anatomical landmark
rib 4
36
AC joint - inferior aspect
coracoid process
37
lung apex lies superior to ?
sternal medial end of clavicle
38
what receptors are involved in airway relaxation
B2
39
what receptors are involved in increased mucus secretion and airway contraction
M3
40
what cytokine does Th2 produce to activate B cells
interleukin 4
41
inspiratory capacity
the sum of inspiratory residual volume and tidal volume
42
IR volume
'the max vol. that can be inhaled from end respiratory level'
43
TLCO
max vol. of air present in lungs
44
vital capacity
volume of air breathed out after deep inhalation
45
complications of lung tumours
SPHERE ``` S- SVC obstruction P- pan coast tumour H- horner's E- endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes R- recurrent laryngeal damage E- effusions ```
46
what is a manifestation of LHF
pulsus alternans - strong and then weak pulse S3 gallop
47
HF-pEF
diastolic HF - impaired ventricular filling causes : HOCM, restrictive cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade
48
HF-rEF
systolic HF - impaired myocardial contraction causes : ischeamia, dilated cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, infiltrate
49
what is released in response to myocardial stretch
BNP - congestive heart failure need to refer to trans-thoracic echocardiogram
50
heart failure chest x-ray mnemonic
``` A - alveolar oedema (batwing) B - kerley B lines C - cardiomegaly D - upper lobe blood diversion E - pleural effusion F - fluid in horizontal fissure ```
51
pharmacological management of HF
``` 1. ACEi and Bb switch to ARB if intolerant to ACEi if intolerant to ARB and ACEi then try hydralazine and nitrates Loop diuretics - furosemide or bumetanide ``` ``` 2. if NYHA >2 spironolactone / eplerenone ivabradine digoxin hydralazine and nitrate for afro-carribean ```
52
antibiotic induced colitis
produces mucosal pseudomembranous exudate -'profuse watery diarrhoea after some sort of antibiotic treatment'
53
effect of oral morphine on GI tract
increase fluid absorption
54
can increased haemolysis increase bilirubin
yes
55
oral manifestation of coeliac
recurrent apthous ulceration
56
milk sugar broken down into
glucose and galactose
57
role of bile in digestion
fat, duodenum
58
what percentage of fluid entering the small intestine is reabsorbed before leaving the anus ?
95% such a weird question
59
what disease is associated with UC
PSC
60
primary factor responsible for moving chyme forward in the small intestine
a gradient in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine
61
pre ganglionic parasympathetic fibres and sympathetic fibres all release Ach and what is their receptor post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres also release Ach
nicotinic Ach receptor
62
post ganglionic sympathetic fibres use what kind of neurotransmitter , and what is the receptor
noradrenaline (alpha1 alpha2 beta receptors)
63
56 yr old man has progressive dysphagia, can only manage fluids, lost 4kg in wt, diagnosed with Barret's 3 years ago - likely diagnosis ?
malignant oesophageal stricture
64
sudden outbreak of vomitting and diarrhoea affecting staff and patients in a single ward - most likely causative organism
norovirus
65
25 yr old man with a 5 day history of severe abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhoea, had a bbq last week with lots of beef burgers - organism ?
e. coli 0157
66
upper limit BMI for underweight people
<18.5
67
BMI range for overweight people
25-30 (>30 = obese)
68
bacteria that lives in nose and throat of 40% healthy individual but can easily be transferred into food via hand ?
staph. aureus
69
what favours the formation of ketone bodies ?
when there is not enough oxaloacetate to react with acetyl-CoA
70
how is specificity defined ?
proportion of people who test negative and are actually negative (of the disease/don't have it)
71
33 yr old F has 6 week history of increased bowel frequency and occasional incontinence, stools are loose and mixed with blood, no antibiotic use or close contacts with same symptoms - diagnosis ?
UC
72
check response of anti-viral ?
DNA viral load
73
piecemeal liver necrosis
drug induced liver damage